Practice Exam Question 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The lock that is mostly used for cabinets, lockers, and safe deposit boxes is:

A. The wafer lock
B. The disc-tumbler lock
C. The pin-tumbler lock
D. The lever lock

A

D

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2
Q

Which term best describes the financial commitments of a company?

A. Equity
B. Assets
C. Losses
D. Liabilities

A

D

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3
Q

For access control purposes, it is helpful to divide a high-rise structure into three classes or types of interior spaces. Which of the following best describes these?

A. Public spaces, semi-private spaces, private spaces
B. Common areas, assigned occupancies, maintenance spaces
C. Internal spaces, rented spaces, external spaces
D. High security, low security, medium security

A

B

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4
Q

Which of the following is not correct regarding benzodiazepine?
A. This family of depressants is used to relieve anxiety and tension.
B. This depressant causes muscle spasms and convulsions.
C. This depressant is safer to use than other depressants.
D. Excessive use may result in physical and psychological dependence

A

B

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5
Q

The theory that the human organism is motivated by an ascending series of needs and that once the lower needs have been satisfied, they will be supplanted by the higher needs as motives for behavior is known as:

A. Maslow’s hierarchy of prepotency
B. McGregor’s theory X
C. McGregor’s theory Y
D. Herzberg’s two factor theory

A

A

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6
Q

Mental disorders may be determined by various symptoms. Which of the following is not such a symptom?

A. Sudden changes in behavior
B. Behavior that is not harmonious with a situation
C. Unduly prolonged depression
D. Solicitous behavior

A

D

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7
Q

When it is necessary to question a witness about sexual deviation, all the following should be avoided except:

A. Using street language
B. Giving the impression of being avid to develop the facts
C. Leaving the impression of suspecting the subject of being a sex deviate
D. Allowing the witness to frame the testimony in his or her own words

A

D

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8
Q

Which of the following does not apply to synthetic narcotics?

A. Two of the most widely available synthetic narcotics are meperidine and methadone
B. Synthetic narcotics are natural substances that are enhanced within a laboratory
C. Meperidine can be administered by injection or taken orally
D. Large doses can result in convulsions

A

B

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9
Q

A psychopath can often pass a polygraph test with a clean record because of the following characteristic:

A. Uncooperative attitude
B. Unstable personality
C. An inferiority complex
D. An abnormal lack of fear

A

D

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10
Q

To effectively involve the law for the protection of sensitive information, the owner of the proprietary information must be able to show ‘objective indications of attempts to protect secrecy’. Which of the following has not been recognized in the past as such an indication?

A. Use of warning signs to alert employees to sensitive data and the places it is stored
B. Separately storing sensitive information in security containers with the appropriate security precautions
C. Employing a system with cyclical redundancy checks
D. Restrictions to nonemployee access to places containing sensitive information

A

C

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11
Q

Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:

A. 0.5 foot-candle
B. 1.0 foot-candle
C. 1.5 foot-candles
D. 2.0 foot-candles

A

B

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12
Q

Which of the following characteristics relate to the psychological stress analyzer?

A. A physical connection with the body is required
B. The subject is required to answer in a terse “yes” or “no” format
C. It can be used covertly
D. It has no value as a “truth tester”

A

C

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13
Q

Which of the following applies to the laser as a means of communication?

A. The benefit is that no line-of-sight transmission is necessary
B. Poor weather conditions will not interfere with the beam
C. It is practically impossible to intercept the beam without detection
D. It works well in mountain areas where other signals are weak

A

C

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14
Q

The type of sensor that is not influenced by exterior noise, reacts only to movement within a protected area, and can also be adjusted to the movement of air caused by a fire to activate the alarm is known as a(n):

A. Proximity sensor
B. Radar sensor
C. Vibration sensor
D. Ultrasonic sensor

A

D

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15
Q

The rule that states that approximately one in ten applications will have major omissions, which will require going back to the applicant, is called:

A. The rule of 10
B. The rule of 9
C. The 1-10 rule
D. Sullivan’s rule

A

A

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16
Q

A sentry dog normally does not perform as well at:

A. Radar sites
B. Warehouses
C. Gasoline storage areas
D. Ammunition storage areas

A

C

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a correct statement, as a general rule, involving the protection of proprietary information?

A. As a class, employees are the largest group of persons bound to secrecy because of their status or relationship
B. By operation of common law, employees are presumed to be fiduciaries to an extent that they may not disclose secrets of their employers without authorization
C. Other than the employees, any other persons to be bound to secrecy must agree to be so bound
D. Any agreement to be bound must always be in writing and are not implied from acts

A

D

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18
Q

Which of the following best describes the following?

“This equipment is primarily used to:
- Detect activities that call for a security response
- Collect images of an incident for later review
- Assist with incident assessment”

A. CCTV surveillance
B. Video surveillance
C. Intrusion detection
D. Access control

A

B

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19
Q

Which of the following is not true in regard to establishing and identifying personnel to control movement?

A. The identification card should be designed as simply as possible
B. Detailed instructions should be disseminated as to where, when, and how badges should be worn
C. The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication
D. Procedures should be designed to show employees what to do when an identification card or badge is lost

A

C

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20
Q

The person under a duty to safeguard a proprietary secret is known as a(n):

A. Agent
B. Proprietary security employee
C. Fiduciary
D. Business associate

A

C

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21
Q

An employer may not question an applicant about:

A. An unsatisfactory interview
B. Unexplained gaps in employment history
C. An arrest for a crime against property
D. A conviction for a crime against property

A

C

22
Q

One of the following is not considered an element of the common law crime of arson:

A. Commercial building
B. Maliciousness
C. Burning
D. Willfulness

A

A

23
Q

Watery eyes, runny, nose, yawning, loss of appetite, irritability, tremors, panic, chills and sweating, cramps, and nausea would indicate withdrawal symptoms of:

A. Barbiturates
B. Stimulants
C. Heroin
D. Cocaine

A

C

24
Q

Unclassified material should be marked:

A. ‘Unclassified’ at the top of the page
B. ‘Unclassified’ at the bottom of the page
C. ‘Unclassified’ at the top and bottom of the page
D. With no marking

A

D

25
Q

It is becoming increasingly more difficult to do a good preemployment background investigation because of:

A. The expense
B. The lack of skilled investigators
C. Various rulings and court decisions that inhibit the use of techniques or instruments available
D. The uncooperative attitudes of persons interviewed

A

C

26
Q

Which of the following lighting systems have the best color rendition for night lighting?

A. Mercury vapor
B. Metal halide
C. Low pressure sodium
D. High pressure sodium

A

B

27
Q

In the eyes of the court, an expert is a person skilled by means of:

A. Skill, experience, and personal knowledge
B. Training, skill, and experience
C. Education, training, and skill
D. Education, training, and experience

A

D

28
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding electronic eavesdropping?

A. A listening device installed in a wire will cause a crackling sound, click, or other noise that can be heard on the line
B. An effective countermeasure to detect evidence of electronic eavesdropping in telephone equipment should be conducted by a person who is technically familiar with such equipment.
C. An effective countermeasure would be to conduct a physical search as well as an electronic search.
D. All wiring should be traced and accounted for.

A

A

29
Q

Most of the information gleaned during the investigative process comes from:

A. Surveillance
B. Undercover
C. Interviews
D. Internet

A

C

30
Q

Which of the following types of investigations is considered the ‘the most common type of investigation’ in many business and organizational settings?

A. Incident
B. Misconduct
C. Compliance
D. Undercover

A

A

31
Q

The most common lie used by deceptive individuals is:

A. The lie of omission
B. The exaggeration
C. The fabrication
D. The minimization

A

A

32
Q

The investigative report should enable the reader to understand what the investigator did, why it was done, and what resulted. As such, an investigative report should be clear and:

A. Comparative and concise
B. Concise and compassionate
C. Concise and complete
D. Cogent and complete

A

C

33
Q

Which of the following is not a sub-category of civil law?

A. Tort law
B. Property law
C. Domestic law
D. Contract law

A

C

34
Q

In order to be legally acceptable, whatever the evidence, it must be competent, relevant, and:

A. Necessary
B. Material
C. Pertinent
D. Useful

A

B

35
Q

All the following are considered either unethical or dishonest behavior while involved in an investigation, except:

A. Compromising sensitive investigative information
B. Lying during judicial or administrative proceedings
C. Making friends with a witness
D. Improperly handling evidence

A

C

36
Q

A process where algorithms are used to scramble the information on a computer so that it is unusable, unless the changes are reversed, is called:

A. Firewall
B. Virus protection
C. VPN protection
D. Encryption

A

D

37
Q

Situational ethics can be defined as:

A. Knowing the difference between what is the right thing to do, and what you have the right to do
B. What is occurring at any given point determines what actions are effective, appropriate, and ethical
C. Company policies aimed at specific situations
D. The ‘Golden Rule’

A

B

38
Q

Which of the following is the process in which a law enforcement officer or a government agent encourages or induces a person to commit a crime when the potential criminal expresses a desire not to go ahead?

A. Enticement
B. Entrapment
C. Deceit
D. Sting

A

B

39
Q

Which of the following is a term named by criminologists to crime prevention strategies that attempt to reduce criminal opportunities, which arise from the routines of daily life?

A. Routine crime prevention
B. Environmental crime prevention
C. Situational crime prevention
D. Community crime prevention

A

C

40
Q

Which of the following policy statements should address who is responsible for ensuring that it is enforced?

A. Scope
B. Accountability
C. Overview
D. Exception

A

B

41
Q

CPTED measures which employ good space planning to reduce inhabitant conflicts by considering compatible circulation patterns, including a well-defined building entrance and arranging courtyards, patios and porches for unobstructed lines of sight, describe which of the following?

A. Mechanical Measures
B. Organizational Measures
C. Human Measures
D. Natural Measures

A

D

42
Q

A company is interested in purchasing property overseas. They decide to investigate to evaluate the current property owners, the location, finances, and operations of the target property. Which of the following statements is best describes this type of investigation?

A. Compliance
B. Financial
C. Background
D. Due diligence

A

D

43
Q

A collaborative approach to decision-making and a single incident command post, with the agencies involved in the incident participating in the process through direct representation or through the ICS liaison officer, as appropriate, is referred to as:

A. Incident command
B. Unified command
C. Command structure
D. Emergency coordination

A

B

44
Q

A financial strategy is management’s financial approach to determining the expected returns of its investments (including its departments and operations) and estimating and managing the relevant risks. What is the first step in establishing a financial strategy?

A. Identifying expected margins or profit
B. Setting cost savings targets
C. Identifying possible investors
D. Opening a bank account

A

A

45
Q

When in the procurement stage, an invitation for bids (IFB) will list specific equipment and software and request prices from the contractors to supply the specific items and install them. This is best described as:

A. Design estimation
B. Design specification
C. Design planning
D. Design evaluation

A

B

46
Q

Physical security protection in this layer of security measures includes protective lighting, intrusion detection systems, locks, signs, barriers such as fencing, and the building walls itself. Protection of building exterior openings is important. This best describes the ______ layer of protection.

A. Outer
B. Middle
C. Inner
D. Perimeter

A

B

47
Q

What does PE represent in the following formula: PE = PI x PN?

A. PPS effectiveness
B. Probability of interruption
C. Probability of neutralization
D. Probability of event

A

A

48
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Risk assessment of the organization’s information systems need only to be performed once.
B. Organizations are recommended to only perform quantitative risk assessments.
C. Risk assessments should identify risks, quantify them, and prioritize them according to the organization’s criteria for risk acceptance.
D. Organizations are recommended to only perform qualitative risk assessments.

A

C

49
Q

Which type of camera has a static position and is always aimed at the desired field of view?

A. PTZ (Pan Tilt Zoom)
B. Fixed
C. Infrared
D. IP (Internet Protocol)

A

B

50
Q

‘A thorough physical examination of a facility and its systems and procedures, conducted to assess the current level of security, locate deficiencies, and gauge the level of protection needed’ is the definition for which of the following?

A. Risk Analysis
B. Vulnerability Analysis
C. Security Survey
D. Loss Event Survey

A

C