Practice Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

A user inspects and learns about the electrical components on the inside of a computer. What is measured in ohms?

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Resistance
d) Watts

A

c) Resistance

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2
Q

A user looks to reconfigure an IP address for a network adapter. Using a graphical user interface (GUI), which Windows 11 Control Panel applet is the most direct?

a) Internet options
b) Network and Internet
c) Network and Sharing Center
d) Advanced sharing settings

A

c) Network and Sharing Center

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3
Q

A user suspects that a USB drive on their system has been tampered with. The user accidentally dropped the USB drive, breaking the chip inside it. What does the user compromise?

a) Incident documentation
b) Digital forensics
c) Latent evidence
d) Chain of custody

A

b) Digital forensics

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4
Q

A systems administrator looks to have a daily backup of a server located across a wide area network (WAN) link. As the link is not fast, the administrator creates a backup scheme that uses little to no bandwidth and acquires an entire backup of the system. Which scheme does the administrator implement?

a) Full
b) Synthetic
c) Incremental
d) Differential

A

c) Incremental

*An incremental backup is a backup scheme that only backs up the data that has changed since the last backup (whether it’s a full or incremental backup). This approach uses significantly less bandwidth and storage space because it does not involve creating a complete copy of the entire system each time.

In the scenario where the link is not fast, an incremental backup is ideal as it minimizes the amount of data transmitted over the WAN. Instead of transmitting the entire system data every day (as would happen in a full backup), only the changes made since the last backup are transferred, saving on both time and bandwidth.
Here’s why the other options are less appropriate for this scenario:

a) Full backup: A full backup copies all data on the system, regardless of whether it has changed. This would require a significant amount of bandwidth over a slow WAN link, which is not optimal in this case.

b) Differential backup: A differential backup also backs up data that has changed since the last full backup, but unlike incremental backups, each differential backup includes all changes since the last full backup. This would result in progressively larger backups as more days pass, which still requires more bandwidth than an incremental backup.*

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5
Q

A user interacts with a Linux distribution that has no desktop graphical user interface (GUI). As the user types, which stream handles the interaction?

a) stderr
b) std
c) stdout
d) stdin

A

d) stdin

*stdin (standard input): This is the stream that handles user input, such as what is typed by the user in the terminal. The user interacts with the system through this input stream when typing commands or text.

stdout (standard output): This stream is used for output from commands or applications that are run, sending data to the screen or terminal.

stderr (standard error): This stream is used for error messages or diagnostics from applications or commands that fail.

std (not a valid stream): This is not a recognized standard stream in Linux or Unix-like systems.

Since the user is interacting with the system by typing (i.e., providing input), the stdin stream is responsible for handling that interaction.*

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6
Q

A systems administrator configures a hardware firewall to allow remote desktop connections to various Windows computers. This involves port forwarding. Which port will the administrator need to change so that each system uses a unique port?

a) 22
b) 5900
c) 443
d) 3389

A

d) 3389

*Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses port 3389 by default for remote desktop connections to Windows systems. When setting up port forwarding on a hardware firewall to allow remote desktop connections to multiple systems, the administrator will need to change the external port number for each system to ensure each system uses a unique port.

For example:
If the firewall forwards external port 3389 to the internal RDP service on the first system,
The firewall could forward 3390 to the second system, 3391 to the third, and so on.
Here’s why the other options are not correct:

a) 22: Port 22 is used for SSH (Secure Shell), which is a protocol typically used for securely managing Unix/Linux systems remotely. It is not used for RDP.

b) 5900: Port 5900 is used for VNC (Virtual Network Computing), which is another remote desktop protocol, but not the default for Windows.

c) 443: Port 443 is used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure), not for remote desktop connections.*

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7
Q

A systems administrator configures a new Windows workstation. The system uses the New Technology File System (NTFS). The administrator needs the system to interact with a Linux system and support a set of common interface standards for compatibility. Which compliance does the administrator need to ensure?

a) Indexing
b) Journaling
c) Snapshots
d) POSIX

A

d) POSIX

*POSIX (Portable Operating System Interface) is a set of standards defined by the IEEE for maintaining compatibility between operating systems. POSIX compliance ensures that the system follows common interface standards, which is crucial when interacting with different operating systems, like Linux and Windows, that may have different file system and operating system conventions.

In the context of a Windows system using the New Technology File System (NTFS), POSIX compliance is important to enable better interoperability with Linux systems, which typically follow POSIX standards. This ensures that basic file and directory permissions, system calls, and other file management tasks work seamlessly across both platforms.

Let’s briefly review the other options:
a) Indexing: Indexing in NTFS is a process used to optimize the search and retrieval of files. While important for file system efficiency, it doesn’t directly address compatibility with Linux systems.

b) Journaling: Journaling is a feature used in file systems (like NTFS and ext4) to keep track of changes. It helps ensure data integrity in case of unexpected shutdowns, but it’s not specifically about compatibility between Windows and Linux.

c) Snapshots: Snapshots are a technique for taking point-in-time backups of data. While useful in data protection, snapshots are not related to system interoperability or compliance between Windows and Linux.*

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8
Q

A newly-hired software engineer reviews the company’s procedures manual on approved use of Windows scripts. What are tenets of Windows PowerShell? (Select all that Apply.)

a) It combines a script language with hundreds of prebuilt modules
b) It is built on the .NET framework
c) It is based on Microsoft’ Visual Basic programming language
d) It is written for the basic Windows CMD interpreter

A

a) It combines a script language with hundreds of prebuilt modules
b) It is built on the .NET framework

*a) It combines a script language with hundreds of prebuilt modules:
PowerShell is a powerful scripting language that integrates command-line capabilities with an extensive set of prebuilt modules and cmdlets (pronounced “command-lets”). These cmdlets allow users to automate and manage administrative tasks across various Microsoft services and applications.

b) It is built on the .NET framework:
PowerShell is built on the .NET framework, which gives it the ability to interact with .NET objects, access libraries, and use types from the .NET class library. This allows PowerShell to leverage the full power of the .NET environment for system administration tasks.
Explanation for incorrect answers:

c) It is based on Microsoft’s Visual Basic programming language:
This is incorrect. PowerShell is not based on Visual Basic; it is a separate scripting language designed by Microsoft. While both PowerShell and Visual Basic are used for automation and scripting, PowerShell is more closely tied to the .NET framework, whereas Visual Basic is a general-purpose programming language that can be used for a wide variety of applications, including Windows applications.

d) It is written for the basic Windows CMD interpreter:
This is incorrect. While PowerShell shares some similarities with the traditional CMD interpreter, it is far more powerful and is not merely an extension of CMD. PowerShell was specifically designed to offer advanced capabilities that CMD lacks, such as support for objects, remote administration, and access to .NET libraries.

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9
Q

A user builds a new computer for gaming purposes. The ability to upgrade the performance graphics processing unit (GPU) over time is desired. What GPU type does the user invest in?

a) Integrated graphics
b) Video RAM
c) Dedicated graphics
d) System RAM

A

c) Dedicated graphics

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10
Q

A user experiences a blue screen of death (BSoD) during startup while using a Windows desktop computer. Upon initial inspection, no debris is observed in the tower. What does a support technician determine to be a good first troubleshooting step?

a) Check the system for malware
b) Reinstall the operating system
c) Look for any hardware changes
d) Clean any dust from the system

A

c) Look for any hardware changes

*When a user experiences a Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) during startup, it’s often related to a hardware or driver issue. The first step in troubleshooting this issue should be to look for any recent hardware changes that may have caused the system to become unstable. This could include:

Newly installed hardware components (e.g., RAM, GPU, hard drive, etc.)
Incorrectly seated hardware components
Loose cables or connections
Identifying these potential hardware-related issues can help pinpoint the cause of the BSoD.

Explanation for incorrect answers:
a) Check the system for malware:
While malware can cause system instability, it is less likely to cause a BSoD right after startup, especially if the system hasn’t been infected recently. Malware scanning would be more appropriate after ruling out hardware and driver issues.

b) Reinstall the operating system:
Reinstalling the operating system is a more drastic measure and should only be done after all hardware and driver issues have been investigated. A BSoD can often be resolved without needing to reinstall the operating system.

d) Clean any dust from the system:
While dust buildup can cause overheating and instability, the initial inspection showed no debris. Cleaning the system might be necessary in the long term, but the first troubleshooting step should focus on hardware changes or conflicts that are more likely causing the BSoD.*

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11
Q

Windows allows for several types of installable software. Which type may be transferred between computers when a user utilizes a Microsoft account?

a) WIndows features
b) Store apps
c) Windows subsystem for Linux
d) Desktop apps

A

b) Store apps

*Windows allows several types of installable software, but when using a Microsoft account, Store apps (also known as Universal Windows Platform apps or UWP apps) are the ones that can be transferred between computers.

Store apps are linked to your Microsoft account, meaning that once you install them on one device, you can easily reinstall or transfer them to another device as long as you’re signed in with the same account. These apps are typically downloaded from the Microsoft Store.
Explanation for incorrect answers:
a) Windows features:

Windows features are built-in capabilities and services that come with Windows (e.g., Hyper-V, Windows Defender, etc.). These are not installable software and cannot be transferred like Store apps.
c) Windows Subsystem for Linux:

The Windows Subsystem for Linux (WSL) allows running a Linux environment on Windows, but it is not a type of software that is directly tied to a Microsoft account and doesn’t transfer in the same way as Store apps.
d) Desktop apps:

Desktop apps (traditional software that runs on Windows) are generally not tied to a Microsoft account for transfer purposes. They need to be reinstalled on a new computer, and the licensing may not be transferable.*

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12
Q

A user looks to implement Virtual Network Computing (VNC) access to a Windows computer while traveling. Which port does the user open on a hardware firewall to allow access?

a) 443
b) 22
c) 5900
d) 3389

A

c) 5900

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13
Q

A company implements several types of security mechanisms around a high-risk data center. One of the mechanisms allows for a panic button to be pressed. Which security type does this button represent?

a) Circuit
b) Motion
c) Duress
d) Proximity

A

c) Duress

*A duress alarm is triggered manually and could be implemented as a wireless pendant, concealed sensor or trigger, or call contact.

A circuit-based alarm sounds when the circuit is opened or closed, depending on the type of alarm. This could be caused by a door opening or by a fence being cut.

A motion-based alarm is linked to a detector triggered by movement within a room or other area. The sensors in these detectors are either microwave radio reflection or passive infrared (PIR).

Proximity alarms use radio frequency ID (RFID) tags and readers that can be used to track the movement of tagged objects within an area.*

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14
Q

A technician configures a backup routine on an important workstation. Which type does the routine use when only backing up changes since the last full backup and relatively faster during restore?

a) Synthetic
b) Full
c) Incremental
d) Differential

A

d) Differential

*Differential jobs select new files and files modified since the original full job. A differential chain has moderate time and storage requirements and relatively faster during restore compared to incremental backups since only the last differential back up is required for restore.

A synthetic backup is an option for creating full backups with lower data transfer requirements. A synthetic full backup is not generated directly from the original data but instead assembled from other backup jobs.

A full backup means that the backup job produces a file that contains all the data from the source. This means that the backup file is nominally the same size.

Incremental jobs select only new files and files modified since the previous job. An incremental job has the lowest time and storage requirement, but incremental backups have a longer restore time compared to differential backups since all incremental tapes are required for a restore. *

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14
Q

A technician would like to set every Windows computer at an organization to have a company logo as a desktop wallpaper. What does the technician determine as the best method for deploying the setting?

a) Login script
b) Domain group policy
c) Local group policy
d) Administrative template

A

b) Domain group policy

*A domain group policy configures computer settings and user profile settings for all computers and user accounts within a domain. This type of policy would satisfy the requirement.

A login script performs some type of configuration or process activity when the user signs in. A script would not be used to set wallpaper.

A local group policy configures computer settings and user profile settings on an individual system. This would need to be done on each system which is time-consuming and prone to error.

Administrative templates contain particular configurations and can be used to define settings in third-party software too.*

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14
Q

An engineer configures an Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) server to authenticate credentials for remote users. Credentials are forwarded to the AAA server from a firewall. Which AAA method does the engineer utilize?

a) TACAS+
b) RADIUS
c) Kerberos
d) Active Directory

A

b) RADIUS

*Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) is one way of implementing the AAA server when configuring enterprise authentication. The firewall is configured as a client of the RADIUS server.

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) is a way of implementing AAA and is often used in authenticating administrative access to routers and switches.

On Windows networks, Kerberos is a protocol that allows a user account to authenticate to a domain controller (DC) over a trusted local cabled segment.

The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update an X.500 directory such as Windows Active Directory.*

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15
Q

A tech has an Android tablet that no longer receives updates due to its age. Learning that a custom firmware with new features is available, what does the tech require to install the image?

a) Jailbreak
b) Root access
c) Sideload
d) Wipe

A

b) Root access

*For some devices, it is necessary to exploit a vulnerability or use custom firmware. Custom firmware is essentially a new Android OS image applied to the device and requires root access to install.

iOS jailbreaking is accomplished by booting the device with a patched kernel. For most exploits, this can only be done when the device is attached to a computer while it boots (tethered jailbreak).

Sideloading is the action of installing applications that are obtained outside of the device’s official app store.

Wiping a device will reset the device to its factory state. Wiping is involved with installing a new firmware image; however, root access is required to install the image.*

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16
Q

A technician is troubleshooting a Windows system using the command prompt and is currently in the directory C:\Backup. They need to navigate to the subdirectory 02102022 within C:\Backup. Which command should they use to enter the subdirectory directly?

a) cd\ 02102022
b) cd.. 02102022
c) cd 02102022
d) cd .\Backup\02102022

A

c) cd 02102022

*A user can easily navigate a Windows system by issuing the change directory (CD) command. The cd command followed by a space and then by a directory name will move to that directory.

When navigating directories on a Windows system with a command prompt, the change directory (cd) command is used. The cd\ command will navigate to a higher level in the folder structure.

The change directory (cd) command is used when navigating between directories when using a Windows command prompt. The cd.. command will move the user to a high level in the folder structure.

Using the command cd .\Backup\02102022 is not a valid command. It will return an error of “The system cannot find the path specified.*

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17
Q

A user looks to reconfigure an IP address for a network adapter. Using a graphical user interface (GUI), which Windows 11 Control Panel applet is the most direct?

a) Internet options
b) Network and Internet
c) Network and Sharing Center
d) Advanced sharing settings

A

b) Network and Internet

*The Network and Internet configuration area is the modern settings app used to view network status, change the IP address properties of each adapter, and access other tools.

The Internet Options Control Panel applet exposes the configuration settings for Microsoft’s Internet Explorer (IE) browser.

The Network and Sharing Center is a Control Panel applet that shows various status information for a current network connection.

The advanced sharing settings is a Control Panel applet that configures network discovery (allows detection of other hosts on the network) and enables or disables file and printer sharing.*

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18
Q

A user suspects that a USB drive on their system has been tampered with. The user accidentally dropped the USB drive, breaking the chip inside it. What does the user compromise?

a) Incident documentation
b) Digital forensics
c) Latent evidence
d) Chain of custody

A

c) Latent evidence

*Digital evidence is mostly latent. Latent means that the evidence cannot be seen with the naked eye; rather, it must be interpreted using a machine or process.

Documenting the scene of an incident is important; using photographs and ideally video and audio. Investigators must record every action they take.

Digital forensics is the science of collecting evidence from computer systems to a standard that will be accepted in a court of law.

The evidence collected at the crime scene must conform to a valid timeline. Digital information is susceptible to tampering, so access to the evidence must be tightly controlled. In this case, only the user has handled the drive.*

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19
Q

A systems administrator looks to have a daily backup of a server located across a wide area network (WAN) link. As the link is not fast, the administrator creates a backup scheme that uses little to no bandwidth and acquires an entire backup of the system. Which scheme does the administrator implement?

a) Full
b) Synthetic
c) Incremental
d) Differential

A

b) Synthetic

20
Q

A user opens a help desk ticket after seeing that a company video, embedded within a particular internal webpage, is not displaying as it should. What does a support technician conclude to be the most likely issue?

a) A plugin
b) An extension
c) A search provider
d) An API

A

a) A plugin

*Plugins play or show some sort of content embedded in a web page, or other video/multimedia format. In this case, a plugin is missing a particular page that is not displaying content.

Extensions add or change a browser feature via its application programming interface (API). For example, an extension might install a toolbar or change menu options.

A search provider indicates the site used to perform web searches directly from the address bar.

An application programming interface (API) is a method used by developers to integrate custom-developed software with other software applications.*

21
Q

A technician receives a company laptop from an employee who states they are trying to authenticate from one Windows system to another in a domain but fails with no error message. They have verified the username and password are correct. What does the technician determine the issue to be?

a) Application crash
b) Time drift
c) Failed service
d) Blue screen of death

A

b) Time drift

*Processes such as authentication and backup depend on the time reported by the local PC being closely synchronized to the time kept by a server.

If an application crashes, the priority is to try to preserve any data that was being processed. Users should be trained to save regularly. This would not prevent a login.

If a message such as “One or more services failed to start during the Windows load sequence” appears, check Event Viewer to identify which service has failed.

A blue screen of death (BSoD) displays a Windows STOP error. A STOP error is one that causes Windows to halt. A BSoD is a symptom of a crash and not a cause of a login problem.*

22
Q

Windows allows for several types of installable software. Which type may be transferred between computers when a user utilizes a Microsoft account?

a) Windows features
b) Store apps
c) Windows subsystem for Linux
d) Desktop apps

A

b) Store apps

*Store apps are installed via the Microsoft Store. Store apps can be transferred between any Windows device where the user signs in with that Microsoft account.

Windows features are components of the operating system that can be enabled or disabled. For example, the Hyper-V virtualization platform can be installed as an optional feature in supported Windows editions.

Windows subsystem for Linux (WSL) allows the installation of a Linux distribution and the use of Linux applications.

Desktop apps are installed by running a setup program or Microsoft installer (MSI) installer. These apps require administrator privileges to install.*

23
Q

A user would like to delete a mapped drive labeled as “X” on a Windows system. Which command will the user issue at the command prompt?

a) net use X: /delete
b) net delete
c) net delete *
d) net use X: \server\share

A

a) net use X: /delete

*There are several net and net use command utilities that are useful in viewing and configuring shared resources on a Windows network. To delete a drive mapping, the correct syntax is net use X: /delete.

The net use command can map and delete a mapped drive. The correct syntax is to use the net use command with a /delete switch.

When using the net use command, a /delete switch is issued to delete a mapped drive. The * would delete all mapped drives.

When there is a need to map a drive using a command line, the net use command is issued. Net use X: \server\share would map a drive.*

24
Q

A computer store help technician installs a Windows 10 edition that is designed for domestic consumers and SOHO business use. What edition has been installed in this instance?

a) Pro
b) Education
c) Enterprise
d) Home

A

d) Home

25
Q

True or False? Within ADUC, a group can be a member of another group?

A

True

26
Q

True or False? The General tab of user properties displays the users’ password settings

A

False

27
Q

True or False? The ADUC object “Domain Controllers” is considered an Organizational Unit (OU)

A

True

28
Q

A user needs to restore a problematic Windows system to its original factory state. What approach does the user utilize to achieve the restoration?

a) Windows refresh
b) Recovery partition
c) Clean install
d) In-place upgrade

A

b) Recovery partition

29
Q

An organization executes a project to replace all of its servers. A change that is requested by management goes through a risk analysis exercise before moving to approval. What attributes are associated with qualitative approaches? (Select all that apply.)

a) Pervious experience
b) Opinions
c) Discrete values
d) Data

A

a) Pervious experience
b) Opinions

30
Q

A security engineer suggests the use of proximity technology to track the movement of portable equipment. What solution does the engineer recommend?

a) Passive infrared
b) Microwave radio
c) Radio frequency
d) Concealed sensor

A

c) Radio frequency

*With proximity sensors, radio frequency ID (RFID) tags and readers can be used to track the movement of tagged objects within an area.

A security mechanism might use passive infrared (PIR) technology. This technology uses temperature and can detect moving heat sources.

The sensors in microwave radio security devices use detectors. These detectors may use reflection, such as those used in radar for example.

A duress alarm is manually triggered and could be implemented as a wireless pendant or concealed sensor or button. The alarm is triggered like a panic button*

31
Q

A Windows 10 computer user requires help from the IT department. A technician provides a passcode to the user and connects over port 443. What type of Windows help session does the user create when using CTRL+START+Q?

a) Microsoft Quick Assist
b) Microsoft Remote Desktop
c) Microsoft Remote Assistance
d) Secure Shell

A

a) Microsoft Quick Assist

*Windows 10 feature updates introduced the Quick Assist feature as an alternative to Microsoft Remote Assistance (MSRA). The helper must be signed in with a Microsoft account and generate the passcode for the sharer. Quick Assist works over the encrypted HTTPS port TCP/443.

With a remote desktop, a target PC runs a graphical terminal server to accept connections from clients.

Microsoft Remote Assistance (MSRA) allows a user to ask for help from a technician or co-worker via an invitation file protected by a passcode.

Secure Shell (SSH) is a remote access protocol that uses a command interpreter rather than a desktop window manager. SSH is typically used to manage hardware devices such as wireless access points.*

32
Q

An IPv6 address is made up of bits that identify the network and host of a system. How many bits long is an IPv6 address in total, and how many bits identify the host portion? (Select all that apply.)

a) 128
b) 32
c) 256
d) 64

A

a) 128 and d) 64

*In IPv6, the address is 128 bits long and the network prefixes are used to identify logical networks within the first 64 bits. IPv6 uses hexadecimal values for notation.

In IPv6, the address is 128 bits long and the interface address portion is always the last 64 bits.

In IPv4, the 32-bit address is combined with a 32-bit subnet mask, both of which are typically entered in dotted decimal notation.

Neither an IPv4 nor an IPv6 network address is 256 bits long. 256 bits are often used in security and encryption.*

33
Q

After a recent driver update on a Windows system, the display adapter does not function properly. A technician tries to roll back the driver by using which management console?

a) device managment console
b) disk managemnet console
c) dfrgui.exe
d) lusrmgr.msc

A

a) device managment console

*The Device Manager (devmgmt.msc) console allows administrators to view, edit, and troubleshoot the properties of installed hardware, update drivers, and remove or disable devices.

The Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc) console displays a summary of any fixed and removable disks.

The Defragment and Optimize Drives tool (dfrgui.exe) runs various operations to speed up the performance of hard disk drives (HDDs) and solid-state drives (SSDs).

The Local Users and Groups (lusrmgr.msc) console provides administrators with an advanced interface for creating, modifying, disabling, and deleting user accounts. This console is also useful for resetting the password for an account.*

34
Q

A Windows user runs the Defragment and Optimize Drives tool (dfrgui.exe) on a solid state drive (SSD). What action will the tool take on the drive? (Select all that apply.)

a) Rewriting of data into contigous clusters
b) Identifying blocks that are deletable
c) Tagging blocks as writable
d) Tracking files that can be safely erased

A

b) Identifying blocks that are deletable
c) Tagging blocks as writable

*On a solid state drive (SSD), data is stored in units called blocks that are not directly managed by the OS. The tool runs a trim process that identifies data that the OS has marked as deletable.

When the tool initiates a trim, data that is marked as deletable ultimately has its occupied blocks tagged as writable.

The Defragment and Optimize Drives tool (dfrgui.exe) tool runs various operations to speed up a disk. On a hard disk, the tool rewrites file data so that it occupies contiguous clusters.

The Disk Clean-up (cleanmgr.exe) tool tracks files that can be safely erased to reclaim disk space.*

35
Q

A network engineer implements a proxy at a small company. The configuration does not require settings on every client machine. What type of proxy does the engineer deploy? (Select all that apply.)

a) Manual
b) Transparent
c) Autoconfiguring
d) Intercepting

A

b) Transparent and d) Intercepting

*A proxy server can improve both performance and security. A transparent proxy does not require any client configuration as the server handles the appropriate settings.

Some networks use a proxy to provide network connectivity. An intercepting proxy does not require that each client is individually configured.

With a manual proxy, each client must be configured with the IP address and TCP port to use to forward traffic via the proxy.

Proxy server settings can be done via Network and internet settings on a Windows client. This includes a fully manual option to input proxy settings or to automatically detect proxy settings. Whichever setting is used, it would still have to be configured on the client itself.*

36
Q

An engineer configures numerous firewall rules on a system. If no specific rule or permission explicitly grants access and is automatically denied by default, what security function is in place?

a) Implicit deny
b) Explicit deny
c) Least privilege
d) Physical control

A

a) Implicit deny

*Implicit deny means that unless there is a rule specifying that access should be granted, any request for access is denied.

Explicit deny means that a specific rule is created that denies any access to a system or service.

Least privilege means that a user should be granted the minimum possible rights necessary to perform the job. This can be complex to apply in practice as security can be restrictive.

Physical security and control measures dictate who can access a building or a secure area of a building, such as a server room.*

37
Q

A user installs an app on a smart device. The device’s official app store does not list the app, as it is a proprietary app for an organization. What type of installation does the user complete?

a) Bootleg
b) Spoofed
c) Root
d) Sideload

A

d) Sideload

*With unknown sources enabled on an Android device, untrusted apps can be downloaded from a website and installed using the .APK file format. This is referred to as sideloading.

A bootleg app is one that pirates or very closely mimics a legitimate app. Users might be tempted to enable unknown sources and install this type of app.

A malicious app will typically spoof a legitimate app by using a very similar name and use fake reviews and automated downloads to boost its apparent popularity.

Root access is associated with Android devices. Some vendors provide authorized mechanisms for users to access the root account on a device.*

38
Q

A problematic Windows system with multiple operating systems installed does not boot properly. A support technician tries to diagnose by outlining the boot process. The technician determines that the system uses an Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI) system partition. Which file does the technician inspect for problems related to a specific operating system boot problem?

a) BOOTMGR
b) NTOSKRNL
c) HAL
d) BOOTMGFW

A

d) BOOTMGFW

*The GUID partition table (GPT) identifies a System Partition. The system partition contains the boot manager and the boot configuration data (BCD). Each Windows installation has a subfolder under \EFI\Microsoft\ that contains a BCD and BOOTMGFW.EFI.

During boot, the master boot record (MBR) identifies the boot sector for the partition marked as active. The boot sector loads the boot manager, which for Windows is BOOTMGR.EXE.

The Windows boot manager loads the Windows boot loader WINLOAD.EXE stored in the system root folder on the boot partition. The process then loads the kernel (NTOSKRNL.EXE).

In a Windows system, the hardware abstraction layer (HAL.DLL) is loaded during the WINLOAD boot process.*

39
Q

A Windows user is not able to resolve server names on a local network. After updating the system’s hosts file, which command does the user issue?

a) ipconfig /renew
b) ipconfig /release
c) ipconfig /flushdns
d) ipconfig /all

A

c) ipconfig /flushdns

40
Q

What might a security engineer suggest as a solution to deter lunchtime attacks?

a) Strong password
b) Biometrics
c) Permissions
d) Policies

A

**d) Policies*

*A lunchtime attack is where a threat actor is able to access a computer that has been left unlocked. Policies can configure screensavers that lock the desktop after a period of inactivity.

A strong password is recommended to protect a system. However, a lunchtime attack occurs on a system that is unlocked and logged in.

Biometrics are a good way to provide authentication and multifactor authentication to a system. A lunchtime attack, however, occurs on a system that is already unlocked and logged in.

Permissions pertain to what a user can do on a system. Permissions will not deter a lunchtime attack.*

41
Q

A computer security team investigates a high-level computer breach at a large company. While investigating one of the computers in question, the team found that computer equipment was improperly secured, causing the equipment to be passed around during the investigation with no tracking. With respect to digital forensics, what are the primary concerns for the team from this discovery? (Select all that apply.)

a) Incident documentation
b) Latent evidence
c) Chain of custody
d) Data integrity

A

c) Chain of custody
d) Data integrity

*Chain of Custody refers to the sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence. It is crucial to maintain a record to show who has had control of the evidence to ensure its integrity and admissibility in court. In this case, the computer equipment could be critical evidence, so maintaining its chain of custody is essential.

Data Integrity refers to the authorized or unauthorized manipulation of data. Digital information is susceptible to tampering. The team must ensure that the data on the drive hasn’t been altered in any unauthorized way.

Incident documentation, while important for investigations generally, is not specifically a concern tied to the discovery of the computer equipment in this question.

Latent evidence usually refers to evidence not easily visible or interpretable without specialized processes or equipment. While it’s true that digital evidence can be considered latent, it is not one of the primary concerns related specifically to the computer equipment in this question.*

42
Q

A user struggles with wirelessly connecting a set of headphones to a smartphone. What does the user check on the phone while troubleshooting? (Select all that apply.)

a) Bluetooth status
b) WiFi connectivity
c) AirDrop properties
d) Pairing mode

A

a) Bluetooth status
d) Pairing mode

*Bluetooth communication status would need to be checked and enabled on the smartphone. The headphones would also need to be powered on.

Pairing is a method of connecting a smartphone or other device to a peripheral device via Bluetooth. Both the phone and the headphones would need to be in pairing mode to connect.

WiFi is a method that mobile devices can connect and communicate on a local network, but this is not used for pairing/using wireless headsets.

AirDrop is an iOS feature that allows file transfer between iOS and macOS devices over a Bluetooth connection.*

43
Q

A technician configures a legacy computer for a user. Which account authentication policies does the technician implement? (Select all that apply.)

a) Change the default admin password
b) Disable the guest account
c) Set any user permissions
d) Secure any critical hardware

A

a) Change the default admin password
b) Disable the guest account

*If the default administrator account cannot be disabled, it must never be left configured with a default password.

In the current versions of Windows, the guest account is disabled by default and cannot be used to sign in. It is only enabled to facilitate passwordless file sharing in a Windows workgroup.

File permissions control whether a user can read or modify a data file or folder, either on the local PC or across the network. This management step pertains to authorization and not authentication.

Users of portable computers must be alert to the risk of physical theft of devices. Portable computers can be secured to a desk using a cable lock.*

44
Q

A user with a problematic Windows system tries to use a previously created system image. How does the user access the image? (Select all that apply.)

a) Start menu
b) Repair disk
c) Reset this PC
d) WinRE environment

A

b) Repair disk and d) WinRE environment

*Windows includes many operating system recovery and repair options. To restore a system with an image created in Backup and Restore, a repair disk can be used.

To recover a system using a backup image, use the Advanced Boot Option or the System Image Recovery option off a repair disk or recovery environment.

The Windows Start Menu provides access to many configuration and system maintenance tools to maintain operating system functionality. Creating an image can be accomplished through the Start Menu.

If an up-to-date image of a system does not exist, an option is to reinstall Windows using the “Reset this PC” option in the recovery environment.*

45
Q

An iOS smart device user notices that AirDrop is not working properly as files are not being received. What should the user check while troubleshooting? (Select all that apply.)

a) LAN
b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi
d) Near-Field

A

b) Bluetooth
c) Wi-Fi

*AirDrop is an iOS feature that allows file transfer between iOS and macOS devices over a Bluetooth connection. Bluetooth should be enabled, and devices should be in close range with each other.

In addition to having Bluetooth turned on for the device, the manufacturer, Apple, highly recommends that Wi-Fi also be enabled when using/troubleshooting the AirDrop feature.

A network in a single location is often described as a local area network (LAN). This definition encompasses many different sizes of networks with widely varying functions and capabilities.

AirDrop does not use near-field communications (NFCs). NFC is typically used for contactless retail payments and more.*

46
Q

Which root-level file allows for the automatic execution of commands in a legacy version of Windows?

a) Start button
b) Execution control
c) AutoPlay
d) autorun.inf

A

d) autorun.inf

*In a legacy versions of Windows, an inserted disk (USB or optical) would automatically run commands defined in an autorun.inf file stored in the root of the drive.

The Windows Start button, identified by the Windows logo, is the main navigation point in a Windows system.

Execution control refers to logical security technologies designed to prevent malicious software from running on a host regardless of what the user account privileges allow.

In the modern versions of Windows, an AutoPlay dialog box is shown when a program tries to automatically execute, prompting the user to take a particular action.*

47
Q

A company disposes of old computer systems. While doing so, all hard drives are removed and scheduled for physical destruction. Which method will NOT work with a solid state drive (SSD)?

a) Shredding
b) Incinerating
c) Degaussing
d) Drill and hammer tools

A

c) Degaussing

*With degaussing, a hard disk is exposed to a powerful electromagnet that disrupts the magnetic pattern that stores the data on the disk surface. Degaussing does not work with SSDs or optical media.

With shredding, a disk is ground into little pieces. A mechanical shredder works in much the same way as a paper shredder.

With incinerating, a disk is exposed to high heat to melt its components. This should be performed in a furnace designed for media sanitization. Municipal incinerators may leave remnants.

A disk can also be destroyed using drill or hammer hand tools. While safe for most cases, this method is not appropriate for the most highly confidential data as there is at least some risk of leaving fragments that could be analyzed using specialist tools.*

48
Q

A small business needs to deploy a Windows operating system on devices that will be used for both advanced business functions and personal use. They require an edition that’s tailored for their size and do not need AppLocker or Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack. Which Windows edition should they choose?

a) Windows 10 Home
b) Windows 10 Enterprise
c) Windows 10 Pro
d) WIndows 10 Education

A

c) Windows 10 Pro

49
Q

A user modifies a Windows 10 computer’s ease of access settings. Which settings group configures Keyboard usability?

a) Vision
b) Hearing
c) Power
d) Interaction

A

d) Interaction

*Interaction configures options for keyboard and mouse usability. The user can also enable speech- and eye-controlled input methods.

Vision configures options for cursor indicators, high-contrast and color-filter modes, and the Magnifier zoom tool. Additionally, the Narrator tool can be used to enable audio descriptions of the current selection.

Hearing configures options for volume, mono sound mixing, visual notifications, and closed-captioning.

Power settings are found in the Power Options applet in the Control Panel. These settings deal with a computer’s configuration as it relates to power saving mode, battery use on mobiles, and more.*