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Neuroanatomy Exam 2 > Practice exam > Flashcards

Practice exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following is the correct order of voluntary horizontal saccades?

a. Oculomotor nucleus, Frontal eye fields, Crossing crossing the dorsal midbrain of the brainstem, Synapsing to the paramedian pontine reticular formation (PPRF), to the abducens nucleus, Terminates on the cervical spinal cord.
b. Frontal eye fields, Projects to brainstem (crossing dorsal medial midbrain), Synapsing to the oculomotor nucleus, Projects to paramedian Pontine reticular foramen, Terminates on abducens nucleus
c. Frontal eye fields, Projects to brainstem (crossing dorsal midbrain), Synapses in paramedian pontine reticular foramen (PPRF), to abducens nucleus, to medial longitudinal fasciculus, Terminates on oculomotor nucleus.
d. None of the above.

A

C

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a saccade?
    a. Watching a pendulum swing back and forth
    b. Closing your eyes
    c. Reading
    d. Looking at a fixed spot while moving your head
A

C

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3
Q
  1. What brain regions are involved in initiating and accurately targeting an object when performing a saccadic movement?
    a. Superior Colliculus, Inferior Colliculus, Frontal Eye Fields
    b. Frontal Eye Fields, Primary Visual Cortex
    c. Primary Visual Cortex, Frontal Eye Fields, Inferior Colliculus
    d. Frontal Eye Fields, Superior Colliculus
A

D

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following movements have only ipsilateral pathways.
    a. Movements in the horizontal plane
    b. Torsional Movement
    c. Movements in the Vertical Plane
    d. Both A and C
A

D

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about CN V is false?
    a. There are 4 major nuclei of CN V
    b. CN V has 3 branches
    c. A lesion in CN V will affect eye movement
    d. One of the functions of CN V is to dampen sound
A

C

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of CN VII?
    a. Taste anterior ⅔ of tongue.
    b. Innervation of muscles of expression
    c. Taste posterior ⅓ of tongue
    d. Innervation of the stapedius muscle
A

C

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7
Q

Which components does the Vagus nerve have?

a. Sensory
b. Motor
c. Parasympathetic
d. Both A and B
e. All of the above

A

E

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8
Q

What cranial nerve(s) has an origin in the nucleus ambiguus?

a. No cranial nerves have an origin here
b. Glossopharyngeal and Vagus
c. Vagus and Hypoglossal
d. Hypoglossal and Optic

A

B

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9
Q

What structure does the VTTT (ventral trigeminothalamic tract) travel with?

a. Thalamus
b. Trigeminal Nerve
c. Medial Lemniscus
d. Fasciculus Cuneatus

A

C

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following nerves may yield symptoms of difficulty swallowing, problems with gag reflex, loss of pain and temperature of the external ear, and loss of taste at the epiglottis as the result of a lesion?
    a. Vestibulocochlear Nerve (CN VIII)
    b. Hypoglossal Nerve (CN XII)
    c. Trigeminal Nerve (CN V)
    d. Vagus Nerve (CN X)
A

D

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11
Q
  1. What causes a person to appear as in the picture below (ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos)?
    a. Genetics
    b. Loss of sympathetic supply to head ipsilaterally
    c. Loss of parasympathetic supply bilaterally
    d. Straining eyes
A

B

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12
Q
  1. What does the sympathetic nervous system supply?
    a. Skin only
    b. Medial Viscera only
    c. Every structure in the body
    d. Lateral Viscera only
A

C

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a sympathetic recruited response to stress, fight/flight, or strenuous exercise?
    a. Digestion
    b. Skin vasoconstriction causing increased blood pressure
    c. Bronchial dilation
    d. Pupil Dilation
A

A

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14
Q
  1. What is the difference between the Autonomic Nervous Systems in terms of pharmacological differentiation?
    a. They do not differ at all.
    b. The preganglionic neurons release division specific neurotransmitters
    c. The postganglionic neurons release division specific neurotransmitters.
    d. Both B and C
A

C

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15
Q
  1. What does the term “hemiparesis” mean clinically?
    a. No movement of one side of the body
    b. Weakness of one side of the body
    c. No movement of one limb
    d. Weakness in one limb
A

B

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following symptoms are TRUE for a lower motor neuron lesion?
    a. Weakness, atrophy, hyperreflexia
    b. Increased muscle tone, atrophy, areflexia
    c. Weakness, atrophy, fasciculations
    d. Fasciculations, hyperreflexia, decreased muscle tone
A

C

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following lesions would not result in hyperreflexia and increased muscle tone?
    a. Cortical lesion of BA 4
    b. Lesion in the posterior limb of the internal capsule
    c. Lesion in the cerebral peduncles
    d. Severing a motor neuron in the arm
A

D

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18
Q
  1. Out of the following tracts, which projects farther caudal than the cervical level of the spinal cord?
    a. Medial vestibulospinal tract
    b. Tectospinal tract
    c. Rubrospinal tract
    d. Lateral vestibulospinal tract
A

D

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19
Q
  1. Which pair correctly matches the corticobulbar tract target with its laterality?
    a. CN VII (Upper face) - Bilateral
    b. CN V - IPSI
    c. CN Ambiguus - Contra
    d. CN XII - Bilateral
A

A

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20
Q
  1. Which pair of motor tract/function is FALSE?
    a. Tectospinal tract - Head movements in response to visual stimuli; coordination of eye movements during movement
    b. Corticospinal tract - contralateral control of voluntary movement
    c. Pontine reticulospinal tract - bilateral postural/axial flexor muscle movement and tone
    d. Medial vestibulospinal tract - bilateral control of balance of the head and neck
A

C

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21
Q
  1. What type of tissue does the autonomic nervous system NOT innervate:
    a. Cardiac muscle
    b. Glandular tissue
    c. Skeletal muscle
    d. Smooth muscle
A

C

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is true about the autonomic nervous system?
    a. The sympathetic nervous system cells originate from cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X and the sacral cord.
    b. The parasympathetic nervous system has global action.
    c. Postganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system release GABA.
    d. All preganglionic neurons of both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems release acetylcholine.
A

D

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23
Q
  1. Match the system with the appropriate target organ response:
    a. Parasympathetic: Bronchoconstriction
    b. Parasympathetic: Releases urinary bladder
    c. Sympathetic: Pupil constriction
    d. Sympathetic: Stimulation of digestion
A

A

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24
Q
  1. What causes Horner’s syndrome?
    a. Lack of pupil dilation due to lesion of CN III
    b. Loss of sympathetic supply to the head
    c. Disruptions in the enteric system
    d. Lack of visceral afferent information
A

B

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25
Q
  1. What is a mechanism for visceral or “referred” pain?
    a. Autonomic dysreflexia
    b. Micturition reflex
    c. Viscerosomatic convergence
    d. Parasympathetic visceral afferent tracts
A

C

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26
Q
  1. Which is not a layer found in the cerebellum?
    a. Molecular layer
    b. Granule cell layer
    c. Pyramidal cell layer
    d. Purkinje cell layer
A

C

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27
Q
  1. Lesion of a lateral cerebellar hemisphere would likely have what consequence?
    a. Ipsilateral appendicular ataxia
    b. Contralateral appendicular ataxia
    c. Contralateral axial ataxia
    d. Bilateral axial ataxia
A

A

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is FALSE regarding cerebellar microcircuitry?
    a. Purkinje cells are inhibitory with GABA as main neurotransmitter
    b. Granule cells receive climbing fiber input
    c. Purkinje cells are the main output neuron and project to deep CBL nuclei
    d. Granule cells are excitatory with glutamate as main neurotransmitter
A

B

29
Q
  1. What, phylogenetically, is the newest part of the cerebellum?
    a. Archicerebellum
    b. Neocerebellum
    c. Paleocerebellum
    d. Cerebro-cerebellum
A

B

30
Q
  1. What deep cerebellar nucleus is incorrectly paired with its target?
    a. Fastigial -> bilateral vestibular nuclei
    b. Interposed nuclei -> contralateral red nucleus
    c. Dentate nucleus -> contralateral vestibular nuclei
    d. Fastigial -> bilateral pontine and medullary reticular formation
A

C

31
Q
  1. Which is not a possible cause of papilledema?
    a. Block of CSF flow
    b. Tumors
    c. Blockage of aqueous humor flow
    d. Hematoma
A

C

32
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about accommodation is false?
    a. Focusing on near objects involves contraction of the ciliary muscle
    b. Focusing on near objects involves flattening the lens
    c. Focusing on distant objects decreases the refractive power of the lens
    d. Focusing on distant objects increases the diameter of the circular ciliary muscle
A

B

33
Q
  1. A patient has no pupillary response in either eye when the light was shown in the left eye. Where is the most likely lesion?
    a. Optic chiasm
    b. Left optic nerve
    c. Right optic tract
    d. Posterior commissure
A

B

34
Q
  1. What type of eye cell are responsible for vision in dim lighting?
    a. Cone cells
    b. Retinal ganglion cells
    c. Bipolar cells
    d. Rod cells
A

D

35
Q
  1. Which statement is correct about the distribution of rods and cones?
    a. Cones are mainly located in the periphery
    b. The highest density of rods is located in the optic disk
    c. Photoreceptors are distributed uniformly across the retina
    d. The foveola contains only cone cells
A

D

36
Q
  1. How does a photoreceptor respond to light?
    a. Ion channels in the membrane open, allowing cations to flow in and depolarize the cell, increasing the amount of neurotransmitter it releases
    b. Ion channels in the membrane open, allowing anions to flow in and hyperpolarize the membrane, reducing the amount of neurotransmitter it releases
    c. Ion channels close, hyperpolarizing the cell and reducing the amount of neurotransmitter it releases
    d. Light causes change in shape in the membrane, which allows sodium to flow in and depolarize the cell, increasing the amount of neurotransmitter it releases
A

C

37
Q
  1. Which is false about the path of visual information in the brain?
    a. The left visual field is processed by the left hemisphere
    b. Nasal retina axons cross in the optic chiasm
    c. Retinal cells project to the hypothalamus, pretectum, superior colliculus, and LGN
    d. Meyer’s loop carries information from superior visual fields
A

A

38
Q
  1. What symptoms would you expect from a right T5 hemisection of the spinal cord resulting in Brown-Sequard Syndrome?
    a. Decreased vibration/proprioception on the right (below T5), decreased pain/temperature on the left (below T5), anesthesia on high right (above T5)
    b. Decreased vibration/proprioception on the left (below T5), decreased pain/temperature on the right (below T5), anesthesia on high left (above T5)
    c. Decreased vibration/proprioception on the right (below T5), decreased pain/temperature on the left (below T5)
    d. Decreased vibration/proprioception everywhere below T5
A

A

39
Q
  1. Face sensory information comes in at the level of _____________.
    a. CN 4
    b. CN 5
    c. CN 6
    d. CN 7
A

B

40
Q
  1. What would be the symptoms of a transverse cord lesion (below the lesion)?
    a. Complete loss of pain/temperature, vibration/position, and motor
    b. Complete loss of only pain/temperature and vibration/position
    c. Complete loss of vibration/position
    d. Complete loss of motor
A

A

41
Q
  1. What are the symptoms of a medial medullary lesion?
    a. Loss of fine touch below the lesion (CONTRA) but pain/temperature is spared
    b. Loss of fine touch and pain/temperature below lesion (CONTRA)
    c. Loss of pain/temperature below the lesion (CONTRA) but fine touch is spared
    d. Loss of fine touch below the lesion (IPSI) but pain/temperature is spared
    e. Loss of fine touch and pain/temperature below lesion (IPSI)
    f. Loss of pain/temperature below the lesion (IPSI) but fine touch is spared
A

A

42
Q
  1. When looking up and to left,
    a. The left eye is moved up and left using only the superior rectus while the right eye is moved up and left using only the inferior oblique
    b. The left eye is moved up and left using the superior rectus and the lateral rectus while the right eye is moved up and left using the superior oblique and medial rectus
    c. The left eye is moved up and left using the superior rectus and the lateral rectus while the right eye is moved up and left using the inferior oblique and medial rectus
    d. The right eye is moved up and left using the superior rectus and the lateral rectus while the left eye is moved up and left using the inferior oblique and medial rectus
A

C

43
Q
  1. Which extraocular muscles are innervated by CN3?
    a. Medial rectus, lateral rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique
    b. Medial rectus, lateral rectus, inferior oblique, superior oblique
    c. Medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, superior oblique
    d. Medial rectus, superior rectus, inferior rectus, inferior oblique
A

D

44
Q
  1. What are the symptoms of a lesion to CN3?
    a. Impaired eye movement, drooping eyelid (ptosis), and pupillary dilation defects
    b. Impaired eye abduction
    c. Impaired eye movement and pupillary dilation defects
    d. Paralysis of all extraocular muscles, drooping eyelid (ptosis), and pupillary dilation defects
A

A

45
Q
  1. Which is the correct pathway of the Vestibulo-Ocular Reflex?
    a. Stimulation of semicircular canals by IPSI head movement –> Signal to vestibular nuclei –> Signal passed CONTRA to CN 6 nucleus –> Signal is modulated by PPRF and travels via MLF IPSI to CN 3 nucleus
    b. Stimulation of semicircular canals by IPSI head movement –> Signal to vestibular nuclei –> Signal passed CONTRA to CN 6 nucleus –> Signal is modulated by PPRF and travels via MLF CONTRA to CN 3 nucleus
    c. Stimulation of semicircular canals by IPSI head movement –> Signal to vestibular nuclei –> Signal passed CONTRA to CN 6 nucleus –> Signal travels via MLF CONTRA to CN 4 nucleus
    d. Stimulation of semicircular canals by IPSI head movement –> Signal to vestibular nuclei –> Signal passed CONTRA to CN 3 nucleus –> Signal travels via MLF CONTRA to CN 6 nucleus
A

B

46
Q
  1. Which is a correct statement regarding the Vestibulo-Ocular Reflex?
    a. A head turn to the left will stimulate the left vestibular nuclei and cause eye movement to the right
    b. A head turn to the left will stimulate the right vestibular nuclei and cause eye movement to the right
    c. A head turn to the left will stimulate the left vestibular nuclei and cause eye movement to the left
    d. A head turn to the left will stimulate the right vestibular nuclei and cause eye movement to the left
A

A

47
Q
  1. Which combination of nerve endings are considered subcutaneous fine touch receptors?
    a. Free nerve endings and Pacinian corpuscle
    b. Meissner corpuscle and Ruffini corpuscle
    c. Ruffini corpuscle and Pacinian corpuscle
    d. Merkel cell-neurite complex and Free nerve endings
A

C

48
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a common feature of the two somatosensory pathways?
    a. Primary afferent fibers
    b. Third order neurons projecting to cortex
    c. Sensory axons enter spinal cord and travel in dorsal fasciculi
    d. Second order neurons project to contralateral thalamus
A

C

49
Q
  1. The ipsilateral loss of voluntary motor control, conscious proprioception and discriminative touch along with the contralateral loss of pain & sensation after T5 hemisection of the spinal cord results in __________
    a. Myotatic reflex
    b. Brown-Sequard Syndrome
    c. Decorticate posture
    d. Decerebrate posture
    e. Referred Pain
A

B

50
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a correct Thalamocortical projection?
    a. VPL to primary sensory cortex via posterior limb of internal capsule
    b. VPL to primary sensory cortex via genu limb of internal capsule
    c. VPL to medial primary sensory cortex via posterior limb of internal capsule
    d. VPM to lateral primary sensory cortex via genu of internal capsule
A

B

51
Q
  1. Sensory information is NOT processed _______________
    a. At the cerebellum in local neural circuits
    b. In the cerebrum involving sensation and perception
    c. At the spinal level in local neural circuits
    d. At the cerebellum to adjust posture and movements
A

A

52
Q
  1. What would happen if the facial nerve is damaged?
    a. Sagging face muscles, disrupted sense of taste
    b. Inability to rotate eye laterally
    c. Loss of sensation and impaired chewing
    d. Double vision or potential blindness in visual field
A

A

53
Q
  1. Which tract does not correspond to its originating nucleus?
    a. Cochlear portion of vestibulocochlear tract; spiral ganglion
    b. Sensory portion of facial tract; geniculate ganglion
    c. Parasympathetic portion of glossopharyngeal tract; nucleus ambiguus
    d. Somatic portion of vagal tract; nucleus ambiguus
A

C

54
Q
  1. Loss of taste to the epiglottis would be a potential result of a lesion to which cranial nerve tract?
    a. Vagal
    b. Glossopharyngeal
    c. Facial
    d. Hypoglossal
A

A

55
Q
  1. In relation to eye movements, which of the following is correct?
    a. CN III innervates the lateral rectus muscles
    b. CN III innervates the medial rectus, inferior oblique, superior rectus, and inferior rectus muscles
    c. CN VI innervates the superior oblique muscles
    d. CN IV innervates the lateral rectus muscles
A

B

56
Q
  1. Which of these best describes the function of the glossopharyngeal nerve?
    a. Controls swallowing, salivation, sensation from posterior 1/3 of tongue
    b. Provides sense of taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue, salivary and tear glands
    c. Main sensory nerve to face and muscles of mastication
    d. Allows tongue movements for speech, food manipulation, and swallowing
A

A

57
Q
  1. Which structures make up the limbic system?
    a. Putamen, Caudate, Globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra
    b. Caudate, Putamen, Thalamus, amygdala, hypothalamus
    c. Striatum, Globus pallidus, hippocampus, amygdala
    d. Hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala
A

D

58
Q
  1. What is the correct route of the direct pathway?
    a. Cerebral cortex releases glutamate onto striatum, GABA is released onto GPi, less GABA is released onto VL/ VA of thalamus, release of glutamate onto motor cortex
    b. Cerebral cortex releases GABA onto striatum, glutamate is released onto GPi, less glutamate is released onto VL/VA of thalamus, release of GABA onto motor cortex
    c. Cerebral cortex excites striatum, GPe is inhibited, subthalamic nucleus is inhibited LESS, GPi is excited, the VL/VA is further inhibited
    d. Cerebral cortex inhibits striatum, GPe is excited, subthalamic nucleus is excited LESS, GPi is inhibited, the VL/ VA is further excited
A

A

59
Q
  1. What is the correct route of the indirect pathway?
    a. Cerebral cortex releases glutamate onto striatum, GABA is released onto GPi, less GABA is released onto VL/ VA of thalamus, release of glutamate onto motor cortex
    b. Cerebral cortex releases GABA onto striatum, glutamate is released onto GPi, less glutamate is released onto VL/VA of thalamus, release of GABA onto motor cortex
    c. Cerebral cortex excites striatum, GPe is inhibited, subthalamic nucleus is inhibited LESS, GPi is excited, the VL/VA is further inhibited
    d. Cerebral cortex inhibits striatum, GPe is excited, subthalamic nucleus is excited LESS, GPi is inhibited, the VL/ VA is further excited
A

C

60
Q
  1. The Basal Ganglia communicates with the motor cortex via the _____________
    a. VPL of the thalamus
    b. VL of the thalamus
    c. VPM of the thalamus
    d. Does not communicate with motor cortex
A

B

61
Q
  1. Most of the Basal Ganglia (except cortex and subthalamic nucleus) is ________
    a. Excitatory
    b. Inhibitory
    c. Modulatory
A

B

62
Q
  1. What is the difference in function of the Cerebrocerebelum and Spinocerebellum?
    a. Cerebrocerebellum is associated with sensory input, while Spinocerebellum is associated with motor input.
    b. Spinocerebellum is associated with motor planning, while Cerebrocerebellum is associated with motor execution.
    c. Cerebrocerebellum is associated with motor planning, while Spinocerebellum is associated with motor execution.
    d. Spinocerebellum is associated with motor input, while Cerebrocerebellum is associated with sensory input.
A

C

63
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is false?
    a. Granule cells are the only modulatory neurons in the cerebellum.
    b. Purkinje Cells are the main output neurons to deep cerebellar nuclei and are inhibitory.
    c. Climbing fibers wrap around purkinje cells
    d. There are no excitatory neurons in the cerebellar cortex.
A

A

64
Q
  1. What separates the anterior chamber from the posterior chamber?
    a. Ora serrata
    b. Ciliary Body
    c. Lens and Iris
    d. Cornea
A

C

65
Q
  1. Which cranial nerve(s) run(s) immediately next to the cavernous sinus and is/are at risk of being impinged upon in the event of a cavernous sinus thrombosis?
    a. CNs 1-3
    b. CN 3-6
    c. CN 3
    d. CN 4
A

B

66
Q
  1. What is the proximal cause of papilledema?
    a. The pressure in the subarachnoid space being too high
    b. Optic cupping
    c. Increased pressure within the eye
    d. Issues with the production/secretion of aqueous fluid
A

A

67
Q
  1. What needs to happen in order to focus on a distant object?
    a. Contraction of circular portion of the ciliary muscle
    b. Relaxation of zonular fibers
    c. Increase in the convexing and refractory power of the lens
    d. Relaxation of circular portion of the ciliary muscle
A

D

68
Q
  1. In terms of pupillary constriction, which statement is false?
    a. There is chronic sympathetic drive
    b. The lack of parasympathetic constriction is evidence of a brainstem problem
    c. The sphincter pupillae is the parasympathetic component of the iris
    d. A contraction of the dilator pupillae increases pupil size
A

C

Neuroanatomy Exam 2 (21 decks)

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