Final exam practice Flashcards
Davis’s law states which of the following?
Select one:
a. A chronically shortened muscle will demonstrate poor neuromuscular efficiency.
b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress.
c. A tight agonist muscle will decrease neural drive to its functional antagonist.
d. The body will seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns.
b. Soft tissue models along the lines of stress
Which of the following muscles is underactive if a client demonstrates an anterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Psoas c. Latissimus dorsi d. Gluteus maximus
d. Gluteus maximus
When assessing an overhead squat, an indication of relative flexibility due to tightness in the lateral gastrocnemius is: Select one: a. the knees moving inward. b. external rotation of the feet. c. excessive forward lean. d. low back arches.
b. external rotation of the feet.
When talking to a client, conversational techniques that express the purported meaning of what was just heard are referred to as: Select one: a. reflections. b. affirmations. c. compliments. d. judgments.
a. reflections.
Which of the following best describes the code of conduct for a fitness professional?
Select one:
a. A set of scientifically proven and evidence-based theories that a fitness professional can apply to specific fitness programs.
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
c. A set of processes that help a fitness professional determine the number of clients he or she can handle at a given time
d. A set of records that allow a fitness professional to track his or her own progress career-wise.
b. Guidelines to ensure that all professionals provide the highest level of service and respect for all colleagues, allied professionals, and the general public.
Which of the following is a sign that a client has completed an accurate one-rep maximum bench press estimation test?
Select one:
a. Your client fails after 8-12 repetitions.
b. Your client fails after 1 repetition.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
d. Your client fails right before their arms straighten.
c. Your client fails at 3 to 5 repetitions.
Which of the following is an example of a strength level resistance training exercise for legs? Select one: a. Multiplanar step-up to balance b. Single-leg squat c. Single-leg dead lift d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
d. Multiplanar dumbbell step-up
Which of the following macronutrients should be consumed in the highest percentage for a healthy diet? Select one: a. Carbohydrate b. Fat c. Protein d. Water
a. Carbohydrate
Which of the following is a Power Level balance exercise?
Select one:
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
b. Single-leg throw and catch
c. Single-leg internal and external rotation
d. Single-leg squat touchdown
a. Single-leg box hop-up with stabilization
A client who has an increased functional capacity to adapt to a stressor is in which of the following stages of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. Resistance development b. Alarm reaction c. Exhaustion d. Periodization
a. Resistance development
A client’s maximum heart rate must be established prior to administering the YMCA 3 minute step test. This is achieved by:
a. subtracting the client’s age from 220
b. subtracting the client’s resting heart rate from 220
c. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then subtracting the client’s resting heart rate
d. subtracting the client’s age from 220, then multiplying by 60-90%
a. subtracting the client’s age from 220
Which of the following should a trainer determine during the first step in the Ten Steps to Success? Select one: a. Weekly session needs b. Desired annual income c. Number of clients needed d. Closing percentage
b. Desired annual income
Which of the following vitamins and minerals are known to have the greatest potential for excess dosage in dietary supplements?
Select one:
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
b. Vitamin B, vitamin C, folic acid, and biotin
c. Beta-Carotene, vitamin E, vitamin K, and niacin
d. Iodine, magnesium, copper, and fluoride
a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, iron, and zinc
Which of the following is a category of subjective information? Select one: a. Body composition b. Cardiorespiratory assessment c. Medical background d. Performance assessment
c. Medical background
When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load must be placed in such a way to resist elbow extension. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press
a. standing triceps extension
Which of the following is part of the marketing mix? Select one: a. Prominence b. Public c. Place d. Professionalism
c. Place
Which of the following describes a split routine in a resistance training program?
Select one:
a. It allows for the use of two exercises for antagonistic muscles within one set.
b. It allows for the use of multiple sets for each exercise.
c. It is a way of training that splits the day into two separate workouts.
d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.
d. It is a way of training that works different body parts on different days.
Personal trainers have a maximum of how many seconds to make a good first impression? Select one: a. 10 seconds b. 15 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 30 seconds
c. 20 seconds
Which of the following muscles is underactive when the arms fall forward during an overhead squat? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Rhomboids c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Upper trapezius
b. Rhomboids
Which of the following information is considered objective? Select one: a. Occupation b. Lifestyle behavior c. Recreational activity d. Movement assessment
d. Movement assessment
Which of the following is contraindicated when training a client who is pregnant?
Select one:
a. Fitness assessments should be performed using seated or standing exercises.
b. Stabilization Endurance training should be used during the second and third trimesters
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
d. Plyometric training may be done in the first trimester.
c. Exercise should be done in a supine position after the first trimester.
Which of the following types of strength allows the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Postural b. Structural c. Functional d. Neuromuscular
c. Functional
Which of the following should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain?
Select one:
a. Limit complex carbohydrate intake to prevent weight gain.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
c. Increase fat intake to offset a decrease in carbohydrates.
d. Increase intake of high glycemic foods.
b. Excess intake of any macronutrient will cause weight gain.
Which of the following is the system activated at the onset of any activity, regardless of intensity? Select one: a. EPOC b. ATP-PC c. Oxidative d. Glycolysis
b. ATP-PC
Which of the following contributes to rapid weight loss when consuming a low carbohydrate diet? Select one: a. Increase in waste excretion b. Loss of body fat c. Increase in metabolism d. Loss of water
d. Loss of water
When performing a \_\_\_\_\_, the load should be positioned to resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction. Select one: a. standing triceps extension b. biceps curl c. standing cable row d. dumbbell chest press
c. standing cable row
Which one of the following exercises is classified as a balance-strength exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg squat touchdown b. Single-leg lift and chop c. Single-leg balance and reach d. Single-leg hop with stabilization
a. Single-leg squat touchdown
Which scenario is a component of the sliding filament theory?
Select one:
a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
b. The result of ATP production through aerobic respiration.
c. The pancreas releases glucagon into the bloodstream.
d. The pancreas releases insulin into the bloodstream.
a. The result of two Z lines moving closer together.
During which part of the digestive system are protein strands broken down? Select one: a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestines d. Esophagus
b. Stomach
Which of the following is the proper lower extremity position when performing a ball squat? Select one: a. Knee over second toe b. Adduction of the hip c. Pronation of the foot d. Internal rotation of the hip
a. Knee over second toe
Which of the following muscles is part of the core local stabilization system? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. External oblique c. Latissimus dorsi d. Pectineus
a. Transverse abdominis
A client shows signs of obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension. The combination of these three symptoms are correlated with which of the following disorders? Select one: a. Metabolic syndrome b. Restrictive lung disease c. Peripheral edema condition d. Coronary heart disease
a. Metabolic syndrome
A client cannot perform a full prone iso-abs exercise, which of the following would be an appropriate regression?
Select one:
a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.
b. Perform prone iso-abs with feet on stability ball.
c. Perform a back extension.
d. Perform a stability ball crunch.
a. Perform prone iso-abs with knees on floor.
Under the supervision of which of the following professionals is it appropriate for an adult client to follow an 800-1000 calorie diet? Select one: a. Certified Personal Trainer b. Medical physician c. Nutritionist d. Performance Enhancement Specialist
b. Medical physician
If a client demonstrates shoulder elevation while performing a cable row exercise, which of the following muscles is considered overactive? Select one: a. Rhomboids b. Mid/lower trapezius c. Scalenes d. Erector spinae
c. Scalenes
Which of the following is most useful for assessing an athlete's lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? Select one: a. Shark skill test b. Davies test c. Rockport walk test d. Overhead squat assessment
a. Shark skill test
Which of the following is a measuring site of the Durnin-Womersley formula? Select one: a. Calf b. Mid-axillary line c. Subscapular d. Thigh
c. Subscapular
What is a negative side effect associated with the chronic use of a high protein, low carbohydrate diet?
Select one:
a. A high protein diet is typically associated with higher intake of unsaturated fat and fiber which are risk factors for heart disease.
b. A high protein diet will require less water consumption for metabolism than is needed by carbohydrates or fat.
c. A high protein diet will increase glycogen stores which can lead to decreases in performance.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
d. A high protein diet will cause the kidneys to work harder to eliminate the increased urea produced.
In which of the following situations should a Certified Personal Trainer refer a client to a medical practitioner?
Select one:
a. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed diabetes.
c. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension.
d. When the trainer becomes aware of an undiagnosed allergy.
a. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed osteoporosis.
The ability to react and change body position, with maximum rate of force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions during functional activities is: Select one: a. power. b. speed. c. quickness. d. agility.
c. quickness.
Which of the following is the correct repetition range and tempo for the Stabilization, Strength, and Power Phases of the OPT model?
Select one:
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
b. 12-20/Moderate, 1-10/Explosive, 1-12/Slow
c. 1-10/Slow, 12-20/Moderate, 1-12/Explosive
d. 1-10/Moderate,12-20/Slow, 1-12/Explosive
a. 12-20/Slow, 1-12/ Moderate, 1-10/Explosive
Which of the following is the third step in the Stages of Change model? Select one: a. Action b. Precontemplation c. Contemplation d. Preparation
d. Preparation
The client is ready to progress from Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance to Phase 2. Which of the following best describes the resistance training portion of her new Strength Endurance workout?
Select one:
a. Stabilization exercises with strength supersets
b. Strength with power supersets
c. Power exercises with strength supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
d. Strength exercises with stabilization supersets
Which of the following is an appropriate number of exercises per body part per session for a client who has the goal of muscular hypertrophy? Select one: a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 4 c. 4 to 6 d. 6 to 10
b. 2 to 4
To avoid muscle strains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue, which of the following concepts should be implemented? Select one: a. Periodization b. Mechanical specificity c. Neuromuscular specificity d. Vertical loading
a. Periodization
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover when a client performs a row? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Posterior deltoid c. Pectoralis major d. Pectoralis minor
a. Latissimus dorsi
Dehydration affects the body by increasing: Select one: a. blood volume. b. performance. c. heart rate. d. sweat rate.
c. heart rate.
Which of the following ratings of perceived exertion on the Borg Scale would be implemented in a cardio training program for clients wanting to improve their aerobic base? Select one: a. 9 to 11 b. 12 to 13 c. 14 to 16 d. 17 to 19
b. 12 to 13
Which of the following is an appropriate intensity when training a client who is obese? Select one: a. 20 to 30% of their maximum heart rate b. 40 to 50% of their maximum heart rate c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate d. 85 to 95% of their maximum heart rate
c. 60 to 70% of their maximum heart rate
Which of the following muscles is lengthened in Lower Crossed Syndrome? Select one: a. Psoas minor b. Rectus femoris c. Erector Spinae d. Transverse abdominis
d. Transverse abdominis
A client's shoulders elevate during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles may be underactive? Select one: a. Levator scapulae b. Latissimus dorsi c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Mid and lower trapezius
d. Mid and lower trapezius
Although quality and brand recognition are important, people ultimately buy personal training services based on the desire to produce a meaningful outcome. Therefore, all buying decisions are based on: Select one: a. price. b. knowledge. c. pressure. d. emotion.
d. emotion.
Which of the following muscles is the synergist when a client is performing a chest press? Select one: a. Anterior deltoid b. Rotator cuff c. Pectoralis major d. Levator scapulae
a. Anterior deltoid
If a client's knee moves inward while performing the Single-leg Squat test, this is an indication that which of the following muscles is overactive? Select one: a. Adductor longus b. Vastus medialis oblique c. Gluteus maximus d. Piriformis
a. Adductor longus
It is lawful for a Certified Personal Trainer who possesses no additional certifications or licensure to do which of the following?
Select one:
a. Massage a client.
b. Apply ultrasound to a client.
c. Design a nutrition plan for a client.
d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client.
d. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client
When a client performs reactive exercises in the Stabilization Level of training, they should hold the landing position for how many seconds before repeating the movement? Select one: a. 1 to 2 seconds b. 3 to 5 seconds c. 6 to 7 seconds d. 8 to 10 seconds
b. 3 to 5 seconds
