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MUST KNOW FOR CAMRT > CAMRT > Flashcards

CAMRT Flashcards

1
Q

what does flexion/extension views of the c-spine assess?

A

anteroposterior mobility & anteroposterior movement, motility

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2
Q

what is the CR angle for a AP Coccyx?

A

10 degrees caudad, 10 degrees caudal CR angulation

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3
Q

What does ERCP stand for?

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

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4
Q

why is ERCP done?

A

diagnose biliary & pancreatic pathologic condictions & investigate gallbladder, common bile duct and pancreatic ducts as well as intervention procedures

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5
Q

why is a ball catchers view done?

A

assist in detecting early radiologic changes needed to diagnose rheaumatoid arthritis

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6
Q

SC 35 the timer accuracy must be accurate to————–seconds or ————% of the setting which ever is greater

A

1/60 & 5mas

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7
Q

if a safelight test has become worse than the previous test, the thing to check first would be?

A

light streaks also bulb wattage,film type, timing etc

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8
Q

orthrostatic hypotension is?

A

low blood pressure due to standing upright (dizziness after getting up from a supine position)

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9
Q

is a germicide the same as a disinfectant?

A

germicide solution is a solution that destroys microrganisms and a disinfectant is any substance that inhibits the growth of bacteria. a disinfectant is a type of germicide

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10
Q

what is the difference between a Lauenstein view of the hip and a x-table lateral?

A

Lauenstein is the lesser trochanter in profile medially and the femoral neck superimposes the greater trochanter. x-table is the femoral neck demonstrated at about the same transverse level

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11
Q

what is the significance of Shenton’s Line?

A

used to evaluate pathology of the hip

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12
Q

the body part perpendicular to the CR when doing an intercondylar fossa is?

A

long axis of the leg, calf/lower leg/ tib-fib

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13
Q

purpose of lateral bending for scoliosis is?

A

compensatory curve will straighten/correct itself on one of these films. employed in patients with early scoliosis to determine the presence of structural change when bending to the right and left

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14
Q

optimal KVP for a chest x-ray and why?

A

100-130kvp to sufficiently penetrate the heart shadow and visualize the thoracic vertebrae as well as provide the long scale of contrast necessary to visualize lung details

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15
Q

how to adjust CR for a PCXR on a kyphotic patient

A

angle up slightly or leave the CR straight so the clavicles will be 1” below the apices of the lung

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16
Q

maximum size focal spot for a scaphoid

A

0.6mm

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17
Q

medication that may be added to the contrast to prevent a reaction

A

steroids and antihistamines(Benadryl, Medrol) may be used as a premedication but the contrast media should NEVER be mixed with medication

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18
Q

test tool used to test the focal spot is

A

standard a slit camera, pinhole camera & star pattern

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19
Q

nurse forgets to chart a medication during an IVP what should you do?

A

must bring omissions to their attention any item that has not been documented on the chart is considered to be “not performed”in a court of law

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20
Q

size of focal spot effects penumbra what does penumbra effect?

A

recorded detail

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21
Q

state the line focus principal

A

through angling the target, the effective area of the target is made much smaller than the actual area of electron interaction

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22
Q

the pedicles are sitting to far on the vertebral bodies so the patient is?

A

to far oblique (if oblique l-spine)

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23
Q

what is the purpose of a CVP line?

A

used for measuring central venous pressure and allowing nutrients and fluid to be instilled; best location would be the brachiocephalic vein at the junction of the SVC or actually within the SVC itself

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24
Q

what is the purpose and position of a Swan Ganz catheter?

A

Purpose- to measure wedge pressure, measure central venous pressure, measure systolic, diastolic and mean pressure, withdraw blood samples and to give fluid or inject drugs. Position- right or left pulmonary artery

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25
Q

what does plia circularis mean?

A

numerous folds of mucous membranes of the small intestine running transversely for about 2/3 of the circumference of the gut

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26
Q

instruments used for sensitometry

A

sensitometer (step wedge) and densitiometer

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27
Q

why is it suggested to do scoliosis films in the PA projection?

A

reduce the radiation exposure to selected radiosensitive organs

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28
Q

how often is a sensitometry strip done?

A

daily

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29
Q

what is demonstrated on a 15 occipitofrontal view of the sinuses

A

frontal sinuses lying superior to frontonasal suture, anterior ethmoidal air cells lying on each side of the nasal fossas and immediately inferior to the frontal sinuses, sphenoid sinuses projected through the nasal fossa just inferior to or between the ethmoid air cells, petrous ridge is inferior 1/3 of the orbit

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30
Q

what is the difference between spondylolysis vs spondylolithesis?

A

spondylolysis- defect in the pars interarticularis without displacement if there is displacement occurs in the condiction called SPONDYLOLITHESIS. spondylolysis- breaking down of a vertebra or replacement of a portion of the vertebral arch with cartilage. spondylolithesis- forward displacement of a vertebra over a lower segement usually in the 4th or 5th frequently due to spondylolysis

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31
Q

SC 35 states that mobile exams the target to skin distance be no less than?

A

30cm

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32
Q

what is the difference between a bennettes fracture & a potts fracture?

A

Bennett’s fracture- oblique fracture of the base of the 1st metacarpal with proximal and lateral subluxation of metacarpal shaft. the fracture extends into the 1st metacarpal shaft. usuall from a FOOSH
pott’s fracture- fracture of the ankle involving the malleoli. 1st degree pott- fractures of 1 malleolus. 2nd degree potts bimalleolar is a fracture of both malleoli. 3rd degree potts trimalleolar is a bimalleolar fracture with a fracture of the posteroinferior surface of the tibia

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33
Q

difference between a compound fracture and a communited fracture

A

compound fracture- wound in communication with a fracture, susceptible to infection with blood loss that maybe significant. comminuted fracture is a fracture with more than 2 bone fragments. segmental - divides the long bone into several fragments. butterfly- wedge shaped fragment split off from the main fragement

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34
Q

method to open a sterile tray for a cloth wrapped pkg

A

should have already washed hands, indicator tape is grey if it was sterilized, place pack on clean tabletop with sealed end toward you, remove tape, move the 1st corner of wrapper back and away from you, open next 2 corners of the pack to the left and right, open the 4th corner by dropping it toward your body, DO NOT TOUCH THE STERILE contents. to move the content to another sterile field grasp underside of the wrapper and let the edges fall over your hand

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35
Q

enema bag should be ———cm above the anus

A

61

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36
Q

what part of the gown is sterile during surgery?

A

only parts of a sterile gown considered sterile are the areas from the waist to the shoulders in front and the sleeves from 2” above the elbow to the cuffs

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37
Q

when communicating with a patient, why is humor never used

A

although humor can be an effective communication tool you must use it with care when there are cultural or age differences. if there is any doubt concerning its appropriateness do not use humor

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38
Q

how can dose be minimized when xraying a pregnant patient

A

only essential investigations should be taken in the case of pregnant or suspected pregnant patient, must not be accepted for chest photoflurographic mass radiographic exams, when pelvic radiography is needed, exposure must be kept to a absolute minimum with optimal use of gonadal shielding, if a exam of the fetus is required the prone position should be used to reduce fetal dose, radiography should not be used for determination of abnormal presentations of the fetus or for placenta localizations

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39
Q

what is the sterile field area in surgury

A

ends at the level of the tabletop or at waist of the sterile persons gown, edges of a sterile wrapper are not sterile, cuffs of a sterile gown are not considered sterile

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40
Q

angle and direction of AP knees on a patient with abdominal measurement of 19-24 cm is

A

perpendicular to the knee joint

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41
Q

what is included in a brain Ct?

A

base of skull to cranial apex

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42
Q

which vessel ascends through the cervical transverse foramina

A

vertebral artery

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43
Q

can compression be used for microscopic hematuria when doing IVP

A

yes, compression is only contraindicated for urinary stones, abdominal mass or aneurysm, a colostomy, suprapubic catheter or traumatic injury

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44
Q

why does excessive rotor prep lead to wear on the xray tube

A

filament vaporization- gassy tube as well as melting the bearings in the rotor- seized rotor un even wear on anode

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45
Q

when doing a c-spine odontoid in collar, what visible reference line is parallel to the CR

A

IOML

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46
Q

how is mobility assessed on a wheelchair patient you need to stand

A

deviations from correct body alignement, immobility or limitations in range of joint motion, ability to walk, repiratory cardiovascular, metabolic and musculoskeletal problems, patient condition, range of motion and weight bearing ability, strength and endurance, maintain balance, understand, acceptance to move, medication history

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47
Q

list exams from highest to lowest dose: lumbar spine, KUB, chest, BE

A

barium enema, lumbar spine, KUB, chest

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48
Q

what drug would be given to a patient following a severe contrast reaction

A

medications usually given for anaphylactiv shock are epinephrine, diphenhydramine, hydrocortisone and aminophylline

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49
Q

what is the optimal kvp for an abdomen and why

A

optimal is 65 to 75kvp technique because it sufficiently penetrates the soft tissue and bony structures of the abdomen. this kvp setting enhances subtle radiation absorption differences among the fat, gas, muscles, solid organs which are mainly water

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50
Q

minimum number of people needed for a stretcher transfer without a slider board

A

3 one at head, one on each side of patient

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51
Q

what is the fowler position

A

head of the patients bed is raised 18-20inches above the level with the knees also elevated

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52
Q

what is a colles fracture

A

transverse fracture through the distal radius with dorsal posterior angulation and often overriding of the distal fracture fragement. most common fracture of the upper extremitiy commonly associated with an avulsion fracture of the ulnar styloid process, radial fragement may be displaced posteriorly like a diner fork

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53
Q

3 anatomical landmarks assessed for perfect position of a “Y” view

A

coracoid, acromion angle, medial scapular angle

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54
Q

name 3 things found on an emergency crash cart

A

defibrillator, oxygen tank & tubing, suction machine, oral airways, laryngoscope, endotracheal tube,stethoscope, blood pressure cuffs, IV supplies, syringes, needles, blood tubes, tape, gauze, tourniquets

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55
Q

when inserting an enema tip it should be directed?

A

anteriorly and superiorly

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56
Q

SID for AC jts and why give weights

A

72”/ 183cm to reduce magnification and distortion of the joint space, weights will clearly demonstrate an AC jt separation if any

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57
Q

what is most likely the first sign of anaphylactic shock and what drug would you most likely reach for first in an reaction

A

itchness, redness or swelling of the skin, epinephrine

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58
Q

In terms of communication what must be discussed first before moving a patient

A

consultation with the nurse in charge of the patient is recommended so that the patients condition and limitations can be understood, if assistants are needed they must be on hand

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59
Q

when a patient is confiding personal information to you about himself what attitude is important for you to assume

A

neutral non judgmental one

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60
Q

how does cold barium affect the stomach for a GIFT

A

reduces irritation to the colon reduces spasm and cramping

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61
Q

how do you know if a FB is in the esophagus and not the trachea

A

if the FB is in the trachea the lungs will still have air in them on expiration of the chest xray, where a FB in the esophagus will have no effect on the lung size/markings

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62
Q

what does quantum mottle indicate

A

insufficient quantity of photons have stricken the intensifying screen due to low mas/ time factor

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63
Q

normal blood pressure is

A

110-140mmHg systolic and 60-80mmHg diastolic

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64
Q

what kvp is used in mammography and why

A

low kvp for high contrast as breast is made up of similarly attenuating parts; technique factors are approx. 23-28kvp used because to low a technique increases dose while a high kvp reduces the image quality

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65
Q

injection site for a myelogram

A

subarchnoid space by spinal puncture most commonly at L2-L3 or L3-L4 interspace or at the cisterna magna between C1 and the occipital bone

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66
Q

what breathing should be used when xraying a soft tissue neck

A

slow inspiration so the trachea is filled with air

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67
Q

on an oblique lumbar spine what is the neck of the scottie dog

A

pars interarticularis

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68
Q

during a mobile exam how far must you stand from the tube housing

A

3m

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69
Q

mobile cable must be how long

A

3m

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70
Q

CR angulation for clavicle views are

A

ap- perpendicular
pa-perpendicular
ap axial- 15-30 cephalad
pa axial 15-30 caudad

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71
Q

during a voiding cystogram patient does not want to continue the exam what should you do? advocate for the patient or the radiologist?

A

for the patient

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72
Q

name the most often used injection site for abdominal angiogram

A

percutaneoud femoral artery, catheter positioned at the level of T12

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73
Q

what is the injection site for a cerebral angiogram

A

done using percutaneous method of the common carotid artery or catheterization method via femoral or transaxiallary puncture by guiding the wire and appropriate positioning of the head and anyone of the cerebral vessels can be catheterized or internal carotid artery

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74
Q

why use an antigolinergic

A

reduces gastric motility which may help decrease cramping

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75
Q

how is a question of imperforate anus radiographed

A

infant is held upside down by the heels for 5min to allow swallowed air to rise to the level of closure. films are taken 6-24hrs after birth (allows time for air to reach the rectum). film at 72”SID to minimize distoration. AP & Lateral views are taken while upside down with a radiopaque marker placed at the opening with the distance measured

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76
Q

what vertebral level do the kidneys sit at

A

between T12 and L3 on either side of the spine. they normally extend from the level of the superior border of T12 to the level of the transverse processes of L3 in persons of sthenic bulid

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77
Q

what does the right lateral stomach demonstrate

A

shows the anterior and posterior aspects of the stomach the pyloric canal, duodenal bulb. right lateral projection is commonly affords the best image of the pyloric canal and the duodenal bulb in patients with a hypersthenic habitus

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78
Q

what position best shows ap displacement on a fractured mandible

A

lateral view

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79
Q

what test is done after the collimator light is changed

A

light field/ beam congruency test

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80
Q

the imaging plate for CR is coated with heavy metal phosphor called

A

europium activated barium flurohalide compounds which are energized when exposed to xrays

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81
Q

what type of film is used in mammography and why

A

single emulsion film so no light crossover results in a higher contrast which is useful in mammography

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82
Q

when would you use a slipper pan

A

when the patient has a fracture or another disability that makes it impossible to use a pan of this height(normal pan is 4”high)

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83
Q

what procedure is done in radiology to relieve the symptoms of artherosclerosis

A

angioplasty. vascular stenting, thrombolysis

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84
Q

what is a primary barrier. is the control booth a primary barrier

A

primary barrier prevents radiation from reaching personnel or members of the general public on the other side of the barrier. control booth is NOT a primary barrier as the booth intercepts leakage and scattered radiation and is therefore regarded as a secondary protective barrier

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85
Q

what pathology is seen during the GI associated with cirrhosis of the liver

A

esophageal varices

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86
Q

give the path and catheter final destination for a femoral angiogram starting with the femoral artery

A

percutaneous femoral artery approach on contralateral side if unilateral then travel through femoral iliac to the common iliac artery of the affected side. if lower extremities are to be studied an end hole,multiple side hole catheter is employed at the level of L4

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87
Q

what is the ratio of 1 man compression for CPR

A

15:2 ration (compression:breathes) 80-100 compressions per minute

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88
Q

the cervical spine on a supine patient is being examined the patient is in the RPO position with the CR 20 degrees cephalad what is best demonstrated

A

left intervertebral foramina and pedicles and an oblique projection of the bodies and other parts of the cervical vertebrae

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89
Q

what is the prep for an elderly patient for an IVP

A

when time permits have the patient follow a low residue diet for 1 to 2 days to prevent gas formation. have the patient eat a light evening meal on the day before the exam. have the patient take nothing by mouth after midnight on the day of the exam. however the patient should not be dehydrated. patient with multiple myeloma, high uric acid levels or diabetes must be well hydrated before the IVP is performed

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90
Q

what is the SID for a lateral cspine

A

72” or 183cm

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91
Q

what areas on the body are most prone to bed sores

A

where the bones are closer to the surface of the skin like hips, elbows, ankles, back, shoulder and behind the head

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92
Q

what joint and anatomical structures must be seen on the patellar view

A

patellofemoral joint and patella in profile as well as the surface of femoral condyles

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93
Q

if II is close to the patient as possible will this reduce scatter

A

yes the space between the xray tube and II will eliminate some scatter

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94
Q

how do you know you should start CPR

A

on realization that a patient has suffered cardiac arrest the appropriate alert should be initiated before the beginning of CPR. CPR must be initiated immediately on verifying that cardiopulmonary distress exists but it is vitally important theses procedures be performed only after it has been determined that true cardiopulmonary distress exists. establish unresponsiveness by shaking and shouting at the victim. if these actions fail to rouse the person then call for help and proceed with CPR

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95
Q

CT number for blood

A

20

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96
Q

ct number for water

A

0

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97
Q

ct number for lung

A

-200

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98
Q

ct number for bone

A

1000

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99
Q

ct number for air

A

-1000

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100
Q

ct number for fat

A

-100

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101
Q

why is it important to have soft tissue on a lateral elbow view

A

the fat pads are least compressed when the elbow is at 90 degrees and if the fat pads show on the xrays this means that there is effusion in the joint which may indicate an undetectable fracture on the xray. these fat pads are within the soft tissue surrounding the elbow

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102
Q

when doing an AP projection of the knee on a patient that measures 25cm and above what is the angle and direction of the CR

A

5 degrees cephalad

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103
Q

what is a nosocomial infection

A

infection acquired in the course of medical care

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104
Q

define an aneurysm

A

sac formed by dilation of the walls of a blood vessel usually an artery and filled with blood. aneurysm localized dilation of an artery that most commonly involves the aorta

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105
Q

what is the ratio of a 2 man compression for CPR

A

5:2, each rescuer independently performing compressions or ventilations with periodic switches of position. compressins are delivered at a rate of 80 to 100 per minute with a 2-3 second pause for 2 ventilations after every 5 chest compressions

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106
Q

what are demonstrated on oblique views of a myelogram

A

ruptured intervertebral disc (sheep nose or anvil like deformity

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107
Q

which of the following has lower dose and which has better resolution? photospot film, cine, 105mm, magnetic tape, radiographic spot film

A

photospot film has the lower dose and radiographic spot film has better resolution

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108
Q

MPD for student is ———– and a tech is ———— and for a pregnant tech is ————-msv

A

1, 20, 4

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109
Q

area for possible aspirated FB in child what area is covered by film

A

nasopharynx to anal canal

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110
Q

what is a nosocomial infection

A

infection acquired in the course of medical care

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111
Q

define an aneurysm

A

sac formed by dilation of the walls of a blood vessel usually an artery and filled with blood. aneurysm localized dilation of an artery that most commonly involves the aorta

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112
Q

what is the ratio of a 2 man compression for CPR

A

5:2, each rescuer independently performing compressions or ventilations with periodic switches of position. compressins are delivered at a rate of 80 to 100 per minute with a 2-3 second pause for 2 ventilations after every 5 chest compressions

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113
Q

the teeth obscure the odontoid how do you reposition

A

tilt the head back or extend to align the upper incisiors with the base of the skull

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114
Q

which of the following has lower dose and which has better resolution? photospot film, cine, 105mm, magnetic tape, radiographic spot film

A

photospot film has the lower dose and radiographic spot film has better resolution

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115
Q

MPD for student is ———– and a tech is ———— and for a pregnant tech is ————-msv

A

1, 20, 4

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116
Q

area for possible aspirated FB in child what area is covered by film

A

nasopharynx to anal canal

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117
Q

evaluation criteria for a 30 frontooccipital projection of the skull

A

equal distance from lateral border of the skull to lateral margin of foramen magnum on both sides indication no rotation, symmetric petrous ridges, dorsum sellae and posterior clinoid processes visible with foramen magnum. penetration occipital bone without excessive density at lateral borders of skull

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118
Q

what professional body protects the public

A

camrt,

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119
Q

the maximum length the enema tip can be inserted is

A

1 1/2” or 3.8cm

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120
Q

the teeth obscure the odontoid how do you reposition

A

tilt the head back or extend to align the upper incisiors with the base of the skull

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121
Q

protective clothing MUST provide attenuation equivalent to ————mm of lead at 150kvp

A

0.5

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122
Q

protective gloves MUST provide attenuation equivalent to ———mm lead at 150kvp

A

0.25

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123
Q

what professional body assists techs in education

A

camrt and mamrt

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124
Q

what is situs inversus

A

total or partial transposition of the body organs to the side opposite the normal

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125
Q

location of a PICC is

A

superior vena cava

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126
Q

location of a feeding tube is

A

at 1st part of duodenum

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127
Q

location of a NG tube is

A

stomach

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128
Q

location of a swan ganz tube is

A

right or left pulmonary artery

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129
Q

what is the angle and direction of CR for BE sigmoid shot if the patient is prone

A

30-40 caudad

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130
Q

choosing a grid for chest xray which is the best for 8:1 and 12:1 both focused

A

8: 1- portable because less critical to center
12: 1 best for high KVP above 80 because easier to center

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131
Q

what is situs inversus

A

total or partial transposition of the body organs to the side opposite the normal

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132
Q

what position best demonstrates pleural effusion of the right lung

A

right lateral decubitis

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133
Q

when using a grid what error causes an overall decreased density

A

off level or off center grid

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134
Q

what is diverticulitis

A

inflammation of diverticula, small blind pouches that form in the lining and wall of the colon

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135
Q

what is enteroclysis and what would you tell the patient when you are finished the exam

A

injection of the nutrient or medicinal liquid into the bowel for xray, a procedure in which contrast media is injected into the duodenum under fluro control for exam of the SI. after the procedure you must tell the patient not to eat or drink for a few hours as spray anthesthesia is used to inhibit gag reflex when intubating

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136
Q

after doing a 10 min IVU all the kidneys are well seen except the upper poles of both kidneys what would you do next

A

a xray during an IVU must include the entire outline of the kidneys and therefore 10min film must be repeated as soon as possible centered the appropriate amount higher to include the entire kidney

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137
Q

how should a agitated patient be approached

A

from the side not face to face

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138
Q

anatomical landmark for si jts is

A

1” above the ASIS lower costal margin of L4

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139
Q

anatomical landmark for T10 is

A

xiphoid tip

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140
Q

landmark for T4/5

A

sternal angle

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141
Q

anatomical landmark for C5

A

cricoid cartilage

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142
Q

image density affects tube current by

A

increase tube current you increase density and vice versa

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143
Q

image density affects increased SID by

A

decreasing density

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144
Q

image density affects increased field size

A

decreasing density

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145
Q

image density affects added filtration by

A

decreasing density

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146
Q

slower speed screen affects density by

A

decreasing density

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147
Q

smaller focal spot affects density by

A

no difference if done properly or may be less than 30% to alter image density

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148
Q

a diabetic foot may be associated with what bony pathology

A

bacterial osteomyelitis

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149
Q

rectifiers are used to convert high voltage AC currents to

A

DC currents

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150
Q

during angiography what is the rate of pulse control used for

A

found on the power injector designed to prevent sudden forceful injection

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151
Q

in CT by changing the window width you change the————– and by changing the window level you change the

A

contrast, center of the window of gray shades that will be displayed

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152
Q

what is the kedge of iodine and why is it significant when doing IVU’s

A

33kev there is an abrupt increase in radiographic absorption allows for the selection of technical factors during IVUs

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153
Q

`what vessels would you most likely find a berry aneurysm

A

usually at an angle bifurcation of the cerebral arteries

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154
Q

name 2 common types of ct detectors

A

scintillation and gas filled detectors

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155
Q

why is it important to know a patients creatine level before the injection of contrast

A

to check kidney function because injection of contrast is contraindicated by impaired kidney function

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156
Q

how is a radiation reading received from a TLD

A

the TLD sensing material (lithium fluoride) is heated to a high temperature to release trapped electrons in the form of visible light. the intensity of the light is proportional to the amount of radiation that interacted with the crystals

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157
Q

what is the air gap technique and how is it used

A

air gap technique is another method of reducing scatter radiation thereby enhancing image contrast. when the technique is used the IR is moved 10-15cm away fro the patient . SID may or may not be increased and technical factors must be increased. the air gap technique has found application in chest xrays and cerebral angiography

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158
Q

what vessel do the R and L vertebral arteries originate from

A

right and left subclavian arteries

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159
Q

how much must mAs be changed to see a difference in density

A

30% change

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160
Q

if a trauma patient has not had his or her neck cleared how do you turn this patient? how many people are needed

A

log roll-5 people are needed. 2 ppl stand at each side of the table/bed, one person keeps the head and neck immobilized, 2 assist with maintaining alignment of the torso and 2 with the legs. patients arms are across the chest, pillow between the knees, place a bolster where head will rest when the turn is complete, unison use a sheet to turn the patient as if a log keeping the head and neck and torso immobile during the move

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161
Q

what is the prep for outpatient BE?

A

low residue diet 2-3days prior, clear fluids only a day prior to the exam, laxative, colonic lavage if necessary

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162
Q

when doing a skull exam what is the most radiosensitive area

A

eyes

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163
Q

how is rotation assessed on the Caldwell view of the skull

A

equal distance from lateral border of skull to lateral border of orbit on both sides

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164
Q

what view best demonstrates Osgoode Schalatters disesase

A

lateral view of the affected knee

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165
Q

what radiographic position best demonstrates perforation of the intestines

A

upright or decubitis (dependent on patient) to show air level under the diaphragm or on raised flank

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166
Q

what kvp range is optimal for a abdomen and why

A

optimal is 60-75kvp to sufficiently penetrate the soft tissue and bony structures of the abdomen. this kvp enhances the subtle radiation absorption differences among the fat, gas, muscles, and solid organs which consist mainly of water

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167
Q

what joint is visible when patient is in an oblique supine position with CR 20-30degrees caudad? how would you demo these joints in the PA upright position (c-spine)

A

intervertebral foramen on the raised side as well as pedicles. to demo the PA upright position, angle cephalad and put side of interest closest to the film

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168
Q

notice a box of expired xray films what do you do with them

A

check base + fog if within the limits you may use the film as soon as possible. film must be used before its expiration date

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169
Q

skills necessary when working with mentally impaired

A

requires a thorough knowledge of equipment and immobilization techniques as well as interaction skills

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170
Q

skills necessary when working with children

A

patience, technical knowledge, understanding of pediatric patient, and effective use of communication skills and immobilization devices can assist in obtaining a quality image

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171
Q

what are the 4 associated heart abnormalities of the Tetralogy of Fallot

A

high ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding of the aortic orifice above the ventricular defect, right ventricular hypertrophy

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172
Q

T or F circuits with a low ripple produce more constant xray output

A

true

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173
Q

how is density affected when changing from a 400speed to 200 speed screen?

A

density is increased by a factor of 2 (halved)

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174
Q

what is the correct way to transfer a patient froma wheelchair to a table

A

if patient can assist, instruct them to push up with upper arm when told to do so. foot rests should be up and locks are engaged with the wheel chair at a 45 degree angle to the table, the patients strong side closest to the table, allow or help the patient to the edge of the wheel chair, on the count of 3 using both arms assist the patient to a sitting position on the table, move the wheelchair out of the way

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175
Q

what is the advantage of slip ring technology in ct

A

allows for continuous rotation of the xray tube possible by elmininating the cables between the gantry and the generators

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176
Q

what is spiral pitch ration in ct

A

also referred to as pitch is the relationship between the patient and couch movement and xray beam collimation
pitch= couch movement every 360 degrees (mm)
————————————————————–
slice thickness(mm)

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177
Q

T or F the combination of metformin and iodinated contrast can put the patient at risk for renal failure

A

true

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178
Q

what does agenesis man

A

absence of an organ due to nonappearance of its primordium in the embryo

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179
Q

what 4 vessels supply blood to the brain

A

right and left internal carotid arteries, right and left vertebral arteries

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180
Q

what color are ct numbers of +1000 and a ct number of -1000 and what type of tissue do each of these numbers represent

A

+1000- white bone

-1000 black air

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181
Q

put the following tissues in order of increasing CT numbers : bone, air, water, CSF, blood, muscle, clotted blood, fat, cartilage

A 
air-1000
fat -100
water 0
CSF 15
blood 20
cartilage 35
muscle 50
clotted blood 75
bone +1000
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182
Q

what test would be performed when changing the speed of films

A

linerarity test

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183
Q

patient can only dorsiflex 80 degrees for plantodorsal projection of calcaneus how do you adjust the CR

A

increase the angle 50 cepahald

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184
Q

what is the location of a boxers fracture

A

neck of 5th metacarpal

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185
Q

what does DNR mean in a chart

A

do not resuscitate

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186
Q

how much rotation of the foot is needed for an oblique view of the foot? is there an angle on the tube for the oblique foot?

A

30 rotation perpendicular to the CR

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187
Q

does a high grid ration have smaller or larger focusing range than a low ratio grid

A

smaller focusing range

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188
Q

can 2 grids with the same grid ratio have different amounts of lead content and which one is more efficient

A

yes- as the lead content of the grid increases the ability of the grid to remove scatter and improve contrast increases (dependent on grid frequency)

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189
Q

can a patient ever be allowed to get into a wheelchair unassisted

A

you should never allow a patient to get off the table or onto a wheelchair without some assistance

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190
Q

what is the normal body temperature

A

36-37 dependent where is taken

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191
Q

by mistake a 400 speed film screen system was used instead of a 200 speed film system. the technical factors set were for the 200 speed system. the density of the film will be affected how and by how much

A

density will be increased by a factor of 2 (doubled)

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192
Q

where is ct beam collimated

A

in ct scanning, there is usually 2 collimators one (prepatient) mounted on the xray tube housing adjacent to it and the other (postpatient) is between the patient and the detectors

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193
Q

a patient in the ER has a severe gash on their head would you remove the bandage before xraying

A

as a xray tech during trauma you should remove anything that can cause an artifact however you should not remove anything that could exacerbate the patient situation. therefore you should keep the bandage on for the xray if the blood loss would create further complications if removed and document this on the film bag

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194
Q

what rib attaches to the sternal angle

A

2nd rib

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195
Q

is having the tube pointing at the control booth okay

A

no control booth is a secondary barrier not primary

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196
Q

what must be included on an AP projection of the thumb

A

from distal tip of thumb to trapezium

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197
Q

what sphincter allows food to pass into the duodenum

A

pyloric sphincter

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198
Q

when doing a mobile chest in CCU what do you tell visiting family

A

smile and briefly explain the procedure with extra attention when delays occur is acceptable. ask them to politely leave when taking the xray. if interpretation of images is asked tell the family the findings are available to the referring physician and only he or she can provide the information to them

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199
Q

what is best demonstrated in the LAO view of the cspine

A

left intervertebral foramina and pedicles

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200
Q

when xraying the pelvis, a 45 caudal angle is used what is the name of this view and what does is best demonstrate

A

anteroposterior axial “outlet” projection of the pelvis shows the pubic rami without foreshorting

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201
Q

what are the symptoms of hypoglycemia and how is it treated in a radiography room

A

intense hunger, weakness, shaky, excessive sweat, confused, irritable, mild hostility. glucose tablets, sugar water, orange juice, never administer food to an unconscious patient

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202
Q

is the tib fib visualized anywhere on a patellar view

A

no

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203
Q

standards of practice was developed by

A

college of medical radiation technologists for the protection of the public

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204
Q

according to the S and P all requistions must include

A

patients name, birth, date, time of requisition, procedure requested, legiable signature of requester and their designation

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205
Q

surgical procedure done when a patient is diagnosed with a pneumothorax is an insertion of a

A

chest tube

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206
Q

CR direction and angle and center pointe for townes view is

A

direction caudad
angle 30 oml, 37 ioml
center- 7.3 cm above glabella passing though EAM

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207
Q

safety code is prepared by

A

radiation protection bureau, Ottawa canada

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208
Q

the aim of radiation protection bureau is to minimize dose to the

A

patient and personnel

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209
Q

name the carpal bones medial to lateral

A

medial pisiform, triquetrum, lunate, scaphoid, trapezium

hamate, capitate, trapezoid

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210
Q

how do you assess mobility in a wheelchair patient

A

deviations from correct body alignment, immobility or limitations in range of joint movement, respiratory, cardiovascular, metabolic and musculoskeletal problems, condiction, understanding, accepatance to move , medical hx

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211
Q

how is the male urethra best demonstrated in a voiding cystogram

A

anterior oblique view- RPO or LPO position. places the penis along soft tissue of the medial side of the lower thigh to obtain uniform density of both the deep and cavernous portions of the urethral canal

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212
Q

what 2 body areas are examined in BMDs?

A

lumbar spine and hips

213
Q

what are 2 common causes of film coming out of the processor damp

A

fixer- depletion or lack of hardner

wash tank- saturation or insufficient fresh water

214
Q

where would a vesicovaginal fistula be found

A

between the bladder and the vagina

215
Q

what are symptoms of pulmonary emboli

A

80% of patient with PE have no symptoms

216
Q

what is the tube angle in relation to the lower leg which demonstrate intercondylar notch

A

perpendicular

217
Q

why is contrast necessary when doing some ct exams

A

to distinguish normal anatomy from pathology, make various dieases processes more visable, oral contrast to see between loops of bowel and other structures within the abdomen

218
Q

name the sinuses demonstrated on the lateral view of the skull

A

all 4 frontal, maxillary, ethmoid, sphenoid

219
Q

what is the normal rate of respiration for an adult

A

15-20 breathes per minute

220
Q

what 2 tools are used or required to produce characteristic curve when comparing 2 different types of film? what are their purpose?

A

sensitometer- optical step wedge gives the range of densities on the film
densitometer- a device that measures the optical density

221
Q

what carpal bone is susceptible to avascular necrosis and why

A

scaphoid blood enters from distal portion of carpal bone and can get cut off when the bone is fractured
loss of blood supply results in avascular necrosis

222
Q

where is the needle inserted in a shoulder arthrogram

A

1/2” inferior (1.3cm) and lateral to the coracoid process into the joint capsule

223
Q

radiographic signs of crohns disease

A

aphthous ulcers, cobblestone appearance, fistulas, skip lesions, string sign

224
Q

for radiation safety at what point of exposure (% of MPD) are radiation workers worried about exposure and need to take medical action to reduce their occupation exposure

A

5% of MPD

225
Q

optimum kvp range for IVP after injection and why

A

75kvp because subject contrast is increased due to addition of radiopaque contrast material

226
Q

define hydronephrosis

A

dilation of renal pelvicalceal system due to blockage above the level of the bladder

227
Q

what MUST be recorded on a requisition after an injection

A

how much, name of contrast, time and date injected, name and signature of personnel who injected the contrast

228
Q

the LPO position best demonstrated which distal ureter

A

right distal ureter

229
Q

T or F linear tube movement is used for renal tomograms

A

false

230
Q

what is the purpose of squeegee rollers

A

to remove excess water from the film after the wash stage of processing

231
Q

what is cholelithaisis

A

presence of gallstones

232
Q

what type of beam is used by a laser imager (printer) to expose the film

A

red laser beam

233
Q

ring artifact in ct on the image would indicate

A

single detector or bank of detector malfunction

234
Q

allowing a patient to fall off a stretcher because you neglected to put the side rails up is an example of

A

negligence

235
Q

what is an example of professional misconduct

A

abuse/use of unnecessary drugs during a shift which reduces quality of patient care (A & C)

236
Q

weight/ volume of a barium for a single contrast GI

A

30-50%

237
Q

weight/ volume of barium for a double contrast GI

A

up to 250%

238
Q

x table lateral knee film against medial side of knee and direction of angle is

A

caudad towards the foot

239
Q

you are asked to do a coned down bladder shot on a male give the center point and angle of direction

A

center- 1” (2.5cm) above ASIS
angle- 15 degrees
direction- caudad

240
Q

how do you asses AP mobility of the cspine and why is it necessary

A

lateral view of cspine in hyperflexion and extension done to demo normal ap movement or absence of movement resulting from trauma or disease (before surgery for anaesthesiologist to see if intubation is possible)

241
Q

what is the role of the radiation protection officer

A

oversee the programs daily operation and provide for its formal review each year; developing appropriate radiation safety programs for the facility also has a responsibility for maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel

242
Q

what 3 vessels form the celiac axis and where is it located

A

common gastric artery, left gastric artery, splenic artery. located beneath the diaphragm at T12

243
Q

why should a chest xray kvp on a child not exceed 90kvp?

A

any higher of a kvp would result in a very low mas which in turn results in quantum mottle which can look like pathology pneumonia on a peds chest

244
Q

during enteroclysis procedure the tube is inserted into the nose to find destination before what procedure is started

A

duodenojejunal flexure neal the ligament of treitz

245
Q

what 2 contrast agents are used for enteroclysis

A

barium and air or methyl cellulose

246
Q

give post care instructions for a patient following enteroclysis

A

do NOT eat or drink for 2-3 hrs post procedure as throat anesthesis is used to reduce gag reflex

247
Q

what part of the xray tube controls penumbra

A

focal spot

248
Q

give patient position and angle and direction of CR for apical views of chest

A

lordotic- perpendicular to CR
pa axial- patient is positioned as normal for CXR PA 10-15 degrees cephalad
ap axial- patient is upright or supine15-20 degrees cephalad

249
Q

who is in charge of radiation protection during an exam

A

technologist

250
Q

can a pregnant technologist work anywhere in the department

A

no- appropriate steps must be taken to ensure that her work duties during the remainder oft the pregnancy are compatible with accepted maximum radiation exposure. this may mean time in high dose areas like fluro rooms may be reduced

251
Q

to best demonstrate the iliac wing how would you position the patient

A

position the patient with the affected side down in a posterior oblique

252
Q

to best demonstrate the left SI jt would you choose the RPO, RAO, LPO or AP position with the CR perpendicular

A

RPO

253
Q

which condition would you most often take inspiration and expiration films for

A

pneumothroax

254
Q

T or F pneumonia will appear on a xray as an area of decreased lung markings and increased density

A

F- decreased density

255
Q

what position should place your patient with epitaxis

A

nose bleed- patient should sit up with the head tilted back and the soft portion of the nose grasped firmly between the thumb and forefinger

256
Q

what is a salter harris fracture

A

fracture through the epiphysis (growth plate) of a child

257
Q

what is the MPD per year for a student

A

1msv

258
Q

what is the MPD for a technologist

A

20msv

259
Q

what is the MPD for general public

A

1msv

260
Q

what is the MPD for a pregnant tech

A

4msv

261
Q

what is the MPD for the eye

A

150msv

262
Q

what is the MPD for skin and hands feet

A

500msv

263
Q

what is the MPD for the lens of the eye

A

150msv

264
Q

ER patient has arrived with no backboard the patient is not to flex or move their back and needs to be moved to the xray table how is this done

A

log roll to move the patient onto a sliding board transfer the patient using the slider board

265
Q

enema tip should be directed

A

1” or 2.5cm toward the umbilicus

266
Q

according to the standards of practice each film must be marked with the patients name

A

medical number, date, time , hospital facility name

267
Q

according to the scope of practice every female patient between ages ———- &————- is asked whether there is any chance of pregnancy

A

11 & 55

268
Q

according to the standards of practice if the patient has to be rescheduled you must ensure that the patient is informed of the

A

time & date & location of the next appointment

269
Q

according to the standards of practice the technologist must give the patient an opportunity to ask questions and provide questions within the scope of their responsibility and refer patients questions to

A

their referring physicians if it is beyond their scope of practice

270
Q

difference between pulmonary edema vs pulmonary emboli

A

pulmonary edema- abnormal acculmulation of fluid in the extra vascular pulmonary tissues
pulmonary embolism- occlusion of pulmonary vessels by an embolus or emboli

271
Q

a pregnant mother wants to stand by her child in the pig-o-stat and will wear a lead apron is this accepatable

A

no- the lead apron only stops 95% of the primary radiation therefore putting the fetus at risk if she wishes to stay nearby where she can see her child the only option would be to stand behind the control panel

272
Q

how do you check for allergies on an in patient

A

check with their medical chart if it is not included call the nurses station where they came from it does not hurt to also ask the patient to verify the information you received

273
Q

what is the CR angle direction and entry point to demonstrate TM jts

A

AP AXIAL PROJECTION- 35 degrees caudad, 3” above the nasion
AXIOLATERAL VIEW- 30 caudad, 1/2” anterior and 2” superior to upside EAM
AXIOLATERAL OBLIQUE VIEW- 15 caudad 1 1/2” superior to upside of EAM

274
Q

when xraying a AP lumbar spine why are the knees bent

A

to reduce the lumbar curvature in order for the intervertebral joints to be well seen

275
Q

film contrast depends on 4 main areas which are

A

kvp, grid ratio, beam restriction, IR used

276
Q

define intussception

A

telescoping of one part of the intestine into an adjoining section causing intestional obstruction

277
Q

how will tube current applied kvp, target material and filtration affect the quality of the xray beam

A

tube current- affects the quantity of radiation in the beam and therefore how much radiation is in the beam affects the quality of the beam
kvp- as kvp increases a wider range of photon energies is produced
target material-affects interactions that produce xrays due to atomic number
filtration- changes the average photon energy of the beam

278
Q

what does a prone view of the GI exam of the stomach demonstrate

A

stomach spreads horizontally and the pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are well demonstrated in patients with an asthenic or a hyposthenic body habitus

279
Q

give an example of a transitional vertebra

A

lumbarization SI becomes like a 6th lumbar vertebrae or sacralization L5 becomes fused with the sacrum

280
Q

what vertebral level would you find the most kidneys

A

normally extend from the level of the superior border of T12 to the level of the transverse process of L3 in persons with sthenic bulid

281
Q

which 2 quality control tests should be done BEFORE a linearity test

A

kvp accuracy and reproducibility

282
Q

excessive prep time increases the filament boost which will increase filament evaporation and in turn will increase the deposits on the

A

glass envelope interfering with the electron flow and decrease efficiency of xray production

283
Q

what is best demonstrated on the LAO of the L-spine

A

right zygapophyseal jts

284
Q

subject contrast depends on 3 main areas

A

patient thickness, tissue density, effective atomic number

285
Q

what is road mapping in angiography

A

technique in which a static image of contrast filled vessel allows the radiologist to see the guidewire or balloon catheter

286
Q

why is inspiration / expiration views ordered for possible aspirated FB

A

air becomes trapped on the affected side and cannot escape there fore inspiration views will appear normal but will appear abnormal on expiration affected lung will not deflate

287
Q

what are some signs of an allergic reaction

A

rash, hives, urticaria, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, pallor, cough, warmth, shaking,flushing, nasal stuffiness, swelling(eyes & face) itching and sweats

288
Q

how would a xray appear if when exposing the patient the wrong bucky was selected

A

to dark/ increased density if using AEC

289
Q

in the construction of the film what is the purpose of the gelatin layer

A

provides a ridged structure to suspend the silver ions in, flexiable resistant to allow easy handling

290
Q

what is a normal adult pulse rate per minute

A

60-90 beats per minute in rested state

291
Q

when doing a mammogram exam what is best demonstrated by the MLO position

A

axillary tail and lymph nodes of affected breast

292
Q

how do you compensate when doing a 5 x 5” coned view from a 14 x 17” field of view to maintain the same density

A

increase mAs by a factor of 9.5

293
Q

which body habitus shows the biggest change in stomach position when moving from the supine to the upright position

A

asthenic

294
Q

why do you lower a fainting patient to the floor and elevate their feet

A

to get blood supply to the brain so their is no permanent damage done and consciousness is regained

295
Q

while doing a portable chest you accidentally pull out a line what do you do

A

apply pressure to insertion site and call for assistance (nurse) may have to fill out incident report

296
Q

give three contraindications for compression during a IVU

A

urinary stones, abdominal mass, aneurysm, colostomy, suprapubic catheter, trauma

297
Q

what grid error has occurred when the film light is on one side and dark on the other

A

off center and off focus combined

298
Q

what area of sterile gown is considered sterile

A

only the parts of a sterile gown considered sterile are the areas from the waist to the shoulders infront and the sleeves from 2” above the elbow to the cuffs

299
Q

T or F an image that displays vignetting will be dim around the periphery

A

true

300
Q

giver proper way to transfer patient with a back / neck injury

A

log roll onto transfer board then use the slider board to transfer the patient

301
Q

why are high frequency transformers the choice of new xray equipment

A

smaller, improved image quality at a lower patient dose

302
Q

why is a 72” SID necessary for a PA chest xray

A

to minimize magnification of the heart and to obtain greater recorded detail of the delicate lung structures

303
Q

what is a ureterocele

A

ballooning of the lower end of the ureter into the bladder

304
Q

increased humidity in the darkroom will cause the films to

A

fog

305
Q

privacy act states that the patient is entitled to privacy how does the where who and what apply when taking a patients history

A

where- in a private location where you cannot be overheard
who- medical professionals those associated with the exam
what- information pertinent to the exam

306
Q

an ER stretcher patients leg is medially rotated 15 the leg cannot be moved do you angle the tube 30 degrees medially or laterally to open up the proximal tibia articulation

A

medially

307
Q

the four D’s of epiglottitis

A

dysphagia, dysphonia, dyspnea, drooling

308
Q

what cranial bones are demonstrated on the 15 degree occipitofrontal projection

A

frontal bone

309
Q

the maximum permissible entrance skin exposure for an AP projection of the lumbar spine is

A

500mr

310
Q

the AEC back up timer must cut off at

A

3sec or 600mas

311
Q

name the 4 boarders of the mediastinum

A

sternum anterior
spine posterior
right lung lateral
left lung lateral

312
Q

what is the purpose of the thymus

A

produces several hormones important for the development and maintanace of normal immunological defenses

313
Q

what age group is the thymus most predominant

A

those children who have not yet reached puberty

314
Q

which exam has the highest gonadal dose lspine, BE, abdomen or GI

A

barium enema

315
Q

is the ESE the same as absorbed dose

A

NO-
entrance skin exposure is the quantity of radiation given in SI units of coulombs per KG or traditional units of roentgens incident upon an object backscatter radiation is excluded
absorbed dose- the deposition of energy per unit mass by ionizing radiation in the patients body tissue. this absorbed energy is responsible for whatever biologic damage occurs as a result of tissues being exposed to x-radiation

316
Q

what is the inverse square law

A

exposure from an xray tube

317
Q

secondary barrier is only required to attenuate the——————————-. the primary beam should not be directed toward the barrier

A

secondary radiation leakage and scatter

318
Q

difference between genetic and stochastic effects of radiation

A

genetic effects- biologic effects of ionizing radiation yet unborn
stochastic effects- mutational non threshold, randomly occurring biologic effects somatic changes in which the chance of occurance of the effect rather than the severity of the effect is proportional to the dose of ionizing radiaton

319
Q

what is atelectasis

A

a collapsed lung or airless state of lung

320
Q

the primary factor controlling contrast is

A

kvp

321
Q

why is it necessary to show soft tissue on a lateral cspine

A

to ensure that the prevertebral fat stripe is included on anterior surfaces on vertebrae, if widening of space between the vertebrae surface and fat stripe occurs it may indicate a fracture, mass and inflammation

322
Q

what is the trendelenburg position

A

the table of bed is inclined with the patient head lower than the rest of the body

323
Q

mrs smith is pregnant has arrived at the ER. she has broken her distal tib-fib on the initial film you have included the fracture and the joint closest to the fracture- do you need to include the other joint and increase her exposure

A

no include only area of interest by carefully collimating

324
Q

does kvp affect both contrast and density

A

yes- you increase kvp and decrease contrast a 15%, increase kvp doubles the density

325
Q

if you have a complaint about a radiologist what body do you contact

A

college of physicians and surgeons

326
Q

how do you demonstrate the left UV junction

A

turn the patient on the unaffected side (RPO)

327
Q

what is the most common injection site for a myelogram

A

spinal puncture most commonly at the L2-L3 or L3/L4 interspace

328
Q

how is the image released on a CR IR

A

from exposure to a high intensity laser beam

329
Q

T or F subcutaneous emphysema can be the result of a pneumothroax

A

false- it is caused by penetrating or blunt injuries

330
Q

what is the chemical name for Buscopan

A

butylscipolaminomium bromide (anticholinergic drug)

331
Q

what is spina bifia and what are the signs and symptoms

A

posterior defect in the spinal canal resulting from failure of posterior elements to fuse properly

332
Q

milder form of spina bifida is

A

spina bifida occulta- spiltting of the bony neural canal at L5-S1 level

333
Q

more severe form of spina bifida

A

when a heriniation of the meniges or the a portion of the mengies and spinal cord protrude through may be asymptomatic

334
Q

when is Buscopan contraindicated and what can be used instead

A

when the patient has glaucoma or cardiac conditions - glucagon can be used instead

335
Q

what causes the ball bearings to wear in the xray tube

A

rotor prep time (melts the bearings)

336
Q

what is syncope and how do you treat it

A

syncope- fainting

treat- have the patient lie down if dizzy; place them in a supine position with the legs elevated if syncope has occured

337
Q

how does stroke show on a CT scan

A

triangular or wedge shaped area of hypodensity

338
Q

what is the threshold dose below which no genetic effects can occur

A

there is no presumed threshold dose below which they can occur CAN HAPPEN WITH ANY DOSE

339
Q

what is a Monteggia fracture

A

isolated fracture of the shaft of the ulna with a associated with anterior dislocation of the radius below the elbow

340
Q

definition of a blow out fracture

A

fracture of the orbital floor just above the maxillary sinus caused by a direct blow to the front of the orbit that causes a rapid increase in intra orbital pressure

341
Q

low humidity will cause what marks on film

A

static

342
Q

on the oblique lumbar spine what are the eyes of the scotty dogs

A

pedicles of the lspine

343
Q

what is the tube housing made of and its purpose

A

the protective housing is made of cast stell andis capable of absorbing most of the unwanted photons. the housing is usually lined with lead for additional absorption only at the cathode end because the direction of photons being emitted from the anode. the housing also serves as an electrical shock protector and cushion from the xray tube from rough handling

344
Q

when doing a townes skull the patients head is extended 10 degrees off the perpendicular OML how would you adjust the CR

A

use a 40 caudad angle instead of 30 caudad (difference between the OML and IOML plus 3 degrees)

345
Q

difference between a hickmann catheter and a PICC line

A

hickmann catheter- tunnel type central venous catheter

PICC line- may be peripherally inserted into the patients arm and advanced until its tip lies in a central vein

346
Q

what landmark for cricoid cartilage

A

C4-C5

347
Q

what is a nephrogram and why is it important

A

xray of the renal parenchyma when the “blushed” with contrast shows the function of the renal parenchyma

348
Q

what are the 3 main components of the characteristic curve

A

toe, straight line portion, shoulder

349
Q

according to SC 35 the xray beam must be limited to the size of the ————— or smaller

A

IR

350
Q

location of the ET tube

A

5-7cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)

351
Q

can you give the patient his or her chart to read? who can

A

no- their physician can discuss the contents with them

352
Q

to do a portable chest on a ummunosuppressed / immunocomprimised patient isolation procedure to use is

A

protective

353
Q

right lateral stomach best demonstrated an unobstructed view of the

A

duodenal bulb in a single contrast , duodenojejunal area and the right retrogastric space

354
Q

fluro timer maximum setting should not exceed

A

5min

355
Q

what alteration would be done for a pregnant patient

A

minimum amount of views are done to reduce the dose

356
Q

during the reduction (development) process what is the silver halide converted to

A

metallic silver

357
Q

how does the developer differentiate between the exposed and unexposed crystals

A

unexposed silver halide crystal has a negative electrostatic charge distributed over its entire surface.
exposed silver halide crystal has a negative electrostatic charge distributed over its surface except in the region of the sensitivity center

358
Q

why is started added to fresh developing solution

A

to match the composition of the fresh solution to that which is in the tanks so that the films do not begin coming out with excessive density (match pH, solutes etc)

359
Q

how does the development solution temperature affect the process? too hot and the films are ———— too cold and the films are too

A

dark, light

360
Q

the correct temperature for a developer solution is

A

92-96F for a 90 sec automatic processor (33-35C)

361
Q

what is the pH of the developer

A

10-10.5 and the fixer 4-4.5

362
Q

list 5 constituents of the fixer excluding the solvent and their function

A

clearing agent- clears the film of exposed silver halides
activator- enhances the function of the clearing agent
preservative- permits the clearing agent to continue its function
hardener- prevents scratches and abrasions
buffer- maintains Ph

363
Q

what is diachroic fog

A

term generally applied to all chemicals stains, diachroic meaning 2 colors caused by improper or inadequate processing chemistry or chemistry not properly squeezed from the film

364
Q

what are 4 methods used to demonstrate a hiatus hernia

A

breathing exercises, water test, compression technique, toe touch maneuver

365
Q

are most intravenous contrast agents a low or high osmolarity today

A

low

366
Q

during sugury how do you pass a sterile nurse

A

back to back

367
Q

if the tech touches a patient without permission what complaint could be brought against the tech

A

battery

368
Q

what is the difference between the photospot (film) camera and radiographic spot film

A

photospot- similar to a movie camera except that it exposes only 1 frame when acitivated
spot film- is placed between the patient and II and encased in a lead lined shield until needed

369
Q

the photospot film camera receives its information from the light from the output phosphor of the II where does the spot film receive its information

A

directly from the xray beam

370
Q

what is reverse isolation when finished the exam do you clean the machine

A

protects the patient with decreased immunity fromt he hospital personnel or ther patients you do NOT need to clean the machine afterward but must do so before the exam

371
Q

when doing an exam on an immunosuppressed patient with 2 techs who is the clean tech and who is the dirty tech

A

clean tech- tech in immediate contact with the patient
dirty tech- tech who touches the surface that may ne contaminated so that these contaminations are not in contact with the patient

372
Q

immunosuppressed patient asks for a Kleenex who should give it to them the clean or dirty tech

A

clean tech

373
Q

when doing an abdominal angiogram where does the catheter sit when doing the flush

A

at level of T12

374
Q

what is the purpose of a flush during a abdominal angiogram

A

to assess the nature and number and course of the great vessels extending from the aorta; employed to rule out the presence of aneurysms, congential anomalies, stenosis, or occulsions

375
Q

what wears the anode of the tube

A

excessive temperature- melting & pitting
temperature increases too rapidly- anode can crack
bearing damage- electrons focused into one spot on the anode
excessive use of the small focal spot- increased wear on smaller area of the anode

376
Q

the effective focal spot is controlled by the anode target angle and the

A

actual focal spot which is controlled by the filament lenght

377
Q

the smaller the target angle the smaller the effective focal spot and the better the

A

resolution

378
Q

which stomach position demonstrates the fundus full of barium and un obstructed view of the duodenal bulb

A

LPO

379
Q

when lifting your center of gravity is always over

A

the base of support

380
Q

a grids primary function is to improve what

A

contrast

381
Q

what distance should the sternum be depressed on an adult during CPR?

A

1 1/2 to 2”

382
Q

what is off focus radiation (extra focal radiation)

A

electrons bounce off the focal spot and land on the other areas of the target, causing xrays to be produced from outside the focal spot

383
Q

how is off focus radiation controlled

A

by using a fixed diaphragm in the tube housing near the window of the xray tube another effective solution is the metal envelope of the xray tube

384
Q

which drug will relieve pain without loss of consciouness

A

analgesic

385
Q

there are 3 possible processor faults that could occur if the film contrast is too high list them

A
  1. decreased developer temperature
  2. decreased developer immersion time
  3. less developer contamination (replenishment too pungent)
386
Q

how many ribs are visible on the AP/PA projection of the ribs

A

for ribs above the diapharm (expiration) 1-12th

for ribs below the diapharm (inspiration) 8-12th

387
Q

who is responsible for the conscent

A

radiographer

388
Q

what is a TIA

A

transient ischemic attack

389
Q

what are the symptoms of a TIA

A

headache, dizziness, drowniess, mental confusion, caused by atherosclerotic plaques, most commonly plaque at the bifurcation of the carotid artery can happen during sleep or when awakened

390
Q

what are 3 important parameters do the daily sensitometric strips check?

A

fog, speed, contrast

391
Q

in relation to DR/CR imaging what is a histogram

A

histogram is a bar graph which may provide useful diagnostic data in some instances. software is available to produce theses graphs by HU and times vs motion

392
Q

what is the purpose of universal precautions

A

prevent transmission of disease by body fluids and substances

393
Q

after doing a portable chest, you notice different lines your radiograph, which lines and tubes could you move? O2, IV, CVP

A

you can move the O2 tube and intravenous IV supply tube off the chest however the CVP cannot be moved as it is in the patient

394
Q

what is the last task in the startup of the processor

A

obtain the sensitometer strip and graph results

395
Q

what is the temperature of the developer

A

33-35C for a 90second automatic processor

396
Q

give 4 factors that will enhance subject contrast on an image

A

decrease kvp
increase difference between adjacent thickness of body parts
decrease the field size, decrease the body thickness
addition of contrast media (higher atomic #)

397
Q

if a fellow technologist is talking about something personal what they did last night infront of the patient what would you do

A

confidentiality- as the radiographer you must not disclose facts concerning the patients health or other personal information

398
Q

how do you decrease quantum mottle

A

increase the amount of xrays reaching the IR by increasing mAs, kvp, or choosing slower flim.screen combination

399
Q

T or F sterilization uses either heat or chemicals and destroys all microorganims

A

true

400
Q

can a nurse with an extended class order an acute abdomen series

A

no- only authorized are to order xrays of the chest, ribs, arms, wrists, hand, leg, ankle and foot or mammograms

401
Q

what can a nurse with an extended class order?

A

chest, ribs, arm, wrist, hand, leg, ankle, foot, mammogram

ultrasound- abdomen, pelvis, breast

402
Q

what is a medical directive

A

pertain to treatment of preferences and the designation of surrogate decision maker in the event that a person should become unable to make the medical decisions on their own behalf

403
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of shock

A

restlessness, apprehension, general anxiety, tachycardia, decreasing blood pressure, cold, clammy skin, pallor

404
Q

which method of drug administration will provide the fastest response

A

intravenous

405
Q

is Compton scatter affected by atomic number

A

no

406
Q

is Compton scatter affected by photon energy

A

yes

407
Q

why is graphite used as a backing for the anode disc

A

to move the heat away from the surface of the anode and works as the heat sink because of high melting point and low thermal conductivitiy

408
Q

who can order xrays

A

dental surgeons, medical practitioner, osteopath, chiropractors

409
Q

what are black crescent marks on the film caused by

A

kinking of the film

410
Q

if you cannot find a translator for a patient for a BE what should you do

A

ask a family member or close relative that speaks English to translate

411
Q

what should the processor temperature be

A

developer- 33-35C
fixer-20C
wash-5 or 3C lower than the other solutions

412
Q

what does PACS mean

A

picture archive communicaton system

413
Q

what kvp should be used to achieve low contrast

A

high kvp

414
Q

another way to define low contrast is to say

A

long scale contrast

415
Q

when xraying a supracondylar fracture what should be in contact with the film the humerus or the elbow

A

humerus

416
Q

why is carbon dioxide used for BE?

A

because it is more rapily absorbed than the nitrogen air

417
Q

when positioning an inpatient her hand is pinched in the bucky and the skin is broken . what 2 places would show the documentation of this

A

patients record as well as administrative incident report

418
Q

what grid error has occurred if the center portion of the film is adequate but the periphery is light

A

upside down grid error

419
Q

what area does the sterile corridor refer to

A

area between the patient drape and the instrument table

420
Q

give the catheter tip location for a percutaneous nephrostogram

A

renal pelvis

421
Q

what type of gas is produced when granules are given during a GI series

A

carbon dioxide

422
Q

is a cathartic the same as a laxative

A

yes a laxative with a mild or gentle effect on the bowels is aka aperient one with a strong effect is referred to as a cathartic or purgative

423
Q

T or F to change a patient who has had a stroke you always take the clothes off the unaffected side first

A

true

424
Q

according to torres how often should a MRT assess a trauma patient while they are in the imaging department

A

every 5-10min

425
Q

what causes the filament vaporization in the tube

A

excessive rotor prep time

426
Q

where would you find Meckels DIverticulum

A

in the ileum

427
Q

T or F the technologist has no control over the mA selection when using a falling load generator

A

true

428
Q

if you are about to start CPR which artery should be used to assess pulse?

A

carotid artery

429
Q

what is ataxia?

A

incoordination occurring in the absence of apraxia, paresis, rigity, spasticity or involuntary movement

430
Q

for enteric precautions are masks required

A

no (contact precautions)

431
Q

describe the most accurate method of measuring leg lenght

A

take CT localizer or scout images of the femurs and tibias. measure between joints using the software option most accurate way to measure 3 times and take an average

432
Q

the axiolateral view of the manible best demonstrates what

A

whatever region of the mandible that is parallel to the IR (ramus, body or symphysis)

433
Q

give the patient position and angle of the tube for axiolateral view of the manible

A

ramus- patients head in true lateral
body- rotate the head 30 degrees twd the IR
symphysis- rotate the head 45 twd the IR
angle- 25 cephald

434
Q

what is legge perthes disease?

A

osteochondrosis of the epiphysis of the head of the femur (due to interference of blood supply)

435
Q

when mixing fresh chemicals for a processor, list 2 chemicals solutions that the tech should use to mix the developer solution

A

developer solution, starter solution

436
Q

what is a disadvantage of a capacitor discharge mobile unit

A

limits available xray tube current and results in falling kvp during the exposure and there is a chance of continued xray emission

437
Q

for the 10 degree caudad projection of the coccyx where is the coccyx demonstrated above or below the symphysis

A

above

438
Q

what type of exam do you do with a single phase generator

A

8 year old enema

439
Q

what type of contrast is used for a possible perforated stomach

A

water soluable iodinated

440
Q

why is a ERCP performed

A

to diagnose biliary and pancreatic pathologic conditions as well as treat them

441
Q

what is the sims position

A

patient lies either left or right side down with the forward arm flexed and the posterior arm extended behind the body. the body is inclined slightly forward with the top knee bent sharply and the bottom knee slightly nemt

442
Q

what is the purpose of the reflective layer of the intensifying screen

A

intercepts light headed in other directions and redirects it to the film

443
Q

why is the base color of the xray film usually blue

A

reduces the eyestrain for the interpreting radiolodist

444
Q

when performing a shoulder exam what is the patient position to best demonstrate the glenoid fossa

A

posterior oblique of the affected side, RPO or LPO

445
Q

TLD worn under the lead apron measures the

A

absorbed dose

446
Q

TLD worn above the lead apron measures the

A

effective dose

447
Q

give the steps to properly bunny wrap a baby

A

fold a large sheet, place top of sheet at the childs shoulders and bottom at the childs feet, leave the greater portion of the sheet at one side of the child, bring the longer side back over the arm and under the body and other arm, then bring the sheet over the exposed arm and under the body again

448
Q

after a mild reaction the doctor wants to admister an antihistamine what would it be

A

benadryl

449
Q

what is the purpose of hydroquinone in the development solution

A

responsible for black shades on the xray

450
Q

there is a DNR on the chart during a IVP the patient has a heart attack what should you do?

A

call the radiologist that injected

451
Q

the rate of replishment in automatic processor depends on primarly the

A

area of film processed

452
Q

ability of the xray to form a distinct image of 2 or more objects located close together is

A

resolution

453
Q

according to sc30 unexposed film must be stored so that no film receives more than

A

0.2 mr of stray radiation before use

454
Q

to low humidity in a darkroom causes

A

static

455
Q

too high humidty in a darkroom causes

A

fog

456
Q

when handling a urinary drainage bag it is important not to allow urine to flow back to the bladder because this could cause

A

urinary tract infection

457
Q

film is placed ____________ to the femoral neck when doing a cross table lateral hip

A

parallel

458
Q

AEC cell was not changed after doing a PA chest xray. how will the lateral appear

A

underexposed (light)

459
Q

when is a small bowel follow through completed

A

when barium reaches the ileoceceal value

460
Q

what is best film screen combination for rheaumatoid arthritis

A

200 speed at 55-60kvp

461
Q

which position best demonstrates the hepatic flexure on the DC colon series

A

left posterior oblique

462
Q

contamination of the developer will cause the film to

A

fog

463
Q

increased density or blurring of an area on the film will caused

A

poor film screen contact

464
Q

a patient needs the following exams US, IVP, GI, BE

A

do in US, IVP, GI, BE

465
Q

can a pregnant patient have an IVP

A

no ultrasound is better

466
Q

what should be done if you observe a co worker touching a patient incorrectly

A

tell the supervising charge technologist who may take it to the manager and or human resources

467
Q

what is the angle used for bladder shot of male and female

A

25/40

468
Q

what is the most likely radiation induced effect on a fetus in the 1st trimester

A

CNS damage if the dose is more than 200msv death

469
Q

blood or body fluid has been spilled what can be used to clean it up

A

clean with a disinfectant

470
Q

there is a vertical # of the patella can a skyline be done

A

yes

471
Q

what instrument is used to measure reproducibility

A

radiation dosimeter

472
Q

what is the difference between repeat and rejected film

A

repeat- poor film caused by the radiographer error positioning, technique, centering etc
reject- poor film that occurred unrelated to human error processor

473
Q

how is repeat rate calculated

A

as a % of the total number of images produced during a period of the study

total number of repeats
_____________________
total number of images produced

474
Q

what is the safe infusion rate for IV drip for a patient without an order

A

15-20 per minute

475
Q

what is the safe oxygen rate for a patient without an order

A

oxygen is considered a medication and must be prescribed

476
Q

is bleach a disinfectant

A

yes

477
Q

is alcohol a disinfectant

A

yes

478
Q

what line is primarily used for long term drug therapy

A

epidural catheter

479
Q

what CR angle is needed for the plantodorsal projection of the calcaneus given the foot is in a 90 degree flexion

A

40 cephalad

480
Q

how do you best communicate with a child

A

face to face using a soft tone of voice and speaking in terms that are simple and familiar

481
Q

why are vital signs taken before an intraarterial injection of contrast

A

for baseline values

482
Q

what factors affect the intensity of the xray beam

A

kvp, mas, distance, filtration, target material, voltage waveform

483
Q

kvp must be accurate with in

A

+/- 5% of selected kvp

484
Q

the quality of the xray beam is chiefly governed by

A

kvp

485
Q

to demonstrate the SI jts in the AP position give the amt of patient rotation and the center point

A

25-30, 1” medial to the elevated ASIS

486
Q

after an IVP injection you notice swelling at the injection site what should be done

A

apply pressure and cold cloth to the site and monitor the patient for an allergic reaction

487
Q

why must the elbow be flexed 90 degrees for the lateral elbow

A

elbow fat pads are least compressed in this position

488
Q

major source of scatter radiation occurs where

A

patient

489
Q

if the exposure detector lies over the center for the PA chest projection what will be the result on the image

A

over exposed dark and increased density

490
Q

what do you do if an exam is ordered and you are unsure of the routine

A

check the department technique routine manual

491
Q

what kvp would be used to achieve high contrast

A

low kvp or short scale contrast

492
Q

why must a knee not be flexed more than 20-39 for the lateral knee

A

the position relaxes the muscles and shows the maximum volume of the joint cavity

493
Q

if the film is processed in the fixer too long the outcome is

A

flim becomes brittle and the emulsion begins to flake off

494
Q

that is total filtration

A

inhernet filtration plus added filtration

495
Q

what is the optimal kv for a double contrast GI

A

100-110kv

496
Q

what is an example of inherent filtration

A

glass or metal window of xray tube housing

497
Q

during hypovolemic shock would a vasodilator or vasoconstrictive drug used to counter the shock

A

vasocontrictive drug

498
Q

what does filtration do to the patient dose

A

decrease patient dose

499
Q

in the image intensifier tube what is the purpose of the input phospher

A

made of cesium iodide converts the xrays into visable light

500
Q

what is responsible for focusing the electron beam

A

electrostatic lens

501
Q

what is the purpose of a back up timer

A

to terminate the exposure in the event of a phototimer failure

502
Q

what is the effect of using a grid

A

increases the contrast

503
Q

T or F early signs of intracranial pressure due to trauma include drowniess, slow respirations, becoming incoherent

A

true

504
Q

quantum mottle will most likely occur with the use of

A

rare earth screens

505
Q

what is the difference between tomogram and zonogram

A

tomogram- predetermined plane of the body is demonstrated in focus on the xray
zonogram- produces a focal plane images of greater contrast than possible with thin section tomography

506
Q

when doing scoliosis series what do you not want to select

A

2 outside cells

507
Q

what tone of voice is best when communicating with the elderly

A

firm but not condescending, do not yell at them

508
Q

what respiration should be used when inserting an enema tip

A

expiration

509
Q

what should the tech response be if the patient asks if they have seen anything on the film

A

do not diagnose tell them to ask the physician

510
Q

an er patient is to have a GI for a possible perforated stomach what contrast would you choose

A

non ionic water soluble iodinated contrast

511
Q

an in patient has arrived for an IVP and cannot understand English how do you check for allergies

A

medical chart

512
Q

by moving the II closer to the patient how does this effect dose

A

decreases dose

513
Q

when turning the patient from the supine position on an xray table that does not turn well you

A

roll the patient with arm above their head onto their hip and then pull patient toward you

514
Q

if the AEC is over the petrous ridges for a skull ray how will the rest of the film appear

A

overexposed increase in density

515
Q

does a chest xray radiation to breast have any effect on a breast feeding mother

A

no

516
Q

what will be demonstrated best when doing a pelvis if the legs were externally rotated

A

lesser trochanter

517
Q

T or F a swan ganz catheter measures the pumping ability of the heat

A

true

518
Q

according to torres which area of the body is most susceptible to the formation of decubitius ulcers

A

scapula, sacrum, trochanters, knees, and heels of the feet

519
Q

primary controlling factor of density

A

mas

520
Q

what is the respiration of a soft tissue neck

A

slow inspiration

521
Q

what is suggested kvp for a soft tissue neck

A

75kvp

522
Q

when positioning SC jts what is demonstrated

A

side down and which is closest to the spine the side down

523
Q

how much is the body rotated for the oblique sc joint position

A

10-15 degrees

524
Q

where is the coronoid process is located

A

proximal ulna or mandible

525
Q

where is the coracoid process located

A

on the scapula

526
Q

what is the angle and direction for an AP sacrum

A

15 degrees cephald

527
Q

when doing a cervicothroacic lateral position of the cspine what angle is supposed to help separate the 2 shoulders especially with the patient with limited flexibility who cannot depress the shoulders

A

3-5 caudad

528
Q

which vein will most likely be used for a IVP injection

A

antecubital

MUST KNOW FOR CAMRT (2 decks)

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