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NASM > Practice Exam 4 > Flashcards

Practice Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What population is the VT2 talk test appropriate for?
Select one:

a. Individuals with performance goals
b. Individuals recovering from an injury
c. Deconditioned individuals
d. Elderly individuals

A

a. Individuals with performance goals

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2
Q

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins?
Select one:

a. Right ventricle
b. Right atrium
c. Left atrium
d. Left ventricle

A

b. Right atrium

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3
Q

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event?
Select one:

a. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid
b. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity
c. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity
d. 2 to 3 liters of fluid

A

c. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

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4
Q

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane?
Select one:

a. Hip flexor
b. Erector spinae
c. Gluteus medius
d. Gluteus maximus

A

c. Gluteus medius

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5
Q

Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Select one:

a. Increased lipogenesis
b. Increased heart rate and decreased stroke volume
c. Increased stroke volume and decreased heart rate
d. Increased lipolysis

A

d. Increased lipolysis

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6
Q

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis?
Select one:

a. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling.
b. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.
c. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.
d. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching.

A

b. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

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7
Q

What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Select one:

a. Isokinetic
b. Isometric
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric

A

b. Isometric

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8
Q

What phase of the OPT model does the adaptation “muscular strength and hypertrophy” fall into?
Select one:

a. Muscular Development
b. Stabilization
c. Strength Endurance
d. Power

A

a. Muscular Development

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9
Q

Which of the following blood pressure readings would classify an individual as having stage 1 hypertension?
Select one:

a. 124/80 mm Hg
b. 143/92 mm Hg
c. 118/78 mm Hg
d. 135/80 mm Hg

A

d. 135/80 mm Hg

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10
Q

When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Select one:

a. Ankle plantar flexion
b. Knee flexion
c. Ankle dorsiflexion
d. Hip abduction

A

a. Ankle plantar flexion

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11
Q

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles?
Select one:

a. Cable machine single-arm row
b. Kettlebell RDL
c. Sandbag rotational lunge
d. Stability ball abdominal crunches

A

b. Kettlebell RDL

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12
Q

According to the integrated performance paradigm, which of the following is a requirement for the safe control of movement during plyometrics?
Select one:

a. Power
b. Neuromuscular stabilization
c. Strength
d. Speed

A

b. Neuromuscular stabilization

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13
Q

Which component of an OPT workout is intended to help preserve client autonomy?
Select one:

a. Client’s choice
b. Activation
c. Resistance
d. Cool-down

A

a. Client’s choice

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14
Q

Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
Select one:

a. Sympathetic nervous system
b. Parasympathetic nervous system
c. Somatic nervous system
d. Central nervous system

A

b. Parasympathetic nervous system

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15
Q

What is an unstable (yet controllable) exercise environment that causes the body to use its internal balance and stabilization mechanisms?
Select one:

a. Proprioceptively enriched environment
b. Feed-forward activation
c. Asymmetrical resistance loading
d. Integrative function

A

a. Proprioceptively enriched environment

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16
Q

In what training zone are you exercising at a challenging to hard intensity, where continual talking would become challenging?
Select one:

a. Zone 2
b. Zone 3
c. Zone 4
d. Zone 1

A

a. Zone 2

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17
Q

This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard.
Select one:

a. Closed-ended questions
b. Reflections
c. Active listening
d. Open-ended questions

A

b. Reflections

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18
Q

What is the RDA for protein?
Select one:

a. 2.0 g/kg of body weight
b. 1.2 g/kg of body weight
c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight
d. 1.6 g/kg of body weight

A

c. 0.8 g/kg of body weight

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19
Q

Which of the following is an example of a client’s intrinsic motivation for exercise?
Select one:

a. Exercising because it is fun
b. Exercising because they feel guilty
c. Exercising because they value the health benefits
d. Exercising because a doctor tells them to

A

a. Exercising because it is fun

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20
Q

Which of the following force couples is accurately linked to the movement created by their combined action?
Select one:

a. The gastrocnemius and soleus functioning to create ankle dorsiflexion
b. Deltoid and rotator cuff functioning to create shoulder adduction
c. Upper trapezius and serratus anterior functioning to create downward rotation of the scapula
d. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

A

d. Internal and external obliques functioning to create trunk rotation

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21
Q

When progressing a client to more-dynamic plyometric exercises, what is the first element that should be increased?
Select one:

a. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing
b. Rate of force production
c. Explosiveness
d. Speed

A

a. Stabilization, form, and mechanics during landing

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22
Q

What is the name of the stored form of glucose?
Select one:

a. Glycogen
b. Pyruvate
c. Triglycerides
d. Glycolysis

A

a. Glycogen

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23
Q

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?
Select one:

a. What might work for you?
b. What might you want to change?
c. Why don’t you want to change?
d. If you decided to make a change, what might you do?

A

c. Why don’t you want to change?

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24
Q

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body?
Select one:

a. Heart rate
b. Thermoregulation
c. Peripheral vasodilation
d. Blood pressure

A

c. Peripheral vasodilation

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25
Q

What is the most important reason that a Certified Personal Trainer should make sure an older adult has been cleared by the medical provider to take part in a balance training program?
Select one:

a. To ensure safety
b. To enhance enjoyment of exercise
c. To make sure the program is difficult enough
d. To make sure the client isn’t doing too much exercise

A

a. To ensure safety

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26
Q

What is defined as the state of deficient glucose in the bloodstream?
Select one:

a. Hypotension
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypertension
d. Hypoglycemia

A

d. Hypoglycemia

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27
Q

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)?
Select one:

a. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm.
b. Expiration becomes more forceful.
c. Inspiration is prolonged.
d. Breathing becomes more shallow

A

b. Expiration becomes more forceful.

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28
Q

If a client is having trouble maintaining form during a tuck jump exercise, what type of regression should be applied?
Select one:

a. Being more explosive
b. Increasing speed
c. Switch to single-leg power step-ups
d. Adding a stabilization pause between reps

A

d. Adding a stabilization pause between reps

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29
Q

What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification?
Select one:

a. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training
b. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA
c. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category
d. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals

A

c. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category

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30
Q

What are two of the most common issues at the foot and ankle complex?
Select one:

a. Strains and heel spurs
b. Sprains and plantar fasciitis
c. Achilles tendonitis and athlete’s foot
d. Plantar fasciitis and shin splints

A

b. Sprains and plantar fasciitis

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31
Q

What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned on the opposite side of the body?
Select one:

a. Contralateral
b. Lateral
c. Posterior
d. Ipsilateral

A

a. Contralateral

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32
Q

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Select one:

a. Infraspinatus
b. Latissimus dorsi
c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula
d. Lower trapezius

A

c. Upper trapezius and levator scapula

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33
Q

Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?
Select one:

a. Scapula and humerus
b. Sternum and clavicle
c. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae
d. Cranium and facial bones

A

c. Neck of the femur and the lumbar (low-back) vertebrae

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34
Q

When is a muscle considered overactive?
Select one:

a. When a muscle is elongated and in a state of reduced neural activity
b. When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuromuscular recruitment
c. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction
d. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of relaxation

A

c. When it is in a state of elevated neural activity (compared to its antagonist muscle), which causes the muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction

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35
Q

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Select one:

a. Instrumental support
b. Emotional support
c. Informational support
d. Companionship support

A

a. Instrumental support

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36
Q

What is acidosis in muscle?
Select one:

a. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue
b. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength
c. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength
d. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

A

a. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

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37
Q

Which exercise would be most appropriate for the power movement of Phase 5 (Power Training) superset?
Select one:

a. Lat pulldown
b. Stability ball push-up
c. Dumbbell shoulder press
d. Front medicine ball oblique throw

A

d. Front medicine ball oblique throw

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38
Q

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Select one:

a. Proprioception
b. External feedback
c. Force velocity
d. Stretch-shortening cycle

A

a. Proprioception

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39
Q

What is the number one cause of death in the United States?
Select one:

a. Cancer
b. Smoking
c. Heart disease
d. Obesity

A

c. Heart disease

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40
Q

Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
Select one:

a. Type IIx
b. Type III
c. Type I
d. Type IIa

A

c. Type I

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41
Q

Which of the following is a component of agility training?
Select one:

a. Assessment of visual stimuli
b. Reaction
c. Deceleration
d. Stride rate

A

c. Deceleration

42
Q

What is the complete transition from eccentric to concentric muscle actions known as?
Select one:

a. Stretch-shortening cycle
b. Loading phase
c. Amortization phase
d. Unloading phase

A

a. Stretch-shortening cycle

43
Q

Which of the following is true for elastic resistance bands as a modality?
Select one:

a. Elastic band exercises should be avoided by novice exercisers until basic movement patterns are refined.
b. Elastic resistance training is most beneficial for maximal strength adaptations.
c. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.
d. Elastic bands are used predominately for sagittal-based exercises.

A

c. Elastic resistance training is beneficial for muscular strength and endurance.

44
Q

What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager?
Select one:

a. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
b. Visiting the club to ask members what they think about their experience at the club
c. Reading the reviews of the company and its programs on ratings websites
d. Following the most popular instructors from the club on social media

A

a. Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered

45
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of undulating periodization?
Select one:

a. Predetermined timelines
b. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis
c. Consistent in its approach
d. Increasing intensity while decreasing volume

A

b. Changing acute variables on a weekly basis

46
Q

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress?
Select one:

a. Wolff’s law
b. Overload principle
c. Davis’s law
d. Archimedes’ principle

A

c. Davis’s law

47
Q

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase?
Select one:

a. Core strength
b. Postural alignment
c. Rate of force production
d. Maximal muscular strength

A

b. Postural alignment

48
Q

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients?
Select one:

a. 7 to 9 drills
b. 9 or 10 drills
c. 1 or 2 drills
d. 4 to 6 drills

A

d. 4 to 6 drills

49
Q

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?
Select one:

a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Stomach
d. Esophagus

A

a. Small intestine

50
Q

You hear a client remark that she does not want to include any fat in her diet because she wants to avoid gaining weight. How might you respond, while staying within your scope of practice?
Select one:

a. Fats can be a source of extra calories in the diet, but they should be eaten to supply adequate energy for our brain.
b. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.
c. Fats provide more calories per gram than protein and carbohydrate, so avoiding them is a good strategy for weight management.
d. Fats are not an essential part of our diet and can be limited to avoid unnecessary calories.

A

b. Some fats are essential and required in the diet for important physiological processes. Avoiding all fats might lead to deficiencies.

51
Q

Davis’s law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Select one:

a. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
b. Adhesions can occur after strenuous exercise that breaks down muscle fibers and joint cartilage.
c. Tight muscles may cause synergistic dominance from pattern overload.
d. Adhesions may begin due to lack of physical activity and poor flexibility.

A

a. Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.

52
Q

What statement best describes a premium health club?
Select one:

a. A private health club offered only at luxury resorts and golf courses
b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
c. A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
d. A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives

A

b. A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities

53
Q

Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Select one:

a. Vestibular system
b. Visual system
c. Somatosensory system
d. Auditory system

A

a. Vestibular system

54
Q

What is the term for the chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission?
Select one:

a. Neurotransmitters
b. Sarcomeres
c. Adenosine triphosphate
d. Synapses

A

a. Neurotransmitters

55
Q

What is an example of a mechanism that can lead to muscle imbalance?
Select one:

a. Poor SMART goals
b. Postural distortions
c. Too much cardiovascular exercise
d. Inability to exercise 3 times per week

A

b. Postural distortions

56
Q

What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Select one:

a. Proprioception
b. Knowledge of results
c. Knowledge of performance
d. Motivation

A

a. Proprioception

57
Q

Which muscle group/complex is a prime mover for squatting motions?
Select one:

a. Adductor complex
b. Sartorius
c. Hamstrings
d. Quadriceps

A

d. Quadriceps

58
Q

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning on exercising within the next 6 months?
Select one:

a. Contemplation
b. Maintenance
c. Action
d. Precontemplation

A

a. Contemplation

59
Q

Why are children at a disadvantage when participating in short-duration (10 to 90 second) high-intensity anaerobic activities?
Select one:

a. Children have underdeveloped muscles and lack neuromuscular efficiency.
b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.
c. Children have smaller digestive tracts and are unable to absorb large quantities of nutrients.
d. Children have underdeveloped growth plates and inadequate joint stabilization.

A

b. Children produce less of the glycolytic enzymes that are required to support sustained anaerobic power.

60
Q

What are the two divisions of the skeletal system?
Select one:

a. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts
b. Upper and lower
c. Axial and appendicular
d. Anterior and posterior

A

c. Axial and appendicular

61
Q

Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
Select one:

a. For the body to produce enough cholesterol for daily needs, the diet must be supplemented with vitamins and minerals.
b. One can live without cholesterol.
c. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
d. Cholesterol is found only in the body’s major organs.

A

c. Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.

62
Q

What are the five kinetic chain checkpoints?
Select one:
a. Tibia, fibula, femur, ilium, coccyx
b. Sight, smell, taste, touch, hearing
c. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head
d. Metacarpals, ulna, radius, humerus, clavicle

A

c. Feet, knees, hips, shoulders, head

63
Q

Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?
Select one:

a. Troponin
b. Myosin
c. Actin
d. Fascicles

A

a. Troponin

64
Q

Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following?
Select one:
a. Being motivated by the process of changing behaviors
b. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others
c. Being motivated by a fear of failure
d. A drive to be good at something

A

b. Participating in an activity or behavior for some type of reward or recognition from others

65
Q

Which synergist would assist the upper-body pectoral muscles to enhance chest stabilization, strength, or power?
Select one:

a. Biceps brachii
b. Quadriceps
c. Triceps brachii
d. Latissimus dorsi

A

c. Triceps brachii

66
Q

Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
Select one:

a. 6 to 8 sets
b. 3 or 4 sets
c. 1 or 2 sets
d. 5 or 6 sets

A

c. 1 or 2 sets

67
Q

Proper abdominal crunches on a stability ball allows for:
Select one:

a. Greater range of motion, allowing for increased spinal flexion
b. Greater support and safety for elderly clients
c. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball
d. Less range of motion as compared to traditional floor crunches

A

c. Increased spinal extension due to the curvature of the ball

68
Q

If a client is exercising for 150 minutes per week (30 minutes, 5 days per week), then a 10% increase in volume would result in how many minutes total per week?
Select one:

a. 125 minutes per week
b. 165 minutes per week
c. 180 minutes per week
d. 150 minutes per week

A

b. 165 minutes per week

69
Q

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in Australia?
Select one:

a. Health Canada
b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)
d. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA)

A

c. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

70
Q

How much rest should be given between each repetition of an SAQ exercise for young athletes?
Select one:

a. 15 to 60 seconds
b. 60 to 90 seconds
c. 90 to 120 seconds
d. Less than 15 seconds

A

b. 60 to 90 seconds

71
Q

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Select one:

a. Complex training
b. Peripheral heart action system
c. Drop set
d. Pyramid system

A

b. Peripheral heart action system

72
Q

Which phase of training would a person who just completed a Muscular Development Training program want to go back to for some corrective assistance?
Select one:

a. Maximal Strength Training
b. Stabilization Endurance Training
c. Power Training
d. Strength Endurance Training

A

b. Stabilization Endurance Training

73
Q

Why might range of motion (ROM) be limited for a client?
Select one:

a. Laxity of a joint
b. Prime-mover relaxation
c. Stabilizer muscle relaxation
d. Previous injury

A

d. Previous injury

74
Q

Which of the following is a necessity for all fitness professionals to remain successful in the industry?
Select one:

a. Annual certification by NASM
b. Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry
c. Having at least 15 active clients at all times
d. Occasional publishing in relevant journals

A

b. Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry

75
Q

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model?
Select one:

a. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat
b. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row
c. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press
d. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown

A

b. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

76
Q

What training tip would enhance the benefits of resistance training by helping increase growth hormone, testosterone, and epinephrine?
Select one:

a. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric phase and slowing down the time for the concentric phase
b. Slowing down the contraction time for the concentric phase and speeding up the time for the eccentric phase
c. Speeding up the contraction time for the eccentric and concentric phases
d. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

A

d. Slowing down the speed of contractions during the eccentric and concentric phases

77
Q

What is the principle of specificity?
Select one:

a. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
b. The phenomenon by which acute muscle force generation is increased as a result of the inner contraction of the muscle
c. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts
d. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium

A

a. A principle stating that the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it

78
Q

What is the Valsalva maneuver?
Select one:

a. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability
b. The process of increasing the intensity or volume of exercise programs using a systematic and gradual approach
c. The process by which the human body strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
d. The body’s ability to naturally sense its general orientation and relative position of its parts

A

a. A process that involves expiring against a closed windpipe, creating additional intra-abdominal pressure and spinal stability

79
Q

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to cancer?
Select one:

a. Balance training poses serious risks to the hips and pelvis.
b. Core training poses serious risks to the vertebral column.
c. Resistance training is contraindicated for clients with diagnosed cancer.
d. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

A

d. Self-myofascial techniques are not recommended for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments.

80
Q

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles?
Select one:

a. Fascia
b. Muscle spindles
c. Tendons
d. Connective tissues

A

a. Fascia

81
Q

Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
Select one:

a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)
b. Thermic effect of food (TEF)
c. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)
d. Exercise activity thermogenesis (EAT)

A

a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

82
Q

Which type of assessment evaluates the position of the musculoskeletal system while the body is standing still?
Select one:

a. Dynamic posture assessment
b. Performance assessment
c. Static posture assessment
d. Overhead squat assessment

A

c. Static posture assessment

83
Q

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber?
Select one:

a. Larger in size
b. Quick to fatigue
c. Less force production
d. Fewer capillaries

A

c. Less force production

84
Q

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment of knee valgus?
Select one:

a. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes
b. The hip shifting toward one side or the other
c. The knees bowing outward
d. The knees collapsing inward

A

d. The knees collapsing inward

85
Q

What term is used for a condition that would make it unsafe for the client to participate in any type of flexibility exercise?
Select one:

a. Cardiovascular precaution
b. Contraindication
c. Precaution
d. Psychological concern

A

b. Contraindication

86
Q

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Select one:

a. Transverse and frontal
b. Frontal and sagittal
c. All planes of motion
d. Sagittal and transverse

A

b. Frontal and sagittal

87
Q

Intentions are a good predictor of behavior, but what has been shown to help translate intentions into behavior?
Select one:

a. Planning
b. Outcome expectations
c. Subjective norms
d. Action self-efficacy

A

a. Planning

88
Q

What are the two categories of bone markings?
Select one:

a. Surface and deep
b. Irregular and flat
c. Short and long
d. Depressions and processes

A

d. Depressions and processes

89
Q

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client’s strengths?
Select one:

a. Collecting summaries
b. Reflections
c. Affirmations
d. Transitional summaries

A

c. Affirmations

90
Q

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components?
Select one:

a. Flexibility and joint ROM
b. Muscle strength and power
c. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency
d. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness

A

a. Flexibility and joint ROM

91
Q

For which population is the 1.5-mile (2.4-km) run test considered most valid?
Select one:

a. Deconditioned individuals
b. Individuals recovering from an injury
c. College-aged athletes
d. Older adults

A

c. College-aged athletes

92
Q 
What is defined as the awareness of the positioning and movement of body segments?
Select one:
a. Kinesiology
b. Biomechanics
c. Proprioception
d. Kinesthetic awareness
A

c. Proprioception

93
Q

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome?
Select one:

a. Adductor complex
b. Lower trapezius
c. Hip flexors
d. Abdominals

A

d. Abdominals

94
Q

What is sarcopenia?
Select one:

a. Chronic inflammation of the joints
b. Lower than normal bone mineral density
c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue
d. Age-related loss in bone mineral density

A

c. Age-related loss of muscle tissue

95
Q

What type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
Select one:

a. Static stretching
b. Dynamic stretching
c. Self-myofascial techniques
d. Active stretching

A

c. Self-myofascial techniques

96
Q

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?
Select one:

a. I want to lose 20 pounds in the next month.
b. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.
c. I want to lose weight.
d. I want to lose 20 pounds.

A

b. I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months.

97
Q

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Select one:

a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week
b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week
c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week

A

b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week

98
Q

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs?
Select one:

a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Pulmonary veins

A

a. Left atrium

99
Q

The ability of an individual to maintain proper spinal and hip posture while the extremities are moving most accurately describes which term?
Select one:

a. Core endurance
b. Core stability
c. Core power
d. Core strength

A

b. Core stability

100
Q

Which term best describes core training’s effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Select one:

a. Rehabilitation
b. Injury resistance
c. Performance
d. Improved posture

A

b. Injury resistance

NASM (11 decks)

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