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NASM PES Practice Exam 1 > Practice Exam 2 > Flashcards

Practice Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which exercise is an example of a stabilization exercise?

Select one:

a. Crunch on a stability ball
b. Chest press on a stability ball
c. Machine row
d. Bench press

A

b. Chest press on a stability ball

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2
Q

For a 30-year-old athlete using the regression method, which of the following is the low-end of heart rate training zone 2?

Select one:

a. 150
b. 168
c. 140
d. 122

A

a. 150

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3
Q

Which of the following has research shown to be an effect of excessive intake of vitamin A?

Select one:

a. Reduced bone mineral density
b. Reduced tolerance to infection
c. Increased tolerance to fatigue
d. Increased hematocrit volume

A

a. Reduced bone mineral density

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4
Q

Which of the following is the ability of the central nervous system to gather and interpret sensory information to execute the proper motor response?

Select one:

a. Motor behavior
b. Motor development
c. Sensorimotor integration
d. Proprioception

A

c. Sensorimotor integration

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5
Q

What is an effect of a lack of neuromuscular stabilization?

Select one:

a. Altered force-couple relationships
b. Increased joint ROM
c. Improved proprioception
d. Negated length-tension relationships

A

a. Altered force-couple relationships

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6
Q

What is a primary adaptation of plyometric training?

Select one:

a. Increased synergistic dominance
b. Decreased proprioception
c. Increased motor unit recruitment
d. Decreased rate of force production

A

c. Increased motor unit recruitment

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7
Q

Which stride length is optimal for maximal linear speed?

Select one:

a. 1.6-1.8 times athlete’s leg length
b. 2.6-2.8 times athlete’s leg length
c. 2.3-2.5 times athlete’s leg length
d. 1.3-1.5 times athlete’s leg length

A

c. 2.3-2.5 times athlete’s leg length

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8
Q

Which is the most difficult exercise in the single-leg balance reach progression?

Select one:

a. Transverse plane balance reach
b. Sagittal plane balance reach
c. Coronal plane balance reach
d. Frontal plane balance reach

A

a. Transverse plane balance reach

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9
Q

Which tempo best corresponds to increases in maximal power?

Select one:

a. Fast
b. As fast as can be controlled
c. Repeating
d. Moderate

A

b. As fast as can be controlled

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10
Q

What is the ability of the neuromuscular system to perform dynamic eccentric, isometric, and concentric muscle actions in all three planes of motion?

Select one:

a. Structural efficiency
b. Functional strength
c. Dynamic posture
d. Relative flexibility

A

b. Functional strength

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11
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for plantar fasciitis?

Select one:

a. 20 degrees or more of ankle dorsiflexion
b. Increased foot supination
c. Extended periods of sitting at work
d. Sudden increases in walking or running mileage

A

d. Sudden increases in walking or running mileage

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12
Q

Where should a one-person spotter stand during a back squat?

Select one:

a. Directly behind the lifter, hands under the lifter’s arms
b. Directly in front of the lifter, hands on the lifter’s hips
c. Directly behind the lifter, hands on the lifter’s hips
d. Directly in front of the lifter, hands under the lifter’s arms

A

c. Directly behind the lifter, hands on the lifter’s hips

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13
Q

Which kind of muscle contraction does balance-stabilization training primarily focus on?

Select one:

a. Eccentric
b. Concentric
c. Isokinetic
d. Isometric

A

d. Isometric

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14
Q

Which of the following statements describes the best strategy to achieve a positive protein balance?

Select one:

a. Follow a high protein, high fat diet
b. Consume carbohydrates only before and after strength workouts
c. Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and immediately after strength workouts
d. Fast for several hours before and after exercise

A

c. Consume a mixture of carbohydrates and amino acids before and immediately after strength workouts

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15
Q 
What is the smallest percentage of deformation of collagen tissue that can lead to micro-failure?
Select one:
a. 14%
b. 6%
c. 9%
d. 4%
A

b. 6%

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16
Q

To develop higher levels of stability, the best way an athlete can train is with which specific forms of exercise?

Select one:

a. Fast tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment
b. Fast tempo in an stable, but uncontrolled, environment
c. Slow tempo in an stable, but uncontrolled, environment
d. Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment

A

d. Slow tempo in an unstable, but controlled, environment

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17
Q

The heart pumps blood into the aorta from which of the following structures?

Select one:

a. Left atrium
b. Left ventricle
c. Right atrium
d. Right ventricle

A

b. Left ventricle

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18
Q

Which athletes have the greatest risk for low vitamin D status?

Select one:

a. Caucasian athletes with frequent sun exposure
b. Athletes who eat a diet rich in whole foods
c. Athletes who take a vitamin D supplement
d. Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure

A

d. Darker skinned athletes with limited sun exposure

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19
Q

What is the typical body fat range for female tennis players?

Select one:

a. 15-21%
b. 21-25%
c. 10-15%
d. 6-10%

A

b. 21-25%

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20
Q

What are muscles that work in direct opposition to the prime mover called?

Select one:

a. Synergist
b. Antagonist
c. Agonist
d. Stabilizers

A

b. Antagonist

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21
Q

What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when synergists take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover?

Select one:

a. Altered reciprocal inhibition
b. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
c. Davis’s law
d. Synergistic dominance

A

d. Synergistic dominance

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22
Q

Which of the following sports activities relies the most on the oxidative energy system?

Select one:

a. Baseball
b. Soccer
c. Football
d. Sprinting

A

b. Soccer

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23
Q

Which of the following represents a necessary joint range of motion prerequisite for Olympic lifts?

Select one:

a. Hip flexion of 85 degrees
b. Ankle dorsiflexion of 20 degrees
c. Knee flexion of 120 degrees
d. Elbow flexion of 130 degrees

A

b. Ankle dorsiflexion of 20 degrees

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24
Q

Which assessment is an appropriate progression from the single-leg squat assessment for measuring lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

Select one:

a. 10-yard sprint
b. 7 x 30-m sprint test
c. Shark skill test
d. Single-leg horizontal jump

A

c. Shark skill test

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25
Q

Which of the following juices has been shown to exhibit potent anti-inflammatory and antioxidant effects?

Select one:

a. Apple
b. Orange
c. Grape
d. Cherry

A

d. Cherry

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26
Q

What can happen when blood has a high hematocrit?

Select one:

a. Increased vasodilation
b. Blood flow resistance
c. Enhanced insulin production
d. Decreased stroke risk

A

b. Blood flow resistance

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27
Q

Which exercise can be performed with ultra-slow descents to help improve stability of the supportive musculature?

Select one:

a. Snatch deadlift
b. Back squat
c. Power clean
d. Clean and jerk

A

a. Snatch deadlift

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28
Q

Plyometric-stabilization exercises are designed to do which of the following?

Select one:

a. Establish optimum landing mechanics, postural alignment, and reactive neuromuscular efficiency
b. Improve joint stabilization, rate of force production, and neuromuscular efficiency
c. Improve strength and power, and be performed fast and as explosively as possible
d. Improve dynamic joint stabilization, eccentric strength, perform repetitively by spending a shorter amount of time on the ground

A

a. Establish optimum landing mechanics, postural alignment, and reactive neuromuscular efficiency

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29
Q

What is the loss of muscle fiber size called?

Select one:

a. Atrophy
b. Osteopenia
c. Tissue dehydration
d. Sarcopenia

A

a. Atrophy

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30
Q

The muscle groups of the lateral subsystem function in which plane of motion?

Select one:

a. Frontal
b. Sagittal
c. Longitudinal
d. Transverse

A

a. Frontal

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31
Q

An athlete with knee valgus during the overhead squat is at risk of what injury?

Select one:

a. Patellar tendinopathy
b. Ankle sprain
c. Medial tibial stress
d. Plantar fasciitis

A

a. Patellar tendinopathy

32
Q

What percentage of athletes experience low back pain in a given year?

Select one:

a. 6-15%
b. 15-30%
c. 3-10%
d. 26-35%

A

a. 6-15%

33
Q

Central nervous system fatigue can be minimized by performing drills with the highest magnitude of neuromuscular demand at which time during the workout?

Select one:

a. After plyometric exercises performed
b. After strength exercises performed
c. Where the runner’s weight is carried by the entire foot
d. Beginning of the workout

A

d. Beginning of the workout

34
Q

When administering the squat assessment, what is the appropriate increase in external resistance?

Select one:

a. 5-10% of initial load
b. 90-100 pounds
c. 10-20% of initial load
d. 25-50% of initial load

A

c. 10-20% of initial load

35
Q

Which of the following involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the spine through a full range of motion?

Select one:

a. Core-power exercises
b. Core-functional exercises
c. Core-strength exercises
d. Core-stabilization exercises

A

c. Core-strength exercises

36
Q

Passive warming, using modalities such as heated pants or warming jackets, are most beneficial for which of the following situations?

Select one:

a. Immediately following a maximal effort such as sprinting or weight lifting
b. When a player leaves a game due to injury
c. When there is about 5 minutes between warm-up and the start of competition
d. Between multiple races, such as at track or swim meets

A

d. Between multiple races, such as at track or swim meets

37
Q

A well-rounded active flexibility program utilizes which three techniques?

Select one:

a. Self-myofascial release, static stretching, and neuromuscular stretching
b. Self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and neuromuscular stretching
c. Self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and dynamic stretching
d. Self-myofascial release, static stretching, and dynamic stretching

A

b. Self-myofascial release, active-isolated stretching, and neuromuscular stretching

38
Q

What is the preferred location for assessing resting heart rate?

Select one:

a. Carotid pulse
b. Femoral pulse
c. Radial pulse
d. Aorta pulse

A

c. Radial pulse

39
Q

Which of the following is the most important reason why high glycemic foods are recommended during the post exercise period?

Select one:

a. To enhance muscle recovery and glycogen repletion
b. To enhance protein repair and anabolic environment
c. To reduce muscle soreness and improve strength
d. To reduce pain post-competition

A

a. To enhance muscle recovery and glycogen repletion

40
Q

Athletes who train very hard year round run the risk of compromising their immune system, thereby exposing them to the flu or common cold. Which of the following is most likely going to help them recover and keep these systems strong?

Select one:

a. Aspartate
b. Dopamine
c. Glutamine
d. Serotonin

A

c. Glutamine

41
Q

Which resistance exercise is appropriate for the Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance level of training?

Select one:

a. Incline dumbbell bench press
b. Standing cable chest press
c. Rotational chest pass
d. Barbell bench press

A

b. Standing cable chest press

42
Q

Which of the following is the best strength exercise for an athlete who is new to resistance training?

Select one:

a. Supported dumbbell row b. Woodchop throw
c. Suspension trainer row progression: stagger stance
d. Soccer throw

A

a. Supported dumbbell row

43
Q

mong athletes who have a history of ankle sprain, what percentage of athletes are expected to re-sprain their ankle?

Select one:

a. 22-49%
b. 78-86%
c. 11-19%
d. 47-73%

A

d. 47-73%

44
Q

Which progression is recommended for drills focusing on agility/MDS?

Select one:

a. Static, dynamic, reactive
b. Static, reactive, dynamic
c. Reactive, static, dynamic
d. Reactive, dynamic, static

A

a. Static, dynamic, reactive

45
Q

The reverse crunch is categorized as what type of exercise?

Select one:

a. Balance-stabilization
b. Core-stabilization
c. Core-strength
d. Reactive-strength

A

c. Core-strength

46
Q

In which phases of the OPT model is it appropriate to use Olympic competition lifts?

Select one:

a. Phases 2 and 3
b. Phases 5 and 6
c. Phases 4 and 5
d. Phases 3 and 4

A

b. Phases 5 and 6

47
Q

Which of the following is an independent quality that contributes to an athlete’s power capacity?

Select one:

a. Maximum strength
b. Region of movement
c. Limb length
d. Bone density

A

a. Maximum strength

48
Q

Once an individual can correctly perform the drawing-in maneuver in a supine position, which of the following is the next progression?

Select one:

a. Supine with marching
b. Supine with heel slide
c. Supine with two-leg slide
d. Supine with both knees to the chest

A

a. Supine with marching

49
Q

What is the ability of the Human Movement System to have optimal ROM in order to prevent injury and enhance functional efficiency?

Select one:

a. Integrated training
b. Neuromuscular efficiency
c. Balance
d. Flexibility

A

d. Flexibility

50
Q

A coach who creates an outcome-oriented motivational climate implements rewards based on which of the following criteria?

Select one:

a. Cooperative completion
b. Personal improvement
c. Social comparisons
d. Skill mastery

A

c. Social comparisons

51
Q

What is the first question athletes should ask when trying to determine whether or not they should use supplements recommended by teammates?

Select one:

a. “Is it fun to use?”
b. “Is it FDA approved?”
c. “Is it what the elite players are using?”
d. “Is it safe and ethical?”

A

d. “Is it safe and ethical?”

52
Q

Which of the following selections describes a progression in an athlete’s plyometric training?

Select one:

a. Pause for 3 seconds
b. Grass field
c. Single-leg
d. Done with supportive shoes

A

c. Single-leg

53
Q 
When training for hypertrophy, what is the appropriate intensity at which resistance training should occur?
Select one:
a. 50-70%
b. 85-100%
c. 30-45%
d. 75-85%
A

d. 75-85%

54
Q

Which of the following best defines the process which brings oxygen from the air, across the alveolar membrane, and into the blood to be carried by hemoglobin?

Select one:

a. Respiratory quotient
b. Pulmonary ventilation
c. Stroke volume
d. Cardiac output

A

b. Pulmonary ventilation

55
Q

What occurs when an activated muscle transitions from an eccentric contraction to a rapid concentric contraction?

Select one:

a. Force-couple relationship
b. Integrated training continuum
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Stabilization

A

c. Stretch-shortening cycle

56
Q

Which of the following is a stage of the General Adaptation Syndrome?

Select one:

a. Resistance development
b. Protection alarm
c. Shock and rebound
d. Breakdown avoidance

A

a. Resistance development

57
Q

Which of the following is the last energy supply to be used?

Select one:

a. Muscle glycogen + fatty acids
b. ATP + CP
c. Muscle glycogen + lactic acid
d. ATP in muscle

A

a. Muscle glycogen + fatty acids

58
Q

Resistance training protocols with higher repetitions result in which of the following adaptations?

Select one:

a. Hypertrophy
b. Maximal strength
c. Muscular endurance
d. Power

A

c. Muscular endurance

59
Q

Which formula is used as a simple method to estimate an athlete’s maximum heart rate?

Select one:

a. 220 minus age
b. 180 minus age
c. 200 minus age
d. 240 minus age

A

a. 220 minus age

60
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of selective attention?

Select one:

a. Ability to lock attention on one thing
b. Ability to focus on relevant cues
c. Ability to ignore others in the gym
d. Ability to choose what to pay attention to

A

b. Ability to focus on relevant cues

61
Q

Which exercise is considered a chest-stabilization exercise?

Select one:

a. Barbell bench press
b. Chest press machine
c. Push-up: feet on ball
d. Incline barbell bench press

A

c. Push-up: feet on ball

62
Q

Which of the following are Olympic competition lifts?

Select one:

a. Clean and jerk and the snatch
b. Deadlift and power clean
c. Deadlift and front squat
d. Power clean and snatch

A

a. Clean and jerk and the snatch

63
Q

An electromechanical delay in which the muscle must switch from overcoming force to imparting force in the intended direction is known as which of the following?

Select one:

a. Eccentric phase
b. Isometric phase
c. Amortization phase
d. Concentric phase

A

c. Amortization phase

64
Q

If an athlete squats prior to performing a sagittal jump, which concept is employed?

Select one:

a. Agility movement
b. Speed movement
c. Ballistic movement
d. Strength movement

A

c. Ballistic movement

65
Q

How many repetitions of plyometric exercises will an athlete training in Phase 3: Hypertrophy perform in each set?

Select one:

a. 3 to 5
b. 12 to 15
c. 8 to 10
d. 4 to 6

A

c. 8 to 10

66
Q 
Training for optimum muscle function in all planes of motion, and utilizing the stretch-shortening cycle are part of what type of training?
Select one:
a. Plyometric training
b. Integrated training 
c. Metabolic training
d. Stabilization training
A

b. Integrated training

67
Q

What is the amount of time an athlete traditionally spends performing core-stabilization exercises?

Select one:

a. 2 weeks
b. 6 weeks
c. 3 weeks
d. 4 weeks

A

d. 4 weeks

68
Q

What is the eccentric action of the gluteus medius, posterior fibers?

Select one:

a. Decelerates hip adduction and external rotation
b. Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation
c. Decelerates hip abduction and external rotation
d. Decelerates hip abduction and internal rotation

A

b. Decelerates hip adduction and internal rotation

69
Q

Endurance athletes and those with small body mass and large sodium losses are at risk for which condition?

Select one:

a. Hypohydration
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Hyponatremia

A

d. Hyponatremia

70
Q

When an official makes a bad call in favor of the other team, an athlete may use which of the following strategies to overcome the situation?

Select one:

a. Competitive analysis
b. Extrinsic motivation
c. Problem-focused coping
d. Rational thinking

A

d. Rational thinking

71
Q

What type of exercises are important for the protection of joints in an athlete’s training program?

Select one:

a. Exercises that train for hypertrophy
b. Exercises that train metabolic endurance
c. Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination
d. Exercises that train maximal power

A

c. Exercises that train neuromuscular coordination

72
Q

Which drill progression is recommended for push-up sprints?

Select one:

a. Run with high knees
b. Shorten the sprint distance
c. Double the sprint distance
d. Have two athletes race

A

d. Have two athletes race

73
Q

Athletes who participate in sports with rigid boots, such as skiing and ice hockey, are at higher risk for what type of ankle sprain?

Select one:

a. Medial ankle sprain
b. Syndesmotic ankle sprain
c. Lateral ankle sprain
d. All types of ankle sprain

A

b. Syndesmotic ankle sprain

74
Q

What is the average resting heart rate for a male athlete?

Select one:

a. 30 beats per minute
b. 70 beats per minute
c. 90 beats per minute
d. 100 beats per minute

A

b. 70 beats per minute

75
Q

What three components make up the integrated flexibility continuum?

Select one:

a. Static, active, dynamic flexibility
b. Hold, release, relax flexibility
c. SMR, static, PNF flexibility
d. Corrective, active, functional flexibility

A

d. Corrective, active, functional flexibility

76
Q

When implementing concussion prevention programming, which of the following strategies can a trainer use to mitigate the effects of a concussive injury?

Select one:

a. Strengthening the neck musculature in all planes of motion
b. Mandating the use of protective head equipment
c. Changing the rules of the game to reduce head collisions
d. Improving an athlete’s general agility and quickness

A

a. Strengthening the neck musculature in all planes of motion

NASM PES Practice Exam 1 (2 decks)

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