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NASM PES Practice Exam 1 > Practice Exam 1 > Flashcards

Practice Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the recommended protein intake for strength and power athletes?

Select one:

a. 0.8 g/kg/day
b. 2.0-2.2 g/kg/day
c. 1.2-1.4 g/kg/day
d. 1.6-1.8 g/kg/day

A

d. 1.6-1.8 g/kg/day

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2
Q

What is the outermost layer of connective tissue that surrounds muscle?

Select one:

a. Perineurium
b. Epimysium
c. Endomysium
d. Perimysium

A

b. Epimysium

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3
Q

Which Olympic lift moves the load from the ground to overhead in one single effort?

Select one:

a. Front squat
b. Snatch
c. Clean and jerk
d. Power clean

A

b. Snatch

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4
Q

Which of the following refers to the training used to provide optimal dynamic joint support and maintain correct posture during all movements?

Select one:

a. Endurance
b. Stabilization
c. Strength
d. Power

A

b. Stabilization

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5
Q

When should light to moderate sport-specific metabolic training primarily occur?

Select one:

a. Post-season
b. In-season
c. Preseason
d. Off-season

A

b. In-season

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6
Q

Single-leg front-to-back hops might be done by an athlete in which phase of OPT?

Select one:

a. 1
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3

A

b. 5

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7
Q

What do you risk creating if an athlete is put into a level of balance training for which they are unprepared?

Select one:

a. Synergistic dominance
b. Co-contraction
c. Central processing
d. Feet-forward control

A

a. Synergistic dominance

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8
Q

Which stage of cardio training should mark the gradual inclusion of repeated sprint training?

Select one:

a. Stage 1
b. Stage 3
c. Stage 4
d. Stage 2

A

b. Stage 3

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9
Q

When using skin fold calipers to assess body composition, what is the increased risk of error with being as much as an inch from the appropriate site?

Select one:

a. 10%
b. 50%
c. 25%
d. 75%

A

c. 25%

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10
Q

Which of the following techniques should a coach teach an athlete who struggles with physiological anxiety in pressure situations?

Select one:

a. Breath control
b. Self-motivation
c. Training hard and smart
d. Relaxation response

A

a. Breath control

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11
Q

If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory cue, which training is utilized?

Select one:

a. Agility
b. Quickness
c. Speed
d. Stabilization

A

b. Quickness

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12
Q

What is the most common sports-related injury, and the number one injury for time lost?

Select one:

a. Ankle sprains
b. ACL sprain/tear
c. Plantar fasciitis
d. Metatarsal stress fracture

A

a. Ankle sprains

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13
Q

What is the primary fuel for anaerobic ATP production for activities lasting 45-120 seconds?

Select one:

a. Oxygen
b. Muscle glycogen
c. Fatty acids
d. Calcium

A

b. Muscle glycogen

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14
Q

What impact will taking an antidepressant have on an athlete’s heart rate(HR)?

Select one:

a. HR becomes erratic
b. HR stays the same
c. HR goes down
d. HR goes up

A

d. HR goes up

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15
Q

In which phase of a plyometric exercise must a muscle switch from overcoming force to producing it?

Select one:

a. Unloading
b. Amortization
c. Eccentric
d. Concentric

A

b. Amortization

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16
Q

Winning the Stanley Cup is an example of which of the following?

Select one:

a. Goal setting
b. Extrinsic motivation
c. Self-motivation
d. Positive self-monitoring

A

b. Extrinsic motivation

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17
Q

Which sport would benefit from the inclusion of assisted drills in an SAQ program?

Select one:

a. Basketball
b. Football
c. Hockey
d. Volleyball

A

b. Football

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18
Q

Which of the following is a typical resting heart rate?

Select one:

a. 50 beats per minute
b. 90 beats per minute
c. 70 beats per minute
d. 110 beats per minute

A

c. 70 beats per minute

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19
Q

Which muscular system is predominantly involved in joint support and stabilization, and is not movement specific?

Select one:

a. Anterior oblique
b. Deep longitudinal
c. Global
d. Local

A

d. Local

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20
Q

What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability?

Select one:

a. Balance-stabilization
b. Balance-strength
c. Balance-functional
d. Balance-power

A

a. Balance-stabilization

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21
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, around which of the following axes does the movement occur?

Select one:

a. Coronal
b. Anterior-posterior
c. Longitudinal
d. Contralateral

A

c. Longitudinal

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22
Q

A coach focused on initiating structure and accomplishing a set of objectives and goals is using which type of leadership style?

Select one:

a. Problem-focused
b. Task-oriented
c. Emotion-focused
d. Relationship-oriented

A

b. Task-oriented

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23
Q

How likely is an athlete with a hamstring strain at risk to experience re-injury?

Select one:

a. 6-8 times
b. 3-4 times
c. 1-2 times
d. Athlete is not at risk of re-injury

A

a. 6-8 times

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24
Q

Which is the most commonly injured ligament in the ankle?

Select one:

a. Anterior talofibular
b. Anterior cruciate
c. Calcaneofibular
d. Posterior talofibular

A

a. Anterior talofibular

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25
Q

What is the term for the systematic approach to program design using the General Adaptation Syndrome and the principle of specificity to produce adaptations?

Select one:

a. Proprioception
b. Periodization
c. Exercise selection
d. Neural demand

A

b. Periodization

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26
Q

Which specialized strength exercise for speed improves hip flexion?

Select one:

a. Resisted knee drive
b. Tube walking
c. Reverse calf raise
d. Supine heel push

A

a. Resisted knee drive

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27
Q

What type of tissue develops in the body following an injury?

Select one:

a. Sensory
b. Scar
c. Fascia
d. Muscle

A

b. Scar

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28
Q

Symptoms such as stress fracture, muscle strain, joint and muscle pain, and emotional fatigue are largely due to which of the following?

Select one:

a. Exhaustion
b. The multiple-set system
c. Periodization
d. General Adaptation Syndrome

A

a. Exhaustion

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29
Q 
Which type of feedback is used after the completion of an exercise to help inform the athlete about the outcome of what was just performed?
Select one:
a. Knowledge of results
b. Knowledge of proprioception
c. Knowledge of performance Incorrect
d. Knowledge of repetition
A

a. Knowledge of results

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30
Q 
What exercises involve little joint motion of the balance leg to improve reflexive joint stabilization contractions and joint stability?
Select one:
a. Balance-functional
b. Balance-stabilization
c. Balance-power
d. Balance-strength
A

b. Balance-stabilization

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31
Q

Which programming is optimal for SAQ training in order to decrease fatigue and maximize effectiveness?

Select one:

a. Completed as a effective cool-down after strength training
b. Completed as a specific station during the strength training
c. Completed as a progressive warm-up before strength training
d. Completed on days in between strength training

A

d. Completed on days in between strength training

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32
Q

Which of the following happens to improve soft-tissue extensibility during self-myofascial release?

Select one:

a. Reciprocal inhibition
b. Autogenic inhibition
c. Synergistic dominance
d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction

A

b. Autogenic inhibition

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33
Q

Which of the following injuries often goes unrecognized and unreported?

Select one:

a. Shoulder impingement
b. PFP syndrome
c. Ankle sprain
d. Concussion

A

d. Concussion

34
Q

Which of the following is a contributor to subacromial impingement syndrome (SAIS)?

Select one:

a. Increased shoulder range of motion
b. Tension in the rotator cuff
c. Bony deformity of the acromion
d. Under-active pectorals or latissimus dorsi

A

c. Bony deformity of the acromion

35
Q

Why do females have a greater risk of ACL injury compared to males?

Select one:

a. Males are more likely to pronate their feet than females.
b. Females typically have tighter quadricep musculature than men.
c. Males exhibit more knee valgus than females.
d. Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.

A

d. Females have higher relative loads on the ACL than males.

36
Q

Which of the following exercises is MOST appropriate for an athlete training in the Strength Level (Phases 2,3,4) of the OPT model?

Select one:

a. Medicine ball oblique throw
b. Two-arm medicine ball chest pass
c. Single-leg balance reach
d. Bench press

A

d. Bench press

37
Q

Which of the following exercises provides an example of a muscle’s ability to use stored energy?

Select one:

a. Vertical jump
b. Deadlift
c. Lunge
d. Squat

A

a. Vertical jump

38
Q

Which of the following refers to the training used to provide optimal dynamic joint support and maintain correct posture during all movements?

Select one:

a. Power
b. Endurance
c. Strength
d. Stabilization

A

d. Stabilization

39
Q

Which types of training are known to improve speed, agility, and quickness by allowing greater force in less time?

Select one:

a. Flexibility and maximal power
b. Balance and resistance
c. Strength and power
d. Cardiorespiratory and core

A

c. Strength and power

40
Q

Which phase of the OPT model supersets a traditional strength exercise (e.g. barbell squats) with a plyometric/power exercise of similar joint mechanics (e.g. squat jumps) to enhance prime mover strength and rate of force production?

Select one:

a. Phase 6: Maximal Power
b. Phase 4: Maximal Strength
c. Phase 5: Power
d. Phase 3: Hypertrophy

A

c. Phase 5: Power

41
Q

Which grade is recommended in downhill running for assisted speed drills?

Select one:

a. 7-8%
b. 9-10%
c. 3-4%
d. 5-6%

A

d. 5-6%

42
Q

During the snatch, which of the following refers to the barbell being elevated from the knees to the area between mid-thigh and the pubic bone?

Select one:

a. Catch
b. Shift
c. Top pull
d. First pull

A

b. Shift

43
Q

Which of the following describes the motivational climate that has been proven to produce more adaptive motivational patterns, including positive attitudes and effective learning strategies?

Select one:

a. Outcome-oriented
b. Problem-oriented
c. Mastery-oriented
d. Solution-oriented

A

c. Mastery-oriented

44
Q

If a coach removes cones from a W or box drill and replaces them with an auditory cue, which training is utilized?

Select one:

a. Quickness
b. Speed
c. Agility
d. Stabilization

A

a. Quickness

45
Q

Which of the following is correct when preparing for a back squat?

Select one:

a. Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar
b. Lifter faces away from rack, takes a shoulder width grip, places bar on shoulders, and takes 3 skater steps forward
c. Lifter backs up into the bar, takes a wide grip, and places bar across the top two thoracic vertebrae
d. Lifter faces away from the rack, takes a wide grip, places bar evenly across the top of the scapula

A

a. Lifter faces the rack, takes a comfortable grip, and steps forward under the bar

46
Q

The transverse abdominis is best activated by performing which of the following exercises?

Select one:

a. Reverse crunch
b. Prone iso-abs
c. Pullover throw
d. Floor crunch

A

b. Prone iso-abs

47
Q

Which of the following techniques is critical for maintaining stability in the sacroiliac joint?

Select one:

a. Bracing
b. Single-leg balance
c. SMR
d. Drawing-in maneuver

A

d. Drawing-in maneuver

48
Q

The integrated performance paradigm states that in order to move with precision, forces must be loaded, stabilized, and unloaded in which order?
Select one:
a. Loaded concentrically, stabilized isotonically, unloaded eccentrically
b. Loaded concentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded eccentrically
c. Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically
d. Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isotonically, unloaded concentrically

A

c. Loaded eccentrically, stabilized isometrically, unloaded concentrically

49
Q

What assessment is appropriate to determine the lateral speed and agility of an athlete?
Select one:
a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)
b. Shuttle test
c. BEEP test
d. Single-leg STAR excursion test

A

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

50
Q

If the squat jump exercise is performed with a 3-5 second hold upon landing, in which level of the OPT model does it belong?

Select one:

a. Strength
b. Power
c. Stabilization
d. Functional

A

c. Stabilization

51
Q

Which type of training overloads the stretch-shortening cycle to enhance neuromuscular efficiency, improve rate of force production, and reduce neuromuscular inhibition?

Select one:

a. Circuit
b. Plyometric
c. Hypertrophy
d. Core

A

b. Plyometric

52
Q

Which of the following is true regarding casein?

Select one:

a. By-product of cheese making
b. Considered a “fast” protein
c. Highest BV of any protein
d. 80% of the proteins in milk

A

d. 80% of the proteins in milk

53
Q 
Which of the following ranges represents cardiac output during maximal exercise?
Select one:
a. 5-10 L/min
b. 40-45 L/min
c. 20-25 L/min
d. 10-15 L/min
A

c. 20-25 L/min

54
Q

Which of the following is an example of a core-strength exercise?

Select one:

a. Back extension
b. Pullover throw
c. Woodchop throw
d. Quadruped arm raise

A

a. Back extension

55
Q

The quadratus lumborum, psoas major, external obliques, portions of the internal obliques, rectus abdominus, gluteus medius, and adductor complex are classified as which of the following?

Select one:

a. Local core stabilizers
b. Global movement stabilizers
c. Movement system stabilizers
d. Global core stabilizers

A

d. Global core stabilizers

56
Q

What type of training incorporates skills and movements that mimic what happens in competition?

Select one:

a. Sport-specific
b. Resistance
c. Integrated
d. Functional

A

a. Sport-specific

57
Q

Which predictable pattern best describes the adaptation to stress the body follows to maintain a state of physiological balance (or homeostasis)?

Select one:

a. General Adaptation Syndrome
b. Peripheral heart action system
c. Pattern of individualization
d. Tolerable upper intake pattern

A

a. General Adaptation Syndrome

58
Q

If a beginner athlete sprints 15 yards during week 1 of Phase 1 SAQ training, how many yards should he be running by week 4?

Select one:

a. 50
b. 20
c. 40
d. 30

A

b. 20

59
Q

Many of the issues surrounding an athlete’s functional qualification for the use of Olympic lifts can be determined by performing which assessment?

Select one:

a. Shark skills test
b. Bench press assessment
c. Davies test
d. Overhead squat assessment

A

d. Overhead squat assessment

60
Q

Supplementation of which nutrient has been shown to reduce the incidence of post-marathon upper respiratory infection in runners?

Select one:

a. Beta-glucans
b. Pectins
c. Inulin
d. Cellulose

A

a. Beta-glucans

61
Q

During functional movements, which of the following is responsible for providing stabilization and eccentric control of the core?

Select one:

a. Anterior oblique subsystem
b. Global stabilization system
c. Deep longitudinal subsystem
d. Local stabilization system

A

b. Global stabilization system

62
Q

A team focused on winning and being better than others operates in which kind of environment?

Select one:

a. Outcome-oriented
b. Problem-focused
c. Emotion-focused
d. Relationship-oriented

A

a. Outcome-oriented

63
Q

When bracing is performed, which of the following has been activated?

Select one:

a. Global stabilization system
b. Lateral subsystem
c. Local stabilization system
d. Anterior oblique subsystem

A

a. Global stabilization system

64
Q

What is the current upper intake limit for sodium for the average person as established by the Institute of Medicine?

Select one:

a. 3,000 mg/day
b. 2,300 mg/day
c. 1,000 mg/day
d. 1,600 mg/day

A

b. 2,300 mg/day

65
Q

Which coordinated muscle action does balance-stabilization training improve?

Select one:

a. Dynamic deceleration
b. Rapid acceleration
c. Co-contraction
d. Reciprocal inhibition

A

c. Co-contraction

66
Q

What is probably underactive for an athlete demonstrating low back arching during the pulling assessment?

Select one:

a. Latissimus dorsi
b. Intrinsic core stabilizers
c. Psoas
d. Erector spinae

A

b. Intrinsic core stabilizers

67
Q

Which of the following best describes muscular endurance?

Select one:

a. Muscular endurance is resistance training with low repetitions at heavy resistance.
b. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.
c. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce high force over short bursts of time.
d. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce force in a very short time.

A

b. Muscular endurance is the ability to produce and maintain force production over prolonged periods of time.

68
Q

A tempo of 4/2/1 is appropriate when training in which phase of the OPT model?

Select one:

a. Power
b. Maximal Strength
c. Hypertrophy
d. Stabilization Endurance

A

d. Stabilization Endurance

69
Q

What type of stretching helps improve soft tissue extensibility by taking the muscle to the point of tension and holding for 30 seconds?

Select one:

a. Active
b. Dynamic
c. Static
d. PNF

A

c. Static

70
Q

Which of the following is a serious risk associated with blood doping?

Select one:

a. Erythrocythemia
b. Glucose intolerance
c. Bacterial infections
d. Low hematocrit

A

c. Bacterial infections

71
Q

Training the muscle and tendon’s ability to load eccentrically and rapidly release energy concentrically is known as which of the following?

Select one:

a. Force-velocity curve
b. Load-torque curve
c. Stretch-shortening cycle
d. Stride cycle

A

c. Stretch-shortening cycle

72
Q

What muscles are probably overactive when an athlete’s low back arches during an overhead squat assessment?

Select one:

a. Soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, biceps femoris (short head)
b. Gluteus maximus, hamstring, intrinsic core stabilizers
c. Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi
d. Anterior tibialis, gluteus maximus, erector spinae

A

c. Hip flexor complex, erector spinae, latissimus dorsi

73
Q

Which muscle functions as a stabilizer while an athlete performs a bench press?

Select one:

a. Triceps
b. Pectoralis major
c. Rotator cuff
d. Anterior deltoid

A

c. Rotator cuff

74
Q

Which of the following must be taken over a period of weeks in conjunction with training to demonstrate an ergogenic effect?

Select one:

a. Amino acids
b. Creatine
c. Caffeine
d. Citrulline

A

b. Creatine

75
Q

Which of the following is an input that the Human Movement System uses to establish balance?

Select one:

a. Olfactory
b. Ampullary
c. Auditory
d. Visual

A

d. Visual

76
Q

Which exercise can help decrease perturbation and help achieve neuromuscular control?

Select one:

a. Sled push
b. Squat on a wobble board
c. Deadlift
d. Bench press

A

b. Squat on a wobble board

77
Q

When training in Phase 4: Maximal Strength, how many times per week should an athlete participate in resistance training?

Select one:

a. 3 to 7
b. 2 to 4
c. 5 to 7
d. 5 to 6

A

b. 2 to 4

78
Q

Which of the following is the recommended calcium intake for an amenorrheic athlete?

Select one:

a. 1,600 mg/day
b. 1,400 mg/day
c. 1,500 mg/day
d. 1,700 mg/day

A

c. 1,500 mg/day

79
Q

When performing an exercise in the transverse plane, which of the following motions is occuring?

Select one:

a. Adduction/abduction
b. Flexion/extension
c. Eversion/inversion
d. Internal/external rotation

A

d. Internal/external rotation

80
Q

According to the text, which type of mental imagery is MOST effective for improving sports performance?

Select one:

a. Auditory
b. Visual
c. Olfactory
d. Kinesthetic

A

d. Kinesthetic

81
Q

Which of the following is the principle that states that faster motor units with larger axons are recruited second when more force and power are needed?

Select one:

a. Periodization principle
b. Henneman’s size principle
c. Progressive outcome principle
d. Resistance development principle

A

b. Henneman’s size principle

82
Q

What principle states that when a muscle is stimulated to contract, it contracts completely?

Select one:

a. All-or-none
b. Total contraction
c. Complete
d. All-at-once

A

a. All-or-none

NASM PES Practice Exam 1 (2 decks)

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