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Cisco CCNA > Practice Chapters 1-5 > Flashcards

Practice Chapters 1-5 Flashcards

1
Q

1.1 Which one of the following is true about the Cisco core layer in the three-tier design?
A. Never do anything to slow down traffic. This includes making sure you don’t use access lists, perform routing between virtual local area networks, or implement packet filtering.
B. It’s best to support workgroup access here.
C. Expanding the core, e.g., adding routers as the internetwork grows, is highly recommended as a first step in expansion.
D. All cables from the Core must connect to the TOR.

A
  1. A. The core layer should be as fast as possible. Never do anything to slow down traffic. This includes making sure you don’t use access lists, perform routing between virtual local area networks, or implement packet filtering.
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2
Q

1.2 Which one of the following best describes a SOHO network?
A. It uses ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff as a layer 2 unicast address, which makes it more efficient in a small network
B. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol exclusively, which saves bandwidth in a small network.
C. A single or small group of users connecting to a switch, with a router providing a connection to the internet
D. SOHO is the network cabling used from the access layer to the TOR

A

C. SOHO stands for small office, home office and is a single or small group of users connecting to a switch, with a router providing a connection to the Internet for the small network.

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3
Q

1.3 Which two of the following describe the access layer in the three-tier network design? (Choose two.)
A. Microsegmentation
B. Broadcast control
C. PoE
D. Connections to TOR

A

A, C. The access layer provides users, phones, and other devices with access to the
internetwork. PoE and switch port security are implemented here.

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4
Q

1.4 Which fiber type is a Cisco standard and has a distance of over 40 miles?
A. 1000Base-SX
B. 1000Base-LX
C. 1000Base-ZX
D. 10GBase-T

A

C. 1000Base-ZX (Cisco standard) is a Cisco-specified standard for Gigabit Ethernet
communication. 1000Base-ZX operates on ordinary single-mode fiber-optic links with spans up to 43.5 miles (70 km).

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5
Q

1.5 What is the speed of a T3?
A. 1.544Mbps
B. 2.0Mbps
C. 100Mpbs
D. 44.736Mbps

A

D. A T3, referred to as an S3, comprises 28 DS1s bundled together, or 672 DS0s, for a bandwidth of 44.736 Mbps.

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6
Q

1.6 Which of the following is not provided by today’s NGFWs?
A. IPS Inspection
B. Layer 2 deep packet inspection
C. Application Visibility and Control (AVC)
D. Network Address Translation (NAT)

A

B. Since there is no such thing as layer 2 packets, we wouldn’t be able to do packet
inspection with any device on this nonexistent packet type.

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7
Q

1.7 Which of the following is the standard for PoE+?
A. 802.3P
B. 802.3af
C. 802.3at
D. 802.3v6

A

C. The IEEE has created a standard for PoE called 802.3af. For PoE+, it’s referred to as 802.3at.

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8
Q

1.8 Which of the following defines a two-tier design?
A. The access layer connects to the distribution layer, and the 2-tiers then connect to the core layer.
B. In a two-tier design, the distribution layer is merged with the core layer.
C. It’s best to support workgroup access in the two-tier layer
D. All cables from the core must connect to the two-tier TOR

A

B. In a two-tier, the design is meant to maximize performance and user availability to the network, while still allowing for design scalability over time.

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9
Q

1.9 What is the speed of the 802.3.an standard?
A. 100Mbps
B. 1Gbps
C. 10Gbps
D. 100Gbps

A

C. 10GBase-T is a standard proposed by the IEEE 802.3an committee to provide 10 Gbps
connections over conventional UTP cables (category 5e, 6, or 7 cables).

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10
Q

1.10 In a spine-leaf design, which is true?
A. The switches are found at the top of each rack that connect to the servers in the rack.
B. The distribution layer is merged with the core layer.
C. The access layer connects to the distribution layer, and the two-tiers then connect to the core layer.
D. All cables from the core must connect to the spine, which connects to the leaf device.

A

A. In a spine-leaf design, people refer to this as a Top-of-Rack (ToR) design because the switches physically reside at the top of a rack.

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11
Q

2.1 What must happen if a DHCP IP conflict occurs?
A. Proxy ARP will fix the issue.
B. The client uses a gratuitous ARP to fix the issue.
C. The administrator must fix the conflict by hand at the DHCP server.
D. The DHCP server will reassign new IP addresses to both computers.

A

C. If a DHCP conflict is detected, either by the server sending a ping and getting a response or by a host using a gratuitous ARP (arp’ing for its own IP address and seeing if a host responds), then the server will hold that address and not use it again until it is fixed by an administrator.

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12
Q

2.2 Which of the following Application layer protocols sets up a secure session that’s similar to Telnet?
A. FTP
B. SSH
C. DNS
D. DHCP

A

B. The Secure Shell (SSH) protocol sets up a secure session that’s similar to Telnet over a standard TCP/IP connection and is employed for doing things like logging into systems, running programs on remote systems, and moving files from one system to another.

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13
Q

2.3 Which of the following mechanisms is used by the client to avoid a duplicate IP address during the DHCP process?
A. Ping
B. Traceroute
C. Gratuitous ARP
D. Pathping

A
  1. C. A host uses something called a gratuitous ARP to help avoid a possible duplicate address. The DHCP client sends an ARP broadcast out on the local LAN or VLAN with its newly assigned address to find out if another host replies, and this helps solve conflicts before they occur.
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14
Q

2.4 Which of the following describe the DHCP Discover message? (Choose two.)
A. It uses ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff as a layer 2 broadcast.
B. It uses UDP as the Transport layer protocol.
C. It uses TCP as the Transport layer protocol.
D. It does not use a layer 2 destination address.

A

A, B. The client that sends out a DHCP Discover message in order to receive an IP address sends out a broadcast at both layer 2 and layer 3. The layer 2 broadcast is all Fs in hex, or ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff. The layer 3 broadcast is 255.255.255.255, which means any networks and all hosts. DHCP is connectionless, which means it uses User Datagram Protocol (UDP) at the Transport layer, also called the Host-to-Host layer.

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15
Q

2.5 Which of the following services use TCP? (Choose three.)
A. DHCP
B. SMTP
C. SNMP
D. FTP
E. HTTP
F. TFTP

A

B, D, E. SMTP, FTP, and HTTP use TCP.

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16
Q

2.6 Which of the following is an example of a multicast address?
A. 10.6.9.1
B. 192.168.10.6
C. 224.0.0.10
D. 172.16.9.5

A

C. The range of multicast addresses starts with 224.0.0.0 and goes through 239.255.255.255.

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17
Q

2.7 Which two of the following are private IP addresses?
A. 12.0.0.1
B. 168.172.19.39
C. 172.20.14.36
D. 172.33.194.30
E. 192.168.24.43

A

C, E. The Class A private address range is 10.0.0.0 through 10.255.255.255. The Class. B private address range is 172.16.0.0 through 172.31.255.255, and the Class C private address range is 192.168.0.0 through 192.168.255.255.

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18
Q

2.8 What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model?
A. Application
B. Host-to-Host
C. Internet
D. Network Access

A

B. The four layers of the TCP/IP stack (also called the DoD model) are Application/Process, Host-to-Host (also called Transport on the objectives), Internet, and Network Access/Link. The Host-to-Host layer is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI model.

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19
Q

2.9 Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A. ICMP guarantees datagram delivery.
B. ICMP can provide hosts with information about network problems.
C. ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams.
D. ICMP is encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

A

B, C. ICMP is used for diagnostics and destination unreachable messages. ICMP is encapsulated within IP datagrams, and because it is used for diagnostics, it will provide hosts with information about network problems.

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20
Q

2.10 What is the address range of a Class B network address in binary?
A. 01xxxxxx
B. 0xxxxxxx
C. 10xxxxxx
D. 110xxxxx

A

C. The range of a Class B network address is 128–191. This makes our binary range 10xxxxxx.

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21
Q

3.1. What is the maximum number of IP addresses that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?

A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 30
E. 31
F. 62

A

D. A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The number of subnet bits would never change.

22
Q

3.2. You have a network that needs 29 subnets while maximizing the number of host addresses
available on each subnet. How many bits must you borrow from the host field to provide the correct subnet mask?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7

A

D. A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need more
subnets, so let’s add subnet bits. One more subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts per subnet). This is the best answer.

23
Q

3.3 What is the subnetwork address for a host with the IP address 200.10.5.68/28?

A. 200.10.5.56
B. 200.10.5.32
C. 200.10.5.64
D. 200.10.5.0

A

C. This is a pretty simple question. A /28 is 255.255.255.240, which means that our block size is 16 in the fourth octet. 0, 16, 32, 48, 64, 80, etc. The host is in the 64 subnet.

24
Q

3.4 The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 provides how many subnets and hosts?

A. 7 subnets, 30 hosts each
B. 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
C. 7 subnets, 8,190 hosts each
D. 8 subnets, 30 hosts each
E. 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each
F. 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each

A

F. A CIDR address of /19 is 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits, or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.

25
Q

3.5 Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0.
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

A

B, D. The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.

26
Q

3.6 If a host on a network has the address 172.16.45.14/30, what is the subnetwork this host belongs to?

A. 172.16.45.0
B. 172.16.45.4
C. 172.16.45.8
D. 172.16.45.12
E. 172.16.45.16

A

D. A /30, regardless of the class of address, has a 252 in the fourth octet. This means we have a block size of 4 and our subnets are 0, 4, 8, 12, 16, etc. Address 14 is obviously in the 12 subnet.

27
Q

3.7 Which mask should you use on point-to-point links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses?

A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
E. /31

A

D. A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two hosts per subnet.

28
Q

3.8 What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21?

A. 172.16.36.0
B. 172.16.48.0
C. 172.16.64.0
D. 172.16.0.0

A

C. A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, so we just count by 8 until we reach 66. The subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is 72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is 71.255.

29
Q

3.9 You have an interface on a router with the IP address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the router interface, how many hosts can have IP addresses on the LAN attached to the router interface?

A. 6
B. 8
C. 30
D. 62
E. 126

A

A. A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six is the maximum number of hosts on this LAN, including the router interface.

30
Q

3.10 You need to configure a server that is on the subnet 192.168.19.24/29. The router has the first available host address. Which of the following should you assign to the server?

A. 192.168.19.0 255.255.255.0
B. 192.168.19.33 255.255.255.240
C. 192.168.19.26 255.255.255.248
D. 192.168.19.31 255.255.255.248
E. 192.168.19.34 255.255.255.240

A

C. A /29 is 255.255.255.248, which is a block size of 8 in the fourth octet. The subnets are 0, 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, etc. 192.168.19.24 is the 24 subnet, and since 32 is the next subnet, the broadcast address for the 24 subnet is 31. 192.168.19.26 is the only correct answer.

31
Q

4.1 On a VLSM network, which mask should you use on point-to-point WAN links in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses?

A. /27
B. /28
C. /29
D. /30
E. /31

A
  1. D. A point-to-point link uses only two hosts. A /30, or 255.255.255.252, mask provides two hosts per subnet.
32
Q

4.2 If a host is configured with an incorrect default gateway and all the other computers and router are known to be configured correctly, which of the following statements is true?

A. Host A cannot communicate with the router.
B. Host A can communicate with other hosts in the same subnet.
C. With an incorrect gateway, Host A will not be able to communicate with the router or beyond the router but will be able to communicate within the subnet.
D. Host A can communicate with no other systems.

A

B. With an incorrect gateway, Host A will not be able to communicate with the router or beyond the router but will be able to communicate within the subnet.

33
Q

4.3 Which of the following troubleshooting steps, if completed successfully, also confirms that the other steps will succeed as well?

A. Ping a remote computer.
B. Ping the loopback address.
C. Ping the NIC.
D. Ping the default gateway.

A

A. All steps will work at this point, except pinging the remote computer would fail if any of the other steps fail.

34
Q

4.4 When a ping to the local host IP address fails, what can you assume?

A. The IP address of the local host is incorrect.
B. The IP address of the remote host is incorrect.
C. The NIC is not functional.
D. The IP stack has failed to initialize.

A

C. When a ping to the local host IP address fails, you can assume the NIC is not functional.

35
Q

4.5 When a ping to the local host IP address succeeds but a ping to the default gateway IP address fails, what can you rule out? (Choose all that apply.)

A. The IP address of the local host is incorrect.
B. The IP address of the gateway is incorrect.
C. The NIC is not functional.
D. The IP stack has failed to initialize.

A

C, D. If a ping to the local host succeeds, you can rule out IP stack or NIC failure.

36
Q

4.6 What network service is the most likely problem if you can ping a computer by IP address but not by name?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP

A

A. The most likely problem if you can ping a computer by IP address but not by name is a failure of DNS.

37
Q

4.7 When you issue the ping command, what protocol are you using?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP

A

D. When you issue the ping command, you are using the ICMP protocol.

38
Q

4.8 Which of the following commands displays the networks traversed on a path to a network destination?

A. ping
B. traceroute
C. pingroute
D. pathroute

A

B. The traceroute command displays the networks traversed on a path to a network destination.

39
Q

4.9 What command generated the output shown below?
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time
Reply from 172.16.10.2: bytes=32 time

A. traceroute
B. show ip route
C. ping
D. pathping

A

C. The ping command tests connectivity to another station. The full command output is shown in the question.

40
Q

4.10 What switch must be added to the ipconfig command on a PC to verify DNS configuration?

A. /dns
B. -dns
C. /all
D. showall

A

C. The /all switch must be added to the ipconfig command on a PC to verify DNS configuration.

41
Q

5.1 What command was used to generate the following output?
Codes: L - local, C - connected, S - static,
[output cut]
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 4 masks
C 10.0.0.0/8 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/3
L 10.0.0.1/32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/3
C 10.10.0.0/16 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2
L 10.10.0.1/32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/2
C 10.10.10.0/24 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
L 10.10.10.1/32 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/0
A. show routing table
B. show route
C. Show ip route
D. Show all route

A

C. The ip route command is used to display the routing table of a router.

42
Q

5.2 You are viewing the routing table and you see an entry 10.1.1.1/32. What legend code would you expect to see next to this route?

A. C
B. L
C. S
D. D

A

B. In the new 15 IOS code, Cisco defines a different route called a local route. Each has a /32 prefix defining a route just for the one address, which is the router’s interface.

43
Q

5.3 Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.2? (Choose two.)

A. The command is used to establish a static route.
B. The default administrative distance is used.
C. The command is used to configure the default route.
D. The subnet mask for the source address is 255.255.255.0.
E. The command is used to establish a stub network.

A

A, B. Although option D almost seems right, it is not; the mask option is the mask used on the remote network, not the source network. Since there is no number at the end of the static route, it is using the default administrative distance of 1.

44
Q

5.4 Using the output shown, what protocol was used to learn the MAC address for 172.16.10.1?

Interface: 172.16.10.2 — 0x3 Internet Address Physical Address Type 172.16.10.1 00-15-05-06-31-b0 dynamic

A. ICMP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP

A

B. This mapping was learned dynamically, which means it was learned through ARP.

45
Q

5.5 Which of the following is called an advanced distance-vector routing protocol?

A. OSPF
B. EIGRP
C. BGP
D. RIP

A

B. Hybrid protocols use aspects of both distance vector and link state—for example, EIGRP. Be advised, however, that Cisco typically just calls EIGRP an advanced distancevector routing protocol.

46
Q

5.6 When a packet is routed across a network, the ____ in the packet changes at every hop while the ___ does not.

A. MAC address, IP address
B. IP address, MAC address
C. Port number, IP address
D. IP address, port number

A

A. Since the destination MAC address is different at each hop, it must keep changing. The IP address, which is used for the routing process, does not. Do not be misled by the way the question is worded. Yes, I know that MAC addresses are not in a packet. You must read the question to understand of what it is really asking.

47
Q

5.7 When a router looks up the destination in the routing table for every single packet, it is called:

A. dynamic switching
B. fast switching
C. process switching
D. Cisco Express Forwarding

A

C. This is how most people see routers, and certainly they could do this type of plain ol’ packet switching in 1990 when Cisco released its very first router and traffic was seriously slow, but not in today’s networks! This process involves looking up every destination in the routing table and finding the exit interface for every packet.

48
Q

5.8 What type(s) of route is the following? (Choose all that apply.)
S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 172.16.10.5

A. Default
B. Subnetted
C. Static
D. Local

A

A, C. The S* shows that this is a candidate for default route and that it was configured manually.

49
Q

5.9 A network administrator views the output from the show ip route command. A network that is advertised by both RIP and OSPF appears in the routing table flagged as an OSPF
route. Why is the RIP route to this network not used in the routing table?

A. OSPF has a faster update timer.
B. OSPF has a lower administrative distance.
C. RIP has a higher metric value for that route.
D. The OSPF route has fewer hops.
E. The RIP path has a routing loop.

A

B. RIP has an administrative distance (AD) of 120, while OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, so the router will discard any route with a higher AD than 110 to that
same network.

50
Q

5.10 Which of the following is not an advantage of static routing?

A. Less overhead on the router CPU
B. No bandwidth usage between routers
C. Adds security
D. Recovers automatically from lost routes

A

D. Recovery from a lost route requires manual intervention by a human to replace the lost route.

Cisco CCNA (36 decks)

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