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TExES Science 7-12 > Practice Exam #1 > Flashcards

Practice Exam #1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of these should be poured into the other?

  • Acid
  • Water
A

Acid should be poured into water.

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2
Q

Vinegar is a 5% _____ solution

A

Acetic Acid

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3
Q

How is a pH probe properly stored?

A

In a buffer of 3M - 4M Potassium Chloride

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4
Q

What color should a properly adjusted Bunsen burner flame be?

A

Colorless to blue

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5
Q

If a fire on a Bunsen burner is yellow, what should you do?

A

Increase the air suppy

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6
Q

If a flame on a Bunsen burner is burning noisely, what should you do?

A

Reduce the gas supply

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7
Q

What is the minimum time an eyewash station should be used?

A

15 minutes

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8
Q

What is the first thing to do in case of an emergency or a spill?

A

Notify the instructor

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9
Q

What pieces of safety equipment are mandatory vs optional or dependent on the experiment?

A

Mandatory - goggles and apron

Optional - Gloves

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10
Q

What scientific work is Darwin famous for?

A

On the Origin of Species

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11
Q

What does the “On the Origin of Species” say?

A

Nature selects the best adapted varieties to survive andreproduce

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12
Q

What scientific work is Lamark known for?

A

Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Charactersistics

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13
Q

What was the Theory of Inheritance of Acquired Characteristics?

A

if an organism changes during its life in order to adapt to its environment, those changes are passed to its offspring.

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14
Q

What scientific work is Charles Lyell famous for?

A

The Principles of Geology

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15
Q

What did “The Principles of Geology” say?

A

uniformitarianism that states the geological processes that alter the earth are uniform throughout time

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16
Q

What scientific work is Malthus known for?

A

Essay on the Principles of Population

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17
Q

What is stated in “Essay on the Principles of Population”?

A

Human populations will rapidly increase unless kept in check by limits in food supply

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18
Q

What two theories is Albert Einstein most known for?

A

Special Theory of Relativity

The General Theory of Relativity

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19
Q

What is Thomas Edison most known for?

A

inventing the light bulb and the phonograph

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20
Q

How did Dalton describe atoms?

A

hard spheres

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21
Q

How did Thomson describe atoms?

A

plum pudding model - electrons are embedded in a sphere of positive charge

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22
Q

How did Rutheford describe atoms?

A

Planetary model - electrons circularly orbit a small central nucleus

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23
Q

How did Bohr describe atoms?

A

electrons move in regions of space called orbits

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24
Q

Whose atomic model is the most recent?

A

Bohr

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25
Q

What is Bernoulli’s Principle?

A

Lateral pressure exerted by a moving fluid decrease as the fluid’s speed increases

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26
Q

Who created the Bernoulli’s Principle?

A

Isaac Newton

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27
Q

Who created the Atomic Theory of Matter?

A

John Dalton

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28
Q

What did the Atomic Theory of Matter say?

A

Each element consists of tiny, invisible particles called atoms.

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29
Q

Did Dalton believe atoms could be broken down?

A

No

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30
Q

Who proposed The Particle or Corpuscular Theory of Light?

A

Isaac Newton

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31
Q

Who proposed The Wave Theory of Light?

A

Huygnes

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32
Q

Who showed that light can be modeled as an electromagnetic wave?

A

Maxwell

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33
Q

Who described electromagnetic radiation as bundles of energy proportional to frequency in the quantum theory of light?

A

Einstein

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34
Q

Subduction occurs at _____ boundaries

A

convergent

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35
Q

Subduction is the process that occurs when two tectonic plates:

A

collide and one plate moves under the other plate

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36
Q

Isotopes of the same element must have the same ____ _____

A

chemical behavior

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37
Q

Isotopes differ in ___

A

mass

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38
Q

Neutrons are ____ in charge

A

neutral

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39
Q

Which atom can break a nucleus and is used in nuclear chain reactions?

A

Neutrons

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40
Q

What do nuclear reactions turn mass into?

A

energy

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41
Q

Radioactive decay - The mass of products is always ____ than that of the starting materials

A

less

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42
Q

An alpha particle is a ____ nucleus

A

helium

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43
Q

An alpha particle contains how many protons and neutrons?

A

Two protons

Two neutrons

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44
Q

Sublimination is the process of:

A

solid changing directly into a gas without entering the liquid phase

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45
Q

Fusion is the process of:

A

liquid turning directly into a slid

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46
Q

Condensation is the process of:

A

Gas turning into a liquid

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47
Q

What is the trend of electronegativity on the periodic table?

A

Increases going right and up the table

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48
Q

A polar bond is a type of ____ bond

A

covalent

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49
Q

NaCl, NH4F, MgCO3, and Fe2(HPO4)3 are examples of?

A

ionic salts

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50
Q

What are ionic salts?

A

when dissolved in water, break up completely into ions

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51
Q

What is a polar bond?

A

Polar bonds do not share electrons equally, meaning the negative charge from the electrons is not evenly distributed in the molecule.

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52
Q

What is a non-polar bond?

A

non-polar bonds share electrons equally

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53
Q

Are ionic componds polar?

A

Ionic compounds are extremely polar molecules

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54
Q

What do catalysts do to the energy barrier between products and reactants

A

lower the energy barrier

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55
Q

What do catalysts do to the reaction rate?

A

increase it

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56
Q

What is the strongest acid?

A

HCl

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57
Q

What is NH3? (Common name)

A

Ammonia

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58
Q

Is ammonia acidic or basic?

A

Basic

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59
Q

Oxidation is __________

A

the loss of electrons

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60
Q

Reduction is __________

A

the gaining of electrons

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61
Q

Proteins are large polypeptides compromised of many:

A

amino acids linked together by an amide bond

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62
Q

DNA and RNA are made up of _____

A

nucleic acids

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63
Q

Carbohydrates are long chains of ____

A

sugars

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64
Q

Triglycerides are ____

A

fats

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65
Q

Triglycerides are composed of a ___ molecule and ____

A

glycerol

Three fatty acids

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66
Q

Density is ____ per _____

A

mass

volume

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67
Q

Methyl mercury is a toxin produced indirectly from what energy source?

A

Coal

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68
Q

When adding, the answer will have as many significant figures after the decimal point as the measurement with the _____ decimal points

A

fewer

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69
Q

Vectors have ____ & ____

A

magnitude

direction

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70
Q

What’s the difference between displacement and distance?

A

Displacement = difference between start and end distance

Distance = total distance traveled to get to end point

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71
Q

To add or subtract vectors algebraically, you

A

add and substract their components

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72
Q

To add vectors graphically, you

A

shift the location of the vectors so they are connected tail-to-tail

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73
Q

What is Newtons 1st Law?

A

An object in motion stays in motion and an object at rest stays at rest

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74
Q

Is a newton a fundamental unit?

A

no

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75
Q

In Newtons second law, mass and acceleration are ____ related when the force is constant (F=ma)

A

inversely

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76
Q

Can Newtons 2nd law be derived from Newtons 1st law?

A

yes

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77
Q

Can Newton’s 2nd law be derived from the universal law of gravity?

A

no

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78
Q

What is Newton’s 3rd law?

A

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

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79
Q

The gravitational force of attraction between two spheres hanging on the same line is determined by _____, ______ and ______

A

universal constant of gravity

the distance between the spheres

mass of the spheres

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80
Q

How do you calculate static friction?

A

u(static) x Normal force

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81
Q

How do you calculate normal force?

A

weight x gravity (9.8)

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82
Q

When do you use the formula for static friction vs kinetic friction?

A

when you need to START moving an object vs one that is already moving

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83
Q

Biodegradable plastics are renewable since the are organic compounds made from _____

A

biomass

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84
Q

What is biomass made out of?

A

plants
animals
all organic compounds that decompose

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85
Q

Chalk is a form of ___ ____

A

calcium carbonate

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86
Q

What is CaCO3?

A

Chalk

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87
Q

Glass cleaner is made up of ______

A

ammonia

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88
Q

Bleach is made up of _____

A

sodium hypochlorite

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89
Q

Baking powder is ____ ____

A

sodium bicarbonate

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90
Q

Salt formula

A

NaCl

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91
Q

C12H22O11

A

Sugar

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92
Q

Hydrogen Peroxide formula

A

H2O2

93
Q

Are laser lights coherent?

A

Yes

94
Q

Are laser lights in phase?

A

Yes

95
Q

Are laser lights monochromatic?

A

yes

96
Q

What does it mean when a laser light is monochromatic?

A

one wavelength of frequency (color)

97
Q

What does it mean when a laser light is collimated?

A

means the beams are narrow and highly directional

98
Q

What kind of reactions occur in dry cells walls (batteries)?

A

oxidation-reduction

99
Q

Cathodes are ______ agents

A

oxidizing

100
Q

Oxidizing agents accept what from the anode?

A

electrons

101
Q

The anode is the ___ agent

A

reducing

102
Q

What does an anode lose?

A

electrons

103
Q

What is DNA electrophoresis and how is it done?

A

DNA is broken into fragments and added to a gel with a voltage, that then separates them in a gel and applying a voltage across it.

104
Q

Do genetically modified crops show any difference in nutrition or shelf-life?

A

no

105
Q

What is one of the greatest concerns of genetically modified crops?

A

introducing new allergens into the food supply

106
Q

What is a Buckminsterfullerene molecule?

A

A hollow, spherical fullerene molecule with the molecular formula C60

107
Q

What is Graphene?

A

One-atom thick sheet of carbon

108
Q

What are nanoparticles?

A

particles between 1 and 100 nanometers in size

109
Q

Buckminsterfullerene particles are one example of ______

A

nanoparticles

110
Q

What are some advantages of biomass?

A

Renewable

Carbon neutral

Abundant

111
Q

What is a disadvantage to biomass?

A

requires space and may be inefficient

112
Q

What does land reclamation cause?

A

destruction of habitats and decreased biodiversity

113
Q

What does underground coal mining do that strip mining does not?

A

lowers the water table and changes the flow of groundwater and streams

114
Q

96.5% of seawater is comprised of:

A

hydrogen & oxygen

115
Q

Majority of weather phenomena occur in Earth’s _____

A

Troposphere

116
Q

The majority of solar energy that reaches Earth is absorbed by the ____

A

oceans

117
Q

What causes “dead zones” in portion of oceans and lakes?

A

chemical fertilzers

118
Q

What is sublimination?

A

when water changes directly from a solid to a gas, skipping the liquid state

119
Q

Specific heat capacity refers to:

A

amount of energy required to increase the temperature of a substance by 1 degree Celsius.

120
Q

What has a higher density?

Water in liquid state or water in a solid state?

A

liquid state

121
Q

The process that causes lithospheric plates to move over the surface of the mantle is called

A

convection

122
Q

In 1912, Alfred Wegener proposed that the continents:

A

once formed a single land mass called Pangea

123
Q

What does Earth’s magnetic field protect from?

A

solar wind

124
Q

What is solar wind?

A

stream of highly charged radioactive particles that emanate from the sun

125
Q

A volcano that is dormant is expected to:

A

erupt sometime in the future by is not imminently dangerous

126
Q

When an earthquake occurs, the “shaking” is a direct result from:

A

seismic waves

127
Q

Seismic waves are powerful sound waves released when:

A

slippage between plates occur

128
Q

What are the two types of seismic waves?

A

P-waves

S-waves

129
Q

Which seismic waves move more quickly?

A

P-waves

130
Q

What kind of motion does P-waves make?

A

motion that radiates directly outward from the point of origin

131
Q

What kind of motion do S-waves make?

A

shearing, or side-to-side motion

132
Q

Where is most recently formed parts of Earth’s crust found?

A

mid-ocean ridges

133
Q

Which is hotter and more fluid? Asthenosphere or Lithosphere

A

Asthenosphere

134
Q

What is another name for Asthenosphere?

A

upper mantle

135
Q

What sits on top of the Asthenosphere?

A

Crust

136
Q

What is another word for Lithosphere?

A

Crust

137
Q

What is it called when two tectonic plates are moving laterally in opposing directions?

A

transform boundary

138
Q

What type of earthquakes happen at transform boundaries?

A

shallow earthquakes

139
Q

What are the results of a metamorphic rock when it is stressed unevenly during recrystallization?

A

foliation

140
Q

Quartzite, marble and slates are all examples of:

A

metamorphic rock

141
Q

What is type of rock is granite?

A

igneous rock

142
Q

What type of rocks are formed when rocks are subjected to high heat, high pressure, hot mineral-rich fluids or, more commonly, some combination of these factors?

A

metamorphic

143
Q

What type of rock is formed through the cooling and solidification of magma or lava?

A

Igneous rock

144
Q

What type of rock is formed from deposits of pre-existing rocks or pieces of once-living organism that accumulate on the Earth’s surface?

A

Sedimentary Rock

145
Q

What does Bowen’s Reaction Series describe?

A

the temperature at which minerals crystallize when cooled or melt when heated.

146
Q

Where is olivine found in Bowen’s Reaction Series?

A

at the top

147
Q

Minerals found at the top of Bowen’s reaction series ____, ____, & ____ than those found at lower in the series

A

less stable

weather more quickly

crystalize at higher temperatures

148
Q

Chemical weathering involves:

A

changes in the molecules that comprise the rock

149
Q

Physical weathering involves:

A

external factors act on the rock without changing its chemical composition in any way

150
Q

Overgrazing and deforestation directly contribute to _____

A

soil erosion

151
Q

Where does Plutonic or intrusive rock form?

A

deep below Earth’s surface

152
Q

How fast does Plutonic or intrusive rock form?

A

slowly

153
Q

Where does Volcanic or extrusive rock form?

A

near the surface

154
Q

Where does Hypabyssal rock form?

A

Below the Earth’s surface but not as deep as plutonic rock

155
Q

What is Detrital rock?

A

A type of sedimentary rock

156
Q 
What are these minerals examples of?
Aragonite
Dolomite
Calcite
Siderite
A

Carbonates

157
Q

What is a gastrula?

A

First three-layered stage of the embryo

158
Q

What layers does the gastrula contain?

A

ectoderm
mesoderm
endoderm

159
Q

What is the main source of nutrients in reptile and bird embryos?

A

yolk sac

160
Q

What is the main source of nutrient in mammals during development?

A

placenta

161
Q

What does the yolk sac form in embryos?

A

digestive system

162
Q

Where is the gastrula formed?

A

blastocyst

163
Q

In oogenesis, what does Meiosis I produce?

A

secondary oocyte

polar body

164
Q

The first polar body and secondary oocyte formed under Meiosis I produce what in Meiosis II?

A

ovum

second polar body

165
Q

What does the placenta secrete once a pregnancy is established?

A

progesterone

estrogen

166
Q

What does the placenta secrete in early in pregnancy?

A

hCG

167
Q

What happens in a positive feedback loop?

A

an action intensifies a chain of events that, in turn, intensify the condition that caused the action beyond normal limits.

168
Q

What is this an example of?

Nursing stimulates lactation, which promotes nursing.

A

Positive feedback

169
Q

What are these an example of?

Contractions during childbirth

Psychological hysteria

Sexual orgasm

A

Positive feedback

170
Q

What body part is responsible for reabsorption of water into the body to form solidwaste?

A

large intestine

171
Q

What vitamin does the large intestine allow absorption of?

A

vitamin K

172
Q

Platelets are cell fragments involved in:

A

blood clotting

173
Q

Plants exchange gases with the environment through pores in their leaves called:

A

stomata

174
Q

How do small animals such as flatworms, exchange gas?

A

through their skin

175
Q

How do insects exchange gas?

A

tracheae

176
Q

How do mammal’s exchange gas?

A

multiple ways

177
Q

Are Day-neutral plants affected by day length in their flowering times?

A

no

178
Q

What do Day-neutral plants respond to?

A

environmental cues such as temperature and water

179
Q

Cytokinin’s stimulate cell division (________) and have been found to delay aging (_______)

A

cytokinesis

senescence

180
Q

What house male gametophytes in flowering plants?

A

Anthers

181
Q

What do the anthers in flowering plants do?

A

Hold sperm

182
Q

In flowering plants, what part houses the female Gametophytes?

A

Pistils

183
Q

What do pistils in flowering plants do?

A

Produce eggs

184
Q

Are eggs and sperm haploid or diploid?

A

Haploid

185
Q

Are tissues haploid or diploid?

A

Diploid

186
Q

What do anthers in flowering plants produce that later go into meiosis to produce pollen grains?

A

Microspores

187
Q

Alternation of generations means the alternating between _____ & _____ phases in plants

A

Diploid

Haploid

188
Q

In fern, the mature diploid plants is called a __________

A

Sporocyte

189
Q

Sporocytes undergo meiosis to produce ______

A

Spores

190
Q

Spores develop into _____

A

Gametophytes

191
Q

Gametophytes produce _____

A

Gametes

192
Q

The phloem is the pipeline through which ______ are transported to the roots

A

Carbohydrates

193
Q

What is the central, supporting pillar of a tree known as?

A

Heartwood

194
Q

Does Heartwood function in the transport of water?

A

No

195
Q

WILL HEARTWOOD DECAY OR LOSE STRENGTH?

A

No, as long as the outer layer remains intact

196
Q

What are openings on leaves that allow for gas exchange called?

A

Stomata

197
Q

What is stomata essential for?

A

Photosynthesis

198
Q

What are stomata surrounded by?

A

Guard cells

199
Q

What do guard cells do around the stomata?

A

Open and close based on their turgidity

200
Q

Gymnosperms reproduce by producing _____ & _____

A

Pollen

Ovules

201
Q

Do gymnosperms have flowers?

A

No

202
Q

Describe a gymnosperms reproductive structure

A

Cone-like

203
Q

The ovary of a flowering plant houses the ovules in the ______

A

Flower

204
Q

Pollen grains fertilize ovules create ______

A

Seeds

205
Q

What does a plant ovary mature into?

A

A fruit

206
Q

Small circular pieces of DNA found in bacteria that are widely used in recombinant DNA technology

A

Plamids

207
Q

What happens in the virus lytic cycle?

A

Viruses use host resources to produce viral DNA and proteins in order to create new viruses

208
Q

What happens in the viral lysogenic cycle?

A

DNA gets incorporated into the DNA of the host

209
Q

____  is direct transfer of plasma DNA between bacteria through a pilus

A

Conjugation

210
Q

______ are common to prokaryotes. They are units of DNA that control the transcription of DNA and code for their own Regulatory proteins as well as structural proteins

A

Operons

211
Q

What is transcription?

A

Process of creating RNA strand from a DNA template

212
Q

What are the products of transcription?

A

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA

213
Q

The frequency of a sound wave directly determines its

A

Pitch

214
Q

Does sound travel faster through helium or air?

A

Helium

215
Q

What is the speed of sound formula?

A

Speed = sqrt(k x P / p)

k =  index of specific heats
P = pressure
p = density
216
Q

When a tuning fork vibrates it creates areas of ____(higher pressure) & _______(lower pressure) that propagate through the air because of the air‘s elasticity

A

Condensation

Rarefactions

217
Q

What is the distance between condensation or rarefactions of sound?

A

Wavelength

218
Q

The _______ of the sound is half the difference between the pressure of the condensation and the pressure of the rarefaction

A

Amplitude

219
Q

______ & ______ Are both logarithmic measures that depend on amplitude, but are not directly proportional to it.

A

Loudness

Power

220
Q

Will doubling the amplitude, double the Loudness or power?

A

No but those quantities will increase just slightly

221
Q

When does refraction occur?

A

When a wave enters a new medium

222
Q

The boundary between the old medium and the new medium produces a ______ & ______ 

A

Reflected wave

Refracted Wazeve

223
Q

What changes as a wave enters a new medium?

A

Wavelength (speed and direction)

224
Q

What remains the same as a wave enters a new medium?

A

Frequency

225
Q

The angle of reflection depends on

A

The angle of incidence 

226
Q

A standing wave remains ______

A

Stationary

227
Q

The fixed points at the ends of a wave are _____

A

Nodes

228
Q

Is a period of a pendulum connected to how high it swings?

A

No

229
Q

As the altitude of the pendulum increases due to resonance , it will swing______

A

Higher

TExES Science 7-12 (3 decks)

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