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Microbiology > Practice Exam 1A > Flashcards

Practice Exam 1A Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Epidemiology

A

The study of the occurrence, distribution, and control of diseases in populations.

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2
Q

Endemic

A

Always present in the population, low morbidity or death rate.

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3
Q

Epidemic

A

Infect high numbers in a localized area, technically greater than expected numbers.

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4
Q

Common source epidemic

A

Sudden increase in the number of cases (i.e. food poisoning).

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5
Q

Host to host epidemic

A

Slow rise as it presents from person to person

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6
Q

Host to host transmission

A

I catch it directly from you or the air (e.g. respiratory viruses, STD’s, skin pathogens)

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7
Q

Indirect host to host transmission

A

A vector is needed.

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8
Q

Pandemic

A

Spread to multiple continents.

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9
Q

Incidence

A

new cases over time, often per year.

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10
Q

Prevalence

A

Percent or proportion of population infected at one point in time.

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11
Q

Morbidity

A

Incidence of deaths in a population.

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12
Q

Mortality

A

of deaths in a population.

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13
Q

Comorbidity

A

Other diseases in the same patient.

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14
Q

Nosocomial infection

A

Hospital based infection.

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15
Q

What are the main causes for the re-emergence of disease?

A

New infections (e.g. new viruses), old infections (e.g. infections that have been around, but recently identified), re-emergent infections (e.g. TB is reemerging & is becoming drug resistant), travel, longer lifespans, immunosuppressants, public health breakdown (e.g. vaccine shortages), natural disasters/sanitation/stress.

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16
Q

What is the incubation period in the stages of an infectious disease?

A

It is the initial stage of infection when the host is asymptomatic.

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17
Q

What is the pandromal period in the stages of an infectious disease?

A

It is the period when the first signs and symptoms appear.

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18
Q

What is the acute period in the stages of an infectious disease?

A

It is the period of invasion or illness, symptoms are full force.

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19
Q

What is the decline period in the stages of an infectious disease?

A

It is the period when the illness is declining.

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20
Q

What is the convalescent period in the stages of an infectious disease?

A

It is the period when health is being returned.

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21
Q

Vector

A

Something that transmits disease.

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22
Q

Carrier

A

Person who is infected, yet has no symptoms.

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23
Q

Reservoir

A

Animate or inanimate sources of disease.

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24
Q

Fomite

A

Inanimate object that can transmit disease.

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25
Q

Opportunistic infections

A

Infections caused by normal flora in the wrong place at the wrong time.

26
Q

Strict infections

A

Never part of flora. Presence is always bad. For example, Mycobacterium tuberculosis is never part of normal flora, it is always bad.

27
Q

Antiseptics

A

Works against infection by destroying or inhibiting microbes on skin or mucus membranes.

28
Q

Disinfectants

A

Kill most, but not all microbes. NOT for use on patients, except alcohol which may be used on skin. Does NOT kill spores.

29
Q

What organism serves as a standard intermediate indicator of the effectiveness of a disinfectant?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

30
Q

What is the major way that antiseptics differ from disinfectants?

A

Antiseptics can be applied to living tissue.

31
Q

Sterilants

A

Used to kill ALL microbial forms, even spores.

32
Q

Describe the lag phase in bacterial growth.

A

When bacterial begin dividing.

33
Q

Describe the log/exponential phase.

A

When bacteria grown and divide with a doubling characteristic. Bacteria increase to 2n, n = # of generations (doublings).

34
Q

When can you calculate generation time in bacterial growth?

A

In the log/exponential phase.

35
Q

Describe the stationary phase of bacterial growth.

A

Bacteria stop growing.

36
Q

Describe the death phase of bacterial growth.

A

Bacteria die.

37
Q

Bacteriostatic agents.

A

Stop division of bacteria. They do NOT directly kill bacteria, they just stop them from dividing.

38
Q

Bactericidal agents.

A

Directly kill bacteria.

39
Q

Bacteriolytic agents.

A

Directly kill bacterial via lysis or breakdown of microbes.

40
Q

Physical sterilization.

A

Moist or dry heat (e.g. autoclave), filtration, UV or ionizing radiation

41
Q

Gas sterilization.

A

Highly efficient for sterilizing heat sensitive materials. Ethylene oxide is a commonly used gas sterilant, but it has limited use, because it is flammable, explosive, and carcinogenic to lab animals.

42
Q

Chemical sterilization.

A

Using chemicals for sterilization (e.g. 2% glutaraldehyde or chemiclave)

43
Q

2% Glutaraldehyde

A

Often used for cold sterilization. Alkylate DNA and proteins.

44
Q

Chemiclave

A

Uses a chemical solution of alcohol and formaldehyde. Requires little water. It is quicker than an autoclave and sterilization pouches stay dry.

45
Q

What are the proper time, temperature, and pressure for autoclaving?

A

250°F (121°C) for 15-20 minutes at 15 psi.

46
Q

What is the best way to verify heat sterilization?

A

Use a biological indicator, such as bacterial spores.

47
Q

Do gram negative or gram positive bacteria produce spores?

A

Gram positive bacteria only.

48
Q

What are the main genera of gram positive bacteria that produce spores?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium

49
Q

Are spores produced for survival or reproduction?

A

Gram positive bacteria produce spores for survival only.

50
Q

What types of bacteria are highly resistant to disinfections, heat, stress, and oxidation?

A

Gram positive bacterial spores (i.e. Bacillus and Clostridium). This makes spores a good biological indicator to verify heat sterilization. An inadequate autoclave cycle can be detected by using bacterial spores.

51
Q

What is the mechanism of action for quaternary ammonium?

A

Quaternary ammonium is a cationic compound that functions as a low level disinfectant, which denature cell membranes. It is used as a skin antiseptic. Down falls to this disinfectant: many viruses survive, all spores survive, and Pseudomonas can grow in a solution of quaternary ammonium.

52
Q

What is the mechanism of action for hydrogen peroxide?

A

Hydrogen peroxide is an oxidizer that forms hydroxyl radicals. It is used as a disinfectant (>3%) or a sterilant (>25%). At high concentrations hydroxyl radicals oxidize tissues → tissue damage.

53
Q

What is the mechanism of action for phenols?

A

Phenols disrupt enzymes/denature proteins. They are rarely used. However, low concentrations are found in many mouthwashes.

54
Q

What is the mechanism of action for formaldehyde?

A

Formaldehyde is an alkylating agent that alkylates proteins and nucleic acids. When dissolved in water for a final concentration of 37% solution is called formalin.

55
Q

What is the mechanism of action for bleach?

A

Bleach is an oxidizing agent that serves as a high level disinfectant. It has corrosive properties that are damaging to stainless steel.

56
Q

Is pasteurization a disinfectant or sterilant?

A

It is a disinfectant only.

57
Q

Define virulence.

A

The ability of a microbe to cause disease.

58
Q

Define pathogenicity.

A

The likelihood that an infected person will show clinical symptoms.

59
Q

Define infectiousness.

A

The number of exposed patients who become ill.

60
Q

Define LD50.

A

The number of cells needed kill half of the animals in a test group. Lethal Dose of 50% = LD50. This is a measure of virulence.

61
Q

Define attenuation.

A

The weakening of an organism.

Microbiology (5 decks)

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