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MUST KNOW FOR CAMRT > practice exam > Flashcards

practice exam Flashcards

1
Q

patient with prostate cancer recently fell and fractured his left distal femur. he is an inpatient receiving chemotherapy. his leg is in traction. mobile images of the fractured femur are requested. what is the most likely acquired pathology associated with the patients clinical information?

A

metastatic disease because prostate cancer commonly metastases to the bones

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2
Q

patient with prostate cancer recently fell and fractured his left distal femur. he is an inpatient receiving chemotherapy. his leg is in traction. mobile images of the fractured femur are requested. what steps are required of the technologist before entering the patients room of isolation?

A

both technologists are required to wear gown, cap, gloves, mask because the patient is immunocomprimised strict/reverse isolation is required

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3
Q

patient with prostate cancer recently fell and fractured his left distal femur. he is an inpatient receiving chemotherapy. his leg is in traction. mobile images of the fractured femur are requested. only an 80cm SID can be obtained for an AP projection because of the metal traction device. the exposure factors are 100cm SID would have been at 2mAs @ 65kv. what is the new mAs?

A

1.3mas

direct square law

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4
Q

patient with prostate cancer recently fell and fractured his left distal femur. he is an inpatient receiving chemotherapy. his leg is in traction. mobile images of the fractured femur are requested. for the lateral view using 100cm SID the cassette is positioned to include the knee joint and as much of the distal femur as possible. where would the technologist place the lower margin end of the cassette?

A

5cm distal to the knee joint because the diverging beam will project the knee distally, 5cm will ensure the inclusion of the joint on the image

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5
Q

mrs barton, 33 years old slipped and fell onto an outstretched hand. images of the wrist and scaphoid have been requested. what should be clearly seen on the images of the scaphoid views of the wrist?

A

soft tissue and bony trabeculae to visualize small fine fractures

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6
Q

mrs barton, 33 years old slipped and fell onto an outstretched hand. images of the wrist and scaphoid have been requested. the technologist uses separate 18 x 24cm CR imaging plates to record each of mrs bartons wrist images. what does this ensure for all the images that will be acquired?

A

they are displayed with comparable spatial resolution. using separate IRs will ensure that different and appropriate algorithms are applied to each individual image

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7
Q

mrs barton, 33 years old slipped and fell onto an outstretched hand. images of the wrist and scaphoid have been requested. department used a previous screen speed of 100 combination for extremity imaging. why is it necessary for the technologist to decrease technical factors for the use with CR?

A

CR is equivalent to 200-300 speed film screen imaging system.sensitivity of it is equal to that

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8
Q

mrs barton, 33 years old slipped and fell onto an outstretched hand. images of the wrist and scaphoid have been requested. when displayed on the CR monitor mrs bartons images appeared mottled, undiagnostic and need to be repeated. what should the tech do to improve the images?

A

increase mAs to increase the number of photons going to the IR

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9
Q

27 year old patient involved in a MVC arrives for xrays of skull, cspine, chest and pelvis. department uses film screen and the patient is on a spine board wearing a c collar and is conscious and alert. the horizontal beam lateral c spine image is to light across the entire image. what grid error caused the loss of density?

A

tilted grid because an off level grid misaligned results in an image with decrease in exposure across the entire image

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10
Q

27 year old patient involved in a MVC arrives for xrays of skull, cspine, chest and pelvis. department uses film screen and the patient is on a spine board wearing a c collar and is conscious and alert. exposure factors for a lateral cspine using a 8:1 grid was 85kv and 12mAs. the tech decides to use a non grid technique to repeat what should the new mas be?

A

3 going from grid to non grid the technical factors must decrease.
and you must figure out the math

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11
Q

27 year old patient involved in a MVC arrives for xrays of skull, cspine, chest and pelvis. department uses film screen and the patient is on a spine board wearing a c collar and is conscious and alert. AP chest is underexposed but has sufficient contrast. how should the tech alter the the Mas or kv to produce a minimal change in optical density

A

30% CHANGE IN mAs to show a visible change in optical density

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12
Q

27 year old patient involved in a MVC arrives for xrays of skull, cspine, chest and pelvis. department uses film screen and the patient is on a spine board wearing a c collar and is conscious and alert. the patients OML is extended 10 degrees from the perpendicular. what is the degree of angulation and direction of CR in order to obtain a 30 degree frontooccipital towne projection?

A

40 degrees caudad because a frontooccipital towne projection requires a 30 degree caudad angulation to the perpendicular OML so with a 10 degree extension of the OML a 40 degree caudad angle is needed.

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13
Q

27 year old patient involved in a MVC arrives for xrays of skull, cspine, chest and pelvis. department uses film screen and the patient is on a spine board wearing a c collar and is conscious and alert. what action by the technologist would be considered a breech of the patients right to confidentiality?

A

discussing the exam findings with the patients spouse

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14
Q

600mA, 100cmSID, 1.5mm focal spot
0.05sec, 5.0 OID, 35 x 43cm field size
70kv, 8:1 grid, CR system
what new set of technical factors will achieve the same exposure rate of intensity rate?

A

60kv, 300mas, 0.2sec

because of 15% decrease in kvp the mas will be doubled in order to maintain intensity

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15
Q

600mA, 100cmSID, 1.5mm focal spot
0.05sec, 5.0 OID, 35 x 43cm field size
70kv, 8:1 grid, CR system
what will be the affect of the field size adjusted to 10 x 10 cm

A

intensity is maintained and scatter production is decreased. intensity of the primary beam is controlled by mAs and kvp selected and scatter is reduced by reducing the field size

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16
Q

600mA, 100cmSID, 1.5mm focal spot
0.05sec, 5.0 OID, 35 x 43cm field size
70kv, 8:1 grid, CR system
what new parameters will minimize the affect of patient motion

A

900ma and 0.33sec

mAs is maintained while length of exposure is reduced which is necessary to reduce the affects of motion on the image

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17
Q

600mA, 100cmSID, 1.5mm focal spot
0.05sec, 5.0 OID, 35 x 43cm field size
70kv, 8:1 grid, CR system
what adjustment minimizes patient dose?

A

decreasing mA

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18
Q

hyperstenic patient is admitted for investigation of the GI tract. his doctor ordered a GI examination of, BE, and abdominal ultrasound. what is the proper sequence of exams for this patient

A

abdominal ultrasound, BE, upper GI

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19
Q

hyperstenic patient is admitted for investigation of the GI tract. his doctor ordered a GI examination of, BE, and abdominal ultrasound. following the BEwhat instructions should the technologist give the patient to prevent constipation

A

increase fluid intake

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20
Q

hyperstenic patient is admitted for investigation of the GI tract. his doctor ordered a GI examination of, BE, and abdominal ultrasound. the radiology resident seeks the technologists option because he is having trouble demonstrating the barium filled duodenal bulb free of superimposition so which view should be done

A

right lateral because shows the best view of the pyloric canal and duodenal bulb in patients with hyperstenic habitus

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21
Q

hyperstenic patient is admitted for investigation of the GI tract. his doctor ordered a GI examination of, BE, and abdominal ultrasound. the patients stomach is slow to empty during the upper GI exam. what recumbent position could stimulate gastric peristalsis?

A

RAO

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22
Q

technologist is preparing for a enhanced CT of the chest. the patient has a history of allergic response to IV contrast. what medication should be given prior to the exam

A

prednisone (deltasone), acting as a anti inflammatory preventing or reducing allergic response

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23
Q

technologist is preparing for a enhanced CT of the chest. the patient has a history of allergic response to IV contrast. what injection will optimize visulazation of contrast within the pulmonary vessels?

A

arterial contrast fills the pulmonary arteries during this phase giving optimal visualization because ww is wide enough to allow demonstration of all soft tissue including pulmonary vessels

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24
Q

technologist is preparing for a enhanced CT of the chest. the patient has a history of allergic response to IV contrast. what ww and wl would best visualize the sternum

A

+325 ww & +50 WL

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25
Q

technologist is preparing for a enhanced CT of the chest. the patient has a history of allergic response to IV contrast. when reviewing the patients images at what level will the tracheal bifurcation best be seen

A

T4T5 (carina)

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26
Q

request of a chest xray on a patient that is 25 years old. he is experiencing chest pain and SOB. upon viewing the image the technologist notices a absence of markings in the right lung. what should be done next

A

check with the doctor before letting the patient leave the department because a tension pnemothroax can quickly become life threatening and needs to be treated before circulatory collapse occurs

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27
Q

doing a mobile chest xray. when making the exposure what should the technologist do to protect themselves from scatter radiation

A

wear proper protective apparel

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28
Q

4 year old cooperative child gets wrist xrays. patient motion is seen on the PA image. how should the tech proceed for the repeat image

A

use a compression band to hold the childs arm in place.

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29
Q

what factor would be the most useful in visualizing both lung and mediastinum on the PA chest projection?

A

high kv to allow for long scale contrast to adequately penetrate the lungs and mediastinum

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30
Q

what patient history would require a increase in exposure factors for a mobile exam

A

ascites (increase of fluid in the abdominal cavity)

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31
Q

a patient is having a cerebral angiogram and during the procedure begins to cry. how should the tech respond to the patient

A

address her concerns before continuing with the exam

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32
Q

which joint is best demonstrated on the 15 degree internal oblique view of the ankle (medial rotation)

A

talo fibular

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33
Q

tech is preparing for enhanced ct of infants head, what factor is essential in calculating dosage

A

weight of infant so as to not impair renal function

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34
Q

with a CR system the recommended technical factors for an AP projection of the knee are 4mAs and 60kvp.how will image quality be affected if the tech uses 1mAs at 60kvp instead

A

increase image noise; lowering the mAs will reduce the signal to noise ratio by creating more image noise

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35
Q

29 year old female patient with a history of chronic back pain is scheduled for a xray exam of lumbar spine. during the interview the patient states that she may be pregnant what is the techs best response

A

consult with the physician for futher instructions they may not be aware of the possible pregnacy

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36
Q

what will obsure the odontoid process when the neck is hyperextended for an AP open mouth projection

A

base of occipital bone because its projected inferiorly

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37
Q

when working with patients with chest drainage systems what should the technologist do to ensure that the system continues to work properly?

A

keep the system below the level of the patients chest to allow drainage to occur

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38
Q

what pathology should the technologist anticipate when elderly frail female client with kyphoysis arrives in the DI department with a request of consultation for a tspine xray

A

osteoporosis- a metabolic bone disease resulting in demineralization of bone most commonly seen in post menopausal women. result of kyphosis is from a collapse in thoracic vertebrae

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39
Q

what is required for the correct use of AEC

A

the region of interest must be positioned over the detector cell.directly over the ionization chamber

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40
Q

if images taken with AEC are consistently to noisy what adjustment should be made until the unit can be serviced

A

INCREASE THE DENSITY CONTROL to overcome slowly changing calibration or sensitivity of AEC without additional patient dose

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41
Q

when viewing a PA chest what would indicate to the technologist that the patient may have received more radiation than necessary for the exam?

A

collimation not evident

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42
Q

why is personnel radiation dosimeter worn under the lead apron during fluro?

A

to detect whole body exposure

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43
Q

upper GI series has been requested on a patient with a possible perforated ulcer. which contrast should the tech select to prepare

A

water soluable iodine because it is readily absorbed in the peritoneal cavity

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44
Q

what varies directly with the intensity of the radiation emitted from the xray tube

A

tube current,(direct relationhip) atomic number of target material (as increase the intensity also increased)

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45
Q

what is most likely to cause the tube current (mA) to increase erractially and become uncontrollable

A

loss of vacuum in the tube insert which affects electron flow from cathode to anode

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46
Q

what aspect of digital image is affected by changing wl while maintaining the ww?

A

density is controlled by wl

ww (contrast)

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47
Q

what view of the elbow will demonstrate minimal compression of the fat pads

A

lateral

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48
Q

AP projection of the lumbar spine is taken on a large male patient using AEC @ 80kv. the image was blurred what would be the result of the tech repeating the image at 95kvp

A

mAs will be decreased because with a higher kvp AEC will compensate with a decrease in mAs to maintain beam intensity

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49
Q

what describes one disc slipping over another

A

spondiolithesis which results in spondylosis

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50
Q

what exam should be done if asked to rule out legge calfes perthe (osteochrondosis)

A

hip

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51
Q

when removing clothes from a hemiparais patient how is it done

A

by using the affected side first so their is less movement on that side

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52
Q

patient arrives for xray of the elbow. the elbow has dressing covering a deep wound. should the dressing be removed for the exam

A

no the wound needs to stay clean

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53
Q

how do you pour sterile betadine onto a sterile tray

A

check the label, discard the first few drops then pour into a container

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54
Q

what is the recommended cardio compression to ventilation when performing a 2 recuser CPR on adult

A

30:2

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55
Q

the technologist checks the dosimeter report and sees in the past year she has accumulated 2msv is this a concern

A

no because it is below the dose limit of radiation workers dose limit for the whole body for the year is 20

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56
Q

what is the rationale for a regular quality control measure cycle of of CR imaging plates

A

to remove background radiation and scatter

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57
Q

to ensure the validity of mA linearity test which test must be performed?

A

timer accuracy

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58
Q

under what circumstances would would radiography of the chest be appropriate

A

acute abdominal series to rule out chest pathology detecting free air under the diapharm

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59
Q

what is the dominant interaction of in soft tissue of the breast during mammo?

A

photo electric because of low energies and see attenuation differences

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60
Q

during a digital imaging exam what occurs if the ww setting is 100 and the wl is 0

A

numbers between +50 and -50 appear grey

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61
Q

what is the most common reason for performing a pre MRI shoulder arthrogram

A

rotator cuff tear

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62
Q

how should the patient be positioned for a upright lateral view of the chest

A

MSP vertical

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63
Q

tech must do a mobile abd series in the patients room during visting hours. how should the tech provide protection for the vistors

A

request the vistors to wait outside

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64
Q

what is essential when transporting a patient with a urinary drainage

A

keep it lower than the bladder to prevent back flow

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65
Q

patient develops epitaxis during the xray. what position provides proper care for the patient

A

sitting with head forward and the nostrils pinched to prevent swallowing of blood

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66
Q

what feature of the image will be affected by selecting the edge enhancement during a digital subtraction peripheral angiogram

A

visibility of small structures, good for fractures and high contrast objects

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67
Q

what structure is the most radiosensitive during the acanthioparietal projection of the facial bones

A

optic lens

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68
Q

patient with dementia arrives for an xray. she is uncooperative and disorientated what is the best rationale for use of immobilization techniques for this patient

A

to reduce the probability of repeat expsoures

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69
Q

an erect cspine series has just been completed when the patient feels faint and asks to lie on the table. the tech decides that the LAO must be repeated. what view would be acquired with the patient in the recumbent position

A

RPO to visualize the left intervertebral foramina

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70
Q

what infection control practices should the 2 techs follow when performing a mobile supine chest on an unconscious patient with blood soaked clothing

A

both techs wear gloves to position the patient then one removes the gloves to handle the equipment. once the patient is positioned one tech should remove their gloves and wash their hands before handling the equipment

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71
Q

what is the most important consideration for the tech to remember when transferring a patient with a possible cspine injury

A

maintain immobilization of the head and neck

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72
Q

what is the correct procedure to follow when the tech is inserting the rectal tip prior to a BE?

A

ask the patient to take slow deep breathes and insert the tip during exhalation because the abdominal muscles relax on exhalation

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73
Q

a patient has fallen from a stretcher and as a result of the siderails being left down. what is the legal term for this occurance

A

negligence because it is the omission of reasonable care that results in injury to a patient

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74
Q

what view would best demonstrate a suspected epiglottis on a 2 year old child

A

soft tissue lateral neck erect because it affects the soft tissue of the larynx and the patient needs to be supported in the upright position

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75
Q

a patient who is paraplegic requires xrays on the left femur. how should the tech provide assistance while moving him from the wheelchair to the table

A

enlist the help from another tech to lift the patients legs while the other tech lifts the torso to prevent injury to the patient and lifter

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76
Q

why dose the use of collimation reduce dose to the patient

A

because the area of useful beam is restricted

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77
Q

what is the most significant symptom of shock

A

tachycardia increase in heart rate, pallor, restlessness, respirations, hypotension and confusion

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78
Q

a patient for a postoperative hip arthroplasty patient requires a mobile pelvic exam. how should the tech properly prepare for the patient prior to the log roll

A

place the arms across the chest

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79
Q

tech in charge of quality control has been performing repeat analysis for the new DR room. during a 1 mth period this room had a total output of 5000 images and 260 repeats so what is the repeat rate

A

5 you do 260/5000

the number of repeat images divided by the total number of images multiplied by 100

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80
Q

while in the xray department the patient is rude and argumentative to the techs, at lunch in the cafeteria his family overhears the techs describing the patient as a homeless drug addict. what violation of the patients rights is this

A

slander- malicious verbal information

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81
Q

all enteries for procedures should include a

A

date and time

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82
Q

what is something that would be neglience

A

FAILURE TO CLEAN THE ROOM RIGHT AFTERA MRSA PATIENT , which puts other patients at risk

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83
Q

upon viewing a AP hip image taken to rule out osteoarthritis the tech notes that the femoral neck is foreshortened and the lesser trochanter is in profle what needs to be done to fix it

A

rotate the patients legs interally 15-20 degrees

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84
Q

what is the minimum shielding equalivancey for the hip exam

A

0.25 and should have 0.5 at 150 kvp

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85
Q

79 year old patient comes back for a repeat lateral lumbar spine xray. the tech reviews the previous exam and notes that on the lateral view of the L4-L5 and L5-S1 the intervertebral disc spaces are closed on the 3rd - 5th vertebral bodies are distorted. how can the tech ensure that the lateral repeat image is good

A

position a sponge under the patients waist to place the vertebral column parallel

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86
Q

tech has obtained routine lateral views for an elbow. the rad suspects a radial head fracture and requests an additional image how can it be seen

A

flex the elbow to 90 degrees with the hand pronated and the CR directed 45 degrees towards the shoulder to project the radial head anterior to the coronoid process

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87
Q

what kv should be used for a KUB for sthenic patient

A

70-80 to maximize subject contrast

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88
Q

86 years old patient brought to the hospital with a suspected hip fracture. she appears agitated and is worried about her dog being left alone. the tech feels the instructions are not being understood. how can the tech improve communication

A

speak slowly in a clear voice and ask the patient to respond to questions

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89
Q

what projection will show medial or lateral displacement of a fracture in the neck of the mandible

A

30 degree frontooccipital

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90
Q

a ct of a throax was requested to rule out medistinal pathology. to see the area the scan must include from apices to the level of what anatomical structure

A

diapharm

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91
Q

WBC are very sensitive to radiation a dose of

A

25 rads causes a drop

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92
Q

annual occupational dose is

A

5rads

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93
Q

neuroblas is one of the most

A

sensitive tissues to radiation

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94
Q

relative biological effect (RBE) ratio of dose of standard radiation necessary to produce a given effect to the dose of the

A

test radiation needed for the same effect

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95
Q

inherent infiltration general purpose is

A

0.5mm of AL

collimator 1.0mm of AL

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96
Q

to meet required total filtration of 2.5 mm if AL all manufactor inserts need additional

A

1.0ml of al equaivalent between the xray tube housing and the collimator

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97
Q

lead gloves need a minimum of

A

0.25mm thickness for fluro procedures @ 150kvp

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98
Q

acute whole body exposure of 2Gy (200rads) is

A

hemopeotic death so below 10gy is infection and electrolyte inbalance

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99
Q

biological effects are

A

somatic and genetic effects

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100
Q

pubic dose is

A

1/10th of the occupational dose

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101
Q

dose equivalent for the lens of the eye is

A

150msv for the year occupational for the public its 15msv/year

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102
Q

occupational dose for the skin, hands and feet

A

500msv/year

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103
Q

whole body dose limit

A

50msv/yr

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104
Q

dose equivalent for the fetus

A

0.5msv/mth

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105
Q

a controlled area (booth) should limit exposure to yearly whole body exposure

A

5rem per year (50msv/year) 10rem/wk

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106
Q

minimial patient tube distance for fixed fluro units is

A

38cm for mobile 30cm

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107
Q

skin erythema

A

deterministic effect with a threshold of 2gy (200rads)

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108
Q

gonadal significant dose

A

20mRads

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109
Q

a femur will benefit from anode heel effect more than foot because this effect is

A

more prouncecd with larger films and shorter SID

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110
Q

effective focal spot is smaller

A

at the anode end

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111
Q

focal spot blur smaller at the

A

anode side

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112
Q

for magnification purposes small focal spot

A

should used less than 0.3mm

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113
Q

relative speed

A

mas and rs2

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114
Q

maintain density

A

mas & distance

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115
Q

penumbra

A

OID/SOD/FSS

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116
Q

primary factor affecting the brightness of fluro image is the

A

size or composition of the part

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117
Q

ABC is maintained by

A

adjusting kvp and mas

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118
Q

tube warm up should be done using

A

70-80kvp and ma smaller than 200 for 1-2s

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119
Q

when AEC is used for kvp higher than 50 xray exposure must be terminated

A

after 6s or 600 mas is reached for a kvp smaller than 50 the limit is 2000mas

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120
Q

drastic temp change in developer and fixer could cause

A

wrinkling reticuluation of the film

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121
Q

bending of the film makes

A

crescent marks artifacts

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122
Q

factors that affect contrast are

A

kvp (inversely proportional), screen speed, grid ratio and OID (directly proportional)

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123
Q

for techniques higher than 90kvp

A

12:1 grid is used

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124
Q

orthocromatic film is sensitive to

A

green or blue light (rare earth)

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125
Q

safe light for orthrochromatic is

A

red

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126
Q

ascities you need to increase

A

mas 50%,

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127
Q

for a pneumo, osteomyltis, obstructions decrease

A

kvp 8%

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128
Q

WBC are very sensitive to radiation a dose of

A

25 rads causes a drop

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129
Q

annual occupational dose is

A

5rads

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130
Q

neuroblas is one of the most

A

sensitive tissues to radiation

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131
Q

relative biological effect (RBE) ratio of dose of standard radiation necessary to produce a given effect to the dose of the

A

test radiation needed for the same effect

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132
Q

inherent infiltration general purpose is

A

0.5mm of AL

collimator 1.0mm of AL

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133
Q

to meet required total filtration of 2.5 mm if AL all manufactor inserts need additional

A

1.0ml of al equaivalent between the xray tube housing and the collimator

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134
Q

lead gloves need a minimum of

A

0.25mm thickness for fluro procedures @ 150kvp

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135
Q

acute whole body exposure of 2Gy (200rads) is

A

hemopeotic death so below 10gy is infection and electrolyte inbalance

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136
Q

biological effects are

A

somatic and genetic effects

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137
Q

pubic dose is

A

1/10th of the occupational dose

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138
Q

dose equivalent for the lens of the eye is

A

150msv for the year occupational for the public its 15msv/year

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139
Q

occupational dose for the skin, hands and feet

A

500msv/year

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140
Q

whole body dose limit

A

50msv/yr

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141
Q

dose equivalent for the fetus

A

0.5msv/mth

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142
Q

a controlled area (booth) should limit exposure to yearly whole body exposure

A

5rem per year (50msv/year) 10rem/wk

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143
Q

minimial patient tube distance for fixed fluro units is

A

38cm for mobile 30cm

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144
Q

skin erythema

A

deterministic effect with a threshold of 2gy (200rads)

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145
Q

gonadal significant dose

A

20mRads

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146
Q

a femur will benefit from anode heel effect more than foot because this effect is

A

more prouncecd with larger films and shorter SID

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147
Q

effective focal spot is smaller

A

at the anode end

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148
Q

focal spot blur smaller at the

A

anode side

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149
Q

for magnification purposes small focal spot

A

should used less than 0.3mm

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150
Q

relative speed

A

mas and rs2

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151
Q

maintain density

A

mas & distance

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152
Q

penumbra

A

OID/SOD/FSS

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153
Q

primary factor affecting the brightness of fluro image is the

A

size or composition of the part

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154
Q

ABC is maintained by

A

adjusting kvp and mas

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155
Q

tube warm up should be done using

A

70-80kvp and ma smaller than 200 for 1-2s

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156
Q

when AEC is used for kvp higher than 50 xray exposure must be terminated

A

after 6s or 600 mas is reached for a kvp smaller than 50 the limit is 2000mas

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157
Q

drastic temp change in developer and fixer could cause

A

wrinkling reticuluation of the film

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158
Q

bending of the film makes

A

crescent marks artifacts

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159
Q

factors that affect contrast are

A

kvp (inversely proportional), screen speed, grid ratio and OID (directly proportional)

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160
Q

for techniques higher than 90kvp

A

12:1 grid is used

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161
Q

orthocromatic film is sensitive to

A

green or blue light (rare earth)

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162
Q

safe light for orthrochromatic is

A

red

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163
Q

ascities you need to increase

A

mas 50%,

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164
Q

for a pneumo, osteomyltis, obstructions decrease

A

kvp 8%

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165
Q

accepted blooming for 1.0mm focal spot

A

40% (fss 0.8-1.5)

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166
Q

accepted blooming for fss smaller than

A

0.8-50%

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167
Q

developer is alkaline

A

ph higher than 7 (10-11.5)

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168
Q

fixer is acidic and a ph

A

smaller than 7 (4-4.5)

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169
Q

turn ratio of a step up transformer

A

v2/v1- # of turn s

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170
Q

window level

A

density

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171
Q

window width

A

contrast

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172
Q

b + F allows for a variation of

A

+/- 0.05

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173
Q

intensity with constant technical factors (reproducibility) should not be more than

A

5%

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174
Q

reciprocity and linearity is

A

+/- 10%

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175
Q

kvp variation is

A

+/-2%

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176
Q

preservatives in the developer

A

retard or oxidaize

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177
Q

hyperglycemia

A

induced insulin overdose, from inadequate food intake, increased exercise, nutritional imbalances that can lead to insulin shock.
symtoms- diaphoresis, confusion, walking difficulty, weakness, double, vison or blurred so give food with sugar (orange juice)

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178
Q

mets the tissue is more

A

radiolucent (dark)

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179
Q

safelight should be placed at least 3feet

A

from the film bin

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180
Q

diaphroresis

A

the patient is pale, cold clammy skin, sweaty, cause shock , diabetes, ilnnes

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181
Q

if the wrong exam is performed then its

A

battery

182
Q

tort is

A

intentional or not intentional act performed based on unreasonable conductex commiting battery or assault

183
Q

deglutition

A

swallowing

184
Q

to reduce the patient dose place the II on

A

top of the patient and as close as possible to reduce scatter

185
Q

semicircular canal

A

balance

186
Q

RAO demos

A

duodenal bulb and loop in profile in a double contrast study

187
Q

communited fracture

A

many pieces

188
Q

compound fracture

A

open

189
Q

restrainers keep reducing agents from developing

A

unexposed crystals (potassium bromide)

190
Q

intrathecal injection

A

spinal cord

191
Q

spore bacteria is the most

A

resistant to asepsis

192
Q

emphysema is

A

dilation of the alveoli most comfortable position for the patient is sitting

193
Q

orthopena

A

ability to breathe better while sitting

194
Q

assault

A

threatening someone verbally

195
Q

battery

A

touching someone without permission

196
Q

CPR the sternum is depressed

A

1.5-2”

child- 0.5-10.”

197
Q

EG tubes are used to

A

inject nutrition into the stomach for patients who cannot swallow

198
Q

average rate of compressions for adult CPR is

A

80-100/min

199
Q

enema bag is plced

A

30” above the table and
18’24 above the patients hip
tip is not inserted more than 10cm

200
Q

neurogenic shock

A

pooling of blood in peripheral vessels aka vasogenic shock seen in severe trauma

201
Q

septic shock

A

blood stream exposed to bacteria

202
Q

nasal cannula oxygen rate

A

2-3L/min

203
Q

urticarial-

A

hives

204
Q

blood pressure

A

adult systolic- 110-140 diastolic 60-90

if below 90 the shock is accompanied by hypotension and a faster pulse rate

205
Q

CPR the best place to check a pulse

A

adult- carotid artery

child- brachial artery

206
Q

before myelography CSF fluid is aspirated to check for

A

syphylis

207
Q

IV filtration

A

pull the needle out and apply a cold or warm compression

208
Q

average pulse rate for infants is

A

120 BEATS/MIN

209
Q

adult normal pulse rate

A

80-100beats per min and above 100 is tachycardia

210
Q

hypervolemia during a BE study can be prevented by adding

A

2tbps of salt to the solution because can lead to edemarenal failure death

211
Q

grieving process

A

denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance

212
Q

orthostatic hypertension

A

sudden change of pressure when moving from the recumbent to sitting position syncope of fainting

213
Q

normal adult respiratory rate

A

12-20 breathes per min
child- 20-30
under 1year- 30-60

214
Q

hyperglycemia

A

induced insulin overdose, from inadequate food intake, increased exercise, nutritional imbalances that can lead to insulin shock.
symtoms- diaphoresis, confusion, walking difficulty, weakness, double, vison or blurred so give food with sugar (orange juice)

215
Q

during the seldinger technique

A

anesthetics are used to prevent vasospam most often lidocaine and epinephrine to reduce bleeding

216
Q

enteric isolation

A

to prevent spread of infection thru fecal material

217
Q

rescue breathing to adult with respiratory arrest

A

1 breathe every 5sec

child 1 breathe every 3 sec

218
Q

patient is coming down for a post op hip xrays and is experiencing a high pulse rate of 120 beats per min may be experiencing a

A

pulmonary embolism one of the operative complication s on long extremities or hip

219
Q

for a plaster cast you need to

A

increase mas 50% or 8% in kvp

220
Q

fiberglass cast

A

no change is needed

221
Q

ammonia smell in the developer is

A

oxidation

222
Q

fat is the least attenuated compared to

A

water, muscle, bone, liver

223
Q

excessive filtration decreases

A

contrast and density

224
Q

to decrease exposure time

A

decrease SID, increase kvp, decrease the back up timer

225
Q

increase film speed

A

higher contrast and density

226
Q

restrainers keep reducing agents from developing

A

unexposed crystals (potassium bromide)

227
Q

dyes are added to improve resolution

A

reflective backing is added to increase speed

228
Q

AEC used with too tight collimation

A

over exposed image

229
Q

sella

A

CR 0.75 anterior and superior to EAM lateral

AP- IOML perpendicular CR 37 degree caudad

230
Q

activators cause emulsion to swell

A

sodium carbonate

231
Q

when changing from table top technique with no grid to a bucky technique with a grid

A

mas should be multiplied by 3

232
Q

lateral femoral condyle is more flat

A

than medial

233
Q

lateral femoral condyle is

A

higher than medial on axial knee

234
Q

for every 0.25” of misalignment adjust CR

A

angle by 5degrees

235
Q

nosocomial infection

A

acquired during care at the hospital

236
Q

areas most affected by ulcerations

A

scapula, sacrum, trochanters, knees, heels

237
Q

CPR neonate

A

2 breathes use 2 fingers for compressions , 0.5# sternum

120 compressions per minute

238
Q

CPR for adult

A

15 compressions for 2 breathes

239
Q

CPR under 1 year

A

1 ventilation, 5 compressions

240
Q

analyphatic shock

A

allergic reaction

241
Q

ketoacidosis

A

no sufficient insulin body is not able to metabolize glucose

242
Q

hyperosmolar non ketoacidotic syndrome or coma

A

complication of mild type 2 diabetes mellitus or it may occur in an elderly patient with known diabetes that had a recent acute illness or had undergone dialysis

243
Q

body temp for 1-3yrs

A

37.2- 37.7deg C,

5-13- 36.7-37C

244
Q

fever causes

A

increased pulse and respiration rate

245
Q

hypothemia

A

less oxygen is needed

246
Q

when pulse is increased

A

blood pressure is low

247
Q

normal pulse is

A

60-90 beats per min radial

248
Q

120 beats per min

A

infant

249
Q

90-100 beats per min

A

4-10yrs and apical is most accurate

250
Q

atherosclerosis

A

increased BP aka arterialscleroiss

251
Q

sphygmomanometer

A

measure BP

252
Q

nasal cannula

A

1-4L adults

0.25-0.5l min child

253
Q

mask is

A

above 5l/min

254
Q

PA mandible to demonstrate the body

A

CR exits the lips AML perpendicular to the IR

255
Q

mandible PA

A

oml perpendicular to the IR and to see the body rami and medial / lateral displacement

256
Q

axiolateral oblique mandible

A

area of interest is parallel with film, rami patients head in true lateral position (IPL perpendicular to the IR)
body rotate head 30 degrees toward IR
symph- rotate head 45 degrees towards the IR

257
Q

smv

A

ioml parallel with the IR, CR perpendicular midway between mandibular angles
demo coronoid and conduloid process of the rami

258
Q

TMJ AP Axial

A

OML perpendicular, CR angled 35 degree caudad, 3” above the nasion
demos the condyles and fossa if the mouth is open condyles will be projected below the petrosa

259
Q

TMJ axiaolateral open;closed

A

IPL parallel to IR, CR angled 25-30 caudad 0.5” anterior and 2” superior to unaffected EAM

260
Q

sinuses are overpenetrated

A

obliterate pathology and underpenetrated simulates pathology (70-75, 28mas waters 8mas lateral with a small focal spot

261
Q

lateral sinuses

A

IOML perpendicular to IR 1-1.5” posterior to outer canthus

262
Q

Caldwell sinuses

A

CR must be horizontal OML 15 degrees with the IR and CR exits nasion demon a frontal and anterior ethmoid sinsuses

263
Q

calcaneous

A

40degree cephalad for axial projection CR at base of the 5th metatarsal

264
Q

knee distance from ASIS to film

A

18cm or lower 5 degree caudad
19-24- 0 degrees
24 & up- 5 degree cephalad

265
Q

lateral patella

A

cant bend knee more than 10 degrees

266
Q

sella

A

CR 0.75 anterior and superior to EAM lateral

AP- IOML perpendicular CR 37 degree caudad

267
Q

normal towne for cranium

A

CR 2.5” above glabella

268
Q

towne for zygoma

A

CR 1” superior to nasion or glabella

269
Q

lateral lumbar spine

A

long axis is parallel with table angle 8 degrees caudad for women and 5 degrees caudad for man 1” inferior to the crest

270
Q

oblique lumbar

A

1.5” down from the crest and 2” medial to elevated ASIS

271
Q

L5-S1 spot

A

2”posterior to ASIS and 1” inferior from crest

272
Q

thoracic lateral spine

A

10 degrees for females and 15 degrees cepahlad for males because of broader shoulders

273
Q

if the pedicles are to anterior

A

patient was not rotated enough

274
Q

SI jts

A

patient elevated 25-30 degrees CR 1” medial to elevated ASIS

275
Q

lateral sacrum

A

3.5” posterior to ASIS

276
Q

lateral coccyx

A

3.5” posterior to ASIS and 2” inferior from ASIS

277
Q

scoliosis

A

demon thoracic and lumbar 1” crest SID 60”

278
Q

SI jts AP

A

30 degrees cephald 1.5” superior to symphysis

279
Q

cranium lateral

A

CR 2” above EAM

280
Q

bladder

A

10-15 degrees caudad CR 2” superior to upper border of symphysis if the patient is lordotic decrease angle

281
Q

PA if prostate

A

area of interest 20-25 degrees cephald CR 1” inferior to tip of coccyx

282
Q

to see ureters and bladder

A

RPO/LPO 40-60 degrees

283
Q

to demo neck of the bladder and male urethra

A

35-40 degrees body rotation superior border of symkphysis

284
Q

mean lethal dose

A

1-2GY

285
Q

cell with the highest sensitivity

A

in G2 & Mphase

286
Q

acute effects of radiation are

A

inflammation, edema, bleeding and stripping of mucosa

287
Q

every xray tube must be contained within the housing that reduces

A

radiation leakage to less than 100mR/hr at a distance of 1m

288
Q

1-10Gy

A

bone marrow damage with 2Gy threshold

289
Q

10-100Gy GI system damage

A

especially small bowel

290
Q

above 100GY

A

CNS damage

291
Q

stages of response

A

prodromal - before the disease NVD
latent- healthy appearance
manifest illness- dose dependant person is ill

292
Q

stocastic

A

no threshold increased dose increased probablitay

293
Q

deterministic

A

threshold increased dose increased severity

294
Q

somatic effect

A

cancer, congential defect, cateracts,

295
Q

genetic

A

mutation

296
Q

cataract

A

threshold 2GY acute, 10Gy chronic

297
Q

sterility

A

threshold 2GY, temporary, 5Gy permamnet

298
Q

fetus

A

preimplantation (0-10days) increased mitotic rate very radio sensitive prenatal death if born exencephaly brain hernia

299
Q

major organgenesis

A

10days to 6wks with congential abnormalities most common is CNS damage increased neonate death most radiosensitve

300
Q

fetal growth

A

above 6wks late effects like cancer

301
Q

increased density and fog

A

no starter added to new soluition

302
Q

fixer

A

clearing agent preservtibe, buffer, activator

303
Q

fixor acts upon not trapped in specs silver haldies

A

needs more than 2 silver BR and 2 sensitivity specs

304
Q

hardening happens in

A

developer and fixer

305
Q

damp film

A

hardner problem or blowing problem

306
Q

to enhance subject contrast

A

compression, decrease kvp, small field size, use a grid

307
Q

diagnosticically useful densities

A

0.25 + B + F

308
Q

single emulsion film is used

A

duplication and in mammo

309
Q

unexposed film

A

under 20 degrees C, 30-60 humidity

310
Q

exposed film

A

15-27C- 30-50 degrees humidity

311
Q

left UV junction best demo in

A

RPO position with 30 degree body rotation

312
Q

oblique view of sternum

A

best technique is 60kvp, 80ma and 2.5sec shallow breathing

313
Q

ap shoulder external rotation

A

demo greater tuberacle

314
Q

bone age

A

most common left hand and wrist sometimes left knee

315
Q

arm venogram

A

contrast from wrist up to SVC

316
Q

tacky film

A

exhausted hardner in fixer

317
Q

developer temp accepted variance

A

+/- 0.5 degree C

318
Q

C spine shoot through with no grid

A

70kvp and 5mas

319
Q

spatial resolution in DR is limited

A

by size of the pixel

320
Q

advanatage of DR

A

increased contrast and increase latitude

321
Q

all repeats and rejects but not all rejects

A

are repeats

322
Q

personal reject rate

A

total # of repeats and total # of films used

323
Q

acceptance within

A

4-5%

324
Q

every xray tube must be contained within the housing that reduces

A

radiation leakage to less than 100mR/hr at a distance of 1m

325
Q

70kvp and up filtration is

A

2.5mm AL between 50-70 kvp is total filtration and must be 1.5 mm AL and below 50kv 0.5mm AL

326
Q

image intensifier assembly acts as a primary protective barrier and must be

A

2mm Pb equaivalent

327
Q

protective curtain is

A

0.25mmPB

328
Q

fluro intensity of xray beam at the table top

A

shoud not exceed 2.1 R’min for each ma of operation at 80kvp

329
Q

total intensity must not exceeed

A

10r/min

330
Q

body thickness is 20cm , ese at 100cm SID is 110msv. what is the ese when the new SID is 60cm

A

SODI= 100cm-20cm-80cm
SOD2= 60cm-20cm-40cm
100/new ese= 40 x 40/ 80 x 80
new ese 440msv

331
Q

dense bone ct #

A

1000

332
Q

muscle ct #

A

50

333
Q

white matter ct#

A

45

334
Q

gray matter ct #

A

40

335
Q

blood ct #

A

20

336
Q

CSF ct#

A

15

337
Q

water ct #

A

0

338
Q

fat ct #

A

-100

339
Q

lungs ct #

A

-200

340
Q

air ct #

A

-1000

341
Q

what is pitch

A

couch movement every 360 degrees/ slice thickness

342
Q

preferred detectors in ct

A

solid state with 80% detection efficiency

343
Q

1gy

A

100rads

344
Q

blue sensitive film, safe light is

A

amber

345
Q

digital radiography

A

static images produced with either fan xray beam intercepted by a linear array of radiation detectors or an area of xray beam intercepted by a photostimulable phosphor plane or direct capture solid state device

346
Q

dose equivalent

A

radiation quantity that is used for radiation protection and that expresses dose on a common scale for all radiations. it is expressed in rems or SV

347
Q

dose limit for preganant tech is

A

0.5msv/mth

348
Q

dose limit for the fetus

A

4msv for the period of pregnancy, 2 TLDS must be worn during pregnancy

349
Q

flux gain

A

number of output light photons / # of input light photons

350
Q

minification gain

A

diameter of input phosphor squared / diameter of output phosphor

351
Q

brightness gain

A

minification gain x flux gain

352
Q

image receptor in CR is

A

composed of europium activated barium fluor halide compunds which are energized when exposed to light of xrays

353
Q

sensitivity is equal to 200 speed screen film combination . the latent image consists of valence electrons stored in high energy traps. it manifests exposure to very narrow high sensitity laser beam

A

red. the laser beam causes electrons to return to their original state the valance band with the emission of blue light (OSL). the blue light is by the ultra sensitive multipier then it is digitzed and stored

354
Q

spatial resolution of CR is not as

A

good as CR but contrast is greater and wider latitude is allowed. patient dose is less

355
Q

TLD made of

A

litium fluoride crystals that are heated up to emit light

356
Q

if the calcenous obsures the mortise jt then

A

dorsiflex the foot

357
Q

axiallary part of the right upper ribs

A

RPO 45 deg or LAO PA away

358
Q

x table knee the flim is

A

on the medial side angle 5 degree caudad

359
Q

swimmers view the CR is centered at

A

JUGULAR NOTCH

360
Q

what is road mapping

A

continuous real time subtraction

361
Q

bony detail ct lspine

A

2200 ww and 400wl

362
Q

ivp optimal kvp is

A

66-75

363
Q

uneven light fog along on edge is

A

light fog the cassette was not closed properly

364
Q

90 kvp AEC back up timer set at 50mas

A

image is underexposed

365
Q

what is the variable in AEC and what is fixed

A

patient and the grid never moves always in the center of the image

366
Q

what chambers are selected for a abdomen with barium

A

all 3

367
Q

what chambers are selected for chest

A

outer 2

368
Q

what chambers are selected for a knee

A

middle

369
Q

if you have an upside down grid what is the error

A

it will be like a inverted skunk. fine in the middle and crap on the 2 outer sides

370
Q

falling 3 phase generator

A

max setting is 500ma, 400speed, 8:1 stationary grid, focused to 100cm, 2.5mm filtration, 1.5mm FSS, 115kvp, AEC the right cell activated at 180cm

371
Q

safe infusion rate to avoid edema

A

15-20 drops per min

372
Q

crohns affects

A

ileum, string sign

373
Q

nephrostogram

A

75kvp and 3.5ma fluro

374
Q

if horizontal fracture of the patella is present

A

do not perform infra superior projection

375
Q

16:1 grid is focused to 100cm what is the safe distance without primary loss of radiation

A

95-105cm

376
Q

small bowel obstruction

A

dilated loops stacked coins

377
Q

temp of barium most comfortable for patient is

A

29-30 deg C

378
Q

why co2 instead of air

A

more rapidly absorbed

379
Q

metareaction

A

unexpected or exacerbated effect from drug first time a patient receives it

380
Q

teratogenic effect

A

drug that adversely affects the fetus causing abnormal develppment

381
Q

idiosyncratic reaction

A

allergic reaction of metareaction

382
Q

thyroid collar for fluro is

A

0.5mmlead

383
Q

anticholineric drugs are used

A

in GI series to paralyze smooth muscles and to better demo the duodenum

384
Q

topical routes are

A

eyes, nose, mouth, respiratory muscosa, vagina, rectum

385
Q

speed point is

A

1+B+F

386
Q

if density varies by 0.05

A

unsafe light time in the dark room

387
Q

recto sigmoid patient is prone

A

30-40caudad

388
Q

sphenoid sinus is located immediately

A

anterior and inferior to sella turica

389
Q

greatest risk for breast cancer is

A

child birth after age 30

390
Q

when more than one cell is activated the cell receiving the most radiation will

A

contribute the greatest electrical signal and therefore have the most overall influence on the exposure

391
Q

what characteristic allows a CCD to provide better contrast resolution than a television camera tube?

A

higher sensitivity to light (DQE)

392
Q

when is the mask image obtained during a digital subtraction angiography?

A

before the contrast injection if the patient is positioned

393
Q

exam being done for spondylolysis of L5 the patient should be positioned at 60 degrees posterior oblique

A

CR enters midway between the crest and ASIS to best demonstrate this position

394
Q

HVL is dependent on?

A

tube voltage

395
Q

the biciptal groove of the humerus lies

A

between the lesser tuberacle and greater tuberacle

396
Q

what effect does a enlarged SFOV have on a CT image

A

may make the individual pixels less visable

397
Q

what is venipuncture

A

inhert catheter 15 degree angle to avoid nerve damage and avoid using volar aspect of the wrist or dorsal

398
Q

why is there a considerable extension in density range for CR as to computed flim imageing

A

CR has one D max curve

399
Q

what seperates the cerebral hemispheres of the brain

A

longitiudinal fissue

400
Q

oral ingestion of contrast is used for visualization of

A

esophageal varices , the valsava maneuver can be used to increase portal pressure therefore showing it

401
Q

lossy is how much lost

A

1/3

402
Q

lostless is how much lost

A

1/20th

403
Q

from what solution is silver reclaimed in most recovery systems

A

fixer

404
Q

what documentation do you find compelte information on a specific chemical product

A

MSDS

405
Q

how is HIV infection tramsmitted

A

direct contact

406
Q

permament filtration mm of al is

A

less than 50- 0.5mm of al
50-70= 1.5mm of al
more than 70- 2.5mm of al

407
Q

what angle is used for the scaphoid?

A

20

408
Q

what is the beste projection to view the pisiform

A

ap oblique wrist

409
Q

edge enhancement shows

A

smaller details better

410
Q

the only long bone to ossify by intramembraneous ossification is

A

the clavicle

411
Q

structure that connects the lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle in the brain in regards to the flow of CSF is

A

interventricular formina

412
Q

structure of the nasal septum that continues superiorly as the cristia gali is

A

perpendicular plate

413
Q

mengies that protect the spinal cord and brain from the outer layer is

A

dura mater, arachnoid and pia me mater

414
Q

noise is the main limiting factor for

A

contrast resolution acquiring CT images

415
Q

what is the radiography sign of ulcerative colitis

A

polypoid lesions along the bowel wall

416
Q

birds beak

A

volvulus

417
Q

RA of epidural hematoma on unenhanced ct

A

lens shaped area with increase in brightness

418
Q

prefetching and on demand in PACS means

A

studies awaiting interpretation by the radioliogist

419
Q

test tool used for quality control to elevaluate electronic display devices for luminence and luminance uniformity

A

photometer

420
Q

barium sulphate mixture for a double contrast BE

A

75% weight volume & below 30C

421
Q

what is pyrexia

A

fever increased respiratory rate, chills, flushed skin

422
Q

lead apron on the II is

A

0.25mm of lead

423
Q

volvulus is seen in

A

cecum & sigmoid as birds beak

424
Q

celiac disease is a

A

malabsorption disorder

425
Q

2 right lung fissures are

A

horizontal & oblique

426
Q

1 left lung fissue is

A

oblique fissue

427
Q

trachea divides into the primary bronchi at the

A

carina T4-T5

428
Q

endotracheal tube for intubation should be positioned

A

5-7cm above the carnia

429
Q

oxygen flow rate for the average patient is

A

2-5L/min

430
Q

trauma patient in shock

A

10L/min

431
Q

patients with a chronic lung disease need oxygen at a slower rate like emphysema oxygen at

A

less than 3L/min

432
Q

oxygen to child with a nasal cannula is

A

1/2-1/4 L/min because they have a higher respiration rate they need lower oxygen rate so as to note over inflate their lungs

433
Q

chest tube is placed into

A

intrapleural space between the parietal pleura and visceral pleura

434
Q

what is a peripherally insertered central catheter

A

inserted into a vein into the patient arm and advanced until the tip lies in the SVC

435
Q

PICC line used for

A

medications, fluids, draw blood short or long term, ICU, chem patients dialysis, total parenteral nutritioin

436
Q

average heart beat per min

A

60 to 100 beats/min

437
Q

adult respiration

A

12-20/min

438
Q

child respiration

A

20-24/min

439
Q

baby respiration

A

24-36/min

440
Q

polydacly is

A

extra finger

441
Q

what is the fat pad by the thumb called

A

thenar eminence

442
Q

ankylosis spondolysis is

A

bamboo spine or marie strumple
begins at the sacroiliac joint with bilateral and symmetric, widening of the joints
bone fusion and calcification seen on the ap lumbar

443
Q

spondolothesis is

A

defect in pars artericularis seen on the oblique views, between the superior and inferior articular process of the vertebrae on the lamina
most common in L5
clefts are bilateral

444
Q

spondoloithesis is

A

displacement in pars interacrticularis with anterior displacement of L5 over S1

445
Q

for lateral t spine centering is

A

to T7 for the lateral and you do not need C7

446
Q

ap tspine

A

if you have the adams apple on your centered to high

447
Q

tuberacle on the clavicle is seen on the

A

axial

448
Q

increase technique for the axial clavicle

A

because your shooting through thicker tissue

449
Q

clavicle is a

A

long bone with no medullary cavity, has cancellous bone with compact on the outside, red marrow

450
Q

on the lateral foot view the sinus tarsi is

A

more closed

451
Q

when you stand 90 degrees from the patient you get

A

the least amount of scatter

MUST KNOW FOR CAMRT (2 decks)

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