FULL FLASHCARD STUDY DECK

Question 1

Instant Search

Answer 1

Windows feature allowing rapid search of apps, data folders, messages, and the web.

Question 2

Windows Settings

Answer 2

Touch-enabled interface for managing user and system settings in Windows.

Question 3

Control Panel

Answer 3

Legacy management interface for configuring user and system settings in Windows.

Question 4

Microsoft account

Answer 4

Cloud-based SSO service allowing users to synchronize settings between multiple Windows devices.

Question 5

Account Settings

Answer 5

Windows Settings pages relating to user account creation and maintenance.

Question 6

User Accounts applet

Answer 6

Control Panel app relating to user account creation and maintenance.

Question 7

Privacy settings

Answer 7

Windows Settings pages related to personal data collection and use.

Question 8

Time & Language settings

Answer 8

Windows Settings pages allowing configuration of default data formats (date, currency, and so on), location information, and keyboard input locale.

Question 9

Personalization settings

Answer 9

Windows Settings pages related to customizing the appearance of the desktop using themes.

Question 10

Ease of Access

Answer 10

Windows Settings pages related to desktop and input/output device accessibility configuration.

Question 11

OneDrive

Answer 11

Cloud storage service operated by Microsoft and closely integrated with Windows.

Question 12

This PC

Answer 12

File system object representing a Windows computer and the disk drives installed to it.

Question 13

Recycle Bin

Answer 13

When files are deleted from a local hard disk, they are stored in the Recycle Bin. They can be recovered from here if so desired.

Question 14

File Explorer Options

Answer 14

Control Panel app related to view and browsing settings for File Explorer.

Question 15

Indexing Options

Answer 15

Control Panel app related to search database maintenance.

Question 16

System Settings

Answer 16

Windows Settings pages relating to basic and advanced system settings.

Question 17

Update & Security settings

Answer 17

Windows Settings pages related to configuring automatic patching, deploying feature updates, and managing security features.

Question 18

Windows Security

Answer 18

Touch-enabled app for configuring features such as firewall and antivirus.

Question 19

Devices settings

Answer 19

Windows Settings pages for using and configuring attached hardware.

Question 20

Phone settings

Answer 20

Windows Settings pages for associating a smartphone with Windows.

Question 21

Devices and Printers

Answer 21

Control Panel app for using and configuring attached hardware.

Question 22

Device Manager

Answer 22

Primary interface for configuring and managing hardware devices in Windows. Device Manager enables the administrator to disable and remove devices, view hardware properties and system resources, and update device drivers.

Question 23

Sound applet

Answer 23

Control Panel applet related to speaker and microphone configuration plus Windows sound events and notifications.

Question 24

Standby

Answer 24

Power-saving mode where power to all compatible components except system memory is cut. Note that systems on standby still consume some electricity.

Question 25

Hibernate

Answer 25

Power-saving state where the contents of memory are saved to hard disk (hiberfil.sys) and the computer is powered off. Restarting the computer restores the desktop.

Question 26

sleep

Answer 26

Power-saving mode in Windows. On a laptop, this functions much like standby, but on a desktop, the system also creates a hibernation file before entering the standby state.

Question 27

Power Options

Answer 27

Control Panel app related to configuring power button/lid events and power-saving modes.

Question 28

fast startup

Answer 28

Power-saving option allowing swift resume from sleep via an image of system memory contents saved to a hibernation file.

Question 29

Apps

Answer 29

Windows Settings pages relating to configuration of Windows Features and third-party software apps.

Question 30

Programs and Features

Answer 30

Control Panel applet allowing management of Windows Features and third-party software.

Question 31

Network & Internet

Answer 31

Windows Settings pages related to interface configuration, network profiles, and proxy configuration.

Question 32

Network and Sharing Center

Answer 32

Control Panel related to interface configuration, network profiles, and discovery/file sharing settings.

Question 33

Windows Defender Firewall

Answer 33

Built-in, host-based filtering of network connections.

Question 34

Internet Options

Answer 34

Control Panel applet allowing configuration of the Internet Explorer web browser.

Question 35

Administrative Tools

Answer 35

Folder in Control Panel containing default Microsoft management consoles used to configure the local system.

Question 36

WinX menu

Answer 36

Start button shortcut menu with quick access to principal configuration and management utilities.

Question 37

Run dialog

Answer 37

Windows interface for executing commands.

Question 38

Disk Management (diskmgmt.msc)

Answer 38

Console related to initializing, partitioning, and formatting disk drives.

Question 39

Mail applet

Answer 39

Control Panel applet related to configuration of Microsoft Outlook email accounts and storage files.

Question 40

Storage Spaces

Answer 40

Windows feature for creating a single storage resource from multiple devices. Data can be protected against device failure by RAID-like mirroring or parity.

Question 41

Defragment and Optimize Drives tool (dfrgui.exe)

Answer 41

Fragmentation occurs when a data file is not saved to contiguous sectors on an HDD and reduces performance. The defragmenter mitigates this and can also perform optimization operations for SSDs.

Question 42

Disk Clean-up (cleanmgr.exe)

Answer 42

Windows utility for removing temporary files to reclaim disk space.

Question 43

Gaming settings

Answer 43

Windows Settings pages related to game mode settings and Xbox integration.

Question 44

Task Scheduler (tasksch.msc)

Answer 44

Enables execution of an action (such as running a program or a script) automatically at a pre-set time or in response to some sort of trigger.

Question 45

Local Users and Groups (lusrmgr.msc)

Answer 45

Console for creating and managing user and group accounts with the authentication and permissions scope of the local system.

Question 46

Certificate Manager console (certmgr.msc)

Answer 46

Console related to managing digital certificates for the current user and trusted root certification authority certificates.

Question 47

Group Policy Editor (gpedit.msc)

Answer 47

Console related to configuring detailed user and system registry settings via policies.

Question 48

Registry Editor (regedit.exe)

Answer 48

Tool for making direct edits to the registry database, such as adding or modifying keys or values. The Registry Editor can be used to make backups of the registry.

Question 49

registry

Answer 49

In the Windows registry, a key is analogous to a folder on the file system. Keys are used to group like settings together in a hierarchy that is logical to navigate.

Question 50

hives

Answer 50

File storing configuration data corresponding to a section of the Windows registry.

Question 51

Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

Answer 51

Utility allowing Windows administrative tools to be added as snap-ins to a single interface.

Question 52

System Information (msinfo32.exe)

Answer 52

Utility that provides a report of the PC’s hardware and software configuration.

Question 53

Event Viewer (eventvwr.msc)

Answer 53

Windows console related to viewing and exporting events in the Windows logging file format.

Question 54

Task Manager (taskmgr.exe)

Answer 54

Windows utility used to monitor and manage process execution, resource utilization, user sessions, startup settings, and service configuration.

Question 55

process

Answer 55

Software program that has been executed and is running in system memory.

Question 56

Startup

Answer 56

Apps and scripts set to run when the computer starts or when the user signs in. Startup items can be configured as shortcuts, registry entries, or Task Scheduler triggers.

Question 57

Services (services.msc)

Answer 57

Windows machines run services to provide functions; for example, Plug-and-Play, the print spooler, DHCP client, and so on. These services can be viewed, configured, and started/stopped via the Services console. You can also configure which services run at startup using msconfig. You can view background services (as well as applications) using the Processes tab in Task Manager.

Question 58

Resource Monitor (resmon.exe)

Answer 58

Console for live monitoring of resource utilization data for the CPU and GPU, system memory, disk/file system, and network.

Question 59

Performance Monitor (perfmon.msc)

Answer 59

Console for reporting and recording resource utilization via counter data for object instances.

Question 60

System Configuration Utility (msconfig.exe)

Answer 60

Utility for configuring Windows startup settings.

Question 61

cmd.exe

Answer 61

Basic shell interpreter for Windows.

Question 62

Run as administrator

Answer 62

Windows feature that requires a task to be explicitly launched with elevated privileges and consented to via UAC.

Question 63

directory

Answer 63

File system object used to organize other file system objects into containers.

Question 64

dir command

Answer 64

Command-line utility that displays information about the contents of the current directory.

Question 65

cd command

Answer 65

Command-line tool used to navigate the directory structure.

Question 66

move command

Answer 66

Command-line tool for moving files.

Question 67

copy command

Answer 67

Command-line tool for copying files.

Question 68

xcopy command

Answer 68

Command-line directory and file copy utility offering improved functionality compared to the basic copy command.

Question 69

robocopy command

Answer 69

Command-line file copy utility recommended for use over the older xcopy.

Question 70

md command

Answer 70

Command-line tool for creating directories.

Question 71

rmdir

Answer 71

Command-line tool for deleting directories. The /s switch enables the deletion of non-empty directories.

Question 72

diskpart

Answer 72

Command-line utility used to configure disk partitions.

Question 73

format command

Answer 73

Command-line utility for creating a file system on a partition.

Question 74

X:

Answer 74

Command-line utility used to select the working drive.

Question 75

chkdsk

Answer 75

Command-line tool that verifies the integrity of a disk’s file system.

Question 76

shutdown command

Answer 76

Command-line tool for shutting down or restarting the computer. The command is supported by Windows and Linux, though with different syntax.

Question 77

System File Checker

Answer 77

Command-line utility that checks the integrity of system and device driver files.

Question 78

winver command

Answer 78

Command-line tool for reporting Windows version information.

Question 79

Windows

Answer 79

Windows started as version 3.1 for 16-bit computers. A workgroup version provided rudimentary network facilities. Windows NT 4 workstations and servers (introduced in 1993) provided reliable 32-bit operation and secure network facilities, based around domains. The Windows 9x clients (Windows 95, 98, and Me) had far-lower reliability and support only for workgroups but were still hugely popular as home and business machines. Windows 2000 and Windows XP workstations married the hardware flexibility and user interface of Windows 9x to the reliability and security of Windows NT, while the server versions saw the introduction of Active Directory for managing network objects. The subsequent client releases of Windows (Vista/7/8/8.1) feature a substantially different interface (Aero) with 3D features as well as security improvements. The latest client versions—Windows 10 and Windows 11—are designed for use with touch-screen devices.

Question 80

macOS

Answer 80

Proprietary (Closed-Source) OS designed by Apple for their range of iMac computers, Mac workstations, and MacBook portables.

Question 81

UNIX

Answer 81

UNIX is a family of more than 20 related operating systems that are produced by various companies. It can run on a wide variety of platforms. UNIX offers a multitude of file systems in addition to its native system. UNIX remains widely deployed in enterprise data centers to run mission-critical applications and infrastructure.

Question 82

Linux

Answer 82

Open-source OS packaged in distributions supported by a wide range of hardware and software vendors.

Question 83

Chrome OS

Answer 83

Proprietary (Closed-Sourced) OS developed by Google to run on specific laptop (chromebooks) and PC (chromeboxes) hardware.

Question 84

iPadOS

Answer 84

OS for some models of the Apple iPad tablet.

Question 85

iOS

Answer 85

OS for Apple’s iPhone smartphone and most iPad tablet models.

Question 86

update limitations

Answer 86

Product life cycle and procurement consideration where a device or product no longer receives a full range of updates or support from its vendor.

Question 87

Android

Answer 87

Cell phone/smartphone/tablet OS developed by the Open Handset Alliance (primarily driven by Google). Unlike iOS, it is an open-source OS, based on Linux.

Question 88

file system

Answer 88

Structure for file data indexing and storage created by a process of formatting a partition that allows an OS to make use of a mass storage device, such as an HDD, SSD, or thumb drive.

Question 89

New Technology File System (NTFS)

Answer 89

64-bit default file system for Windows, with file-by-file compression and RAID support as well as advanced file attribute management tools, encryption, and disk quotas.

Question 90

FAT32

Answer 90

32-bit file system used principally for system partitions and removable media.

Question 91

exFAT

Answer 91

64-bit version of the FAT file system with support for larger partition and file sizes.

Question 92

ext3

Answer 92

Standard Linux file system that includes journaling and has since been replaced with ext4.

Question 93

Apple File System (APFS)

Answer 93

Default file system for macOS-based computers and laptops.

Question 94

Compatibility concerns

Answer 94

Considerations that must be made when using an app in an environment with multiple device and OS platforms.

Question 95

end of life (EOL)

Answer 95

Product life-cycle phase where mainstream vendor support is no longer available.

Question 96

desktop

Answer 96

Graphical OS interface that allows programs to run within window containers. Desktop styles include tools for launching apps, such as the Windows Start Menu, and managing apps, such as the Windows taskbar. Changes to the desktop style over the course of version and feature updates can be confusing for users.

Question 97

32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64)

Answer 97

Processing modes referring to the size of each instruction processed by the CPU. 32-bit CPUs replaced earlier 16-bit CPUs and were used through the 1990s to the present day, though most PC and laptop CPUs now work in 64-bit mode. The main 64-bit platform is called AMD64 or EM64T (by Intel). Software can be compiled as 32-bit or 64-bit. 64-bit CPUs can run most 32-bit software, but a 32-bit CPU cannot execute 64-bit software.

Question 98

Windows editions

Answer 98

Home versus Professional versus Enterprise. Windows xp, Windows Vista, Windows 7, Windows 8, Windows 8.1, Windows 10, Windows 11

Question 99

feature updates

Answer 99

Release paradigm introduced for Windows 10 where significant changes and new features are distributed via Windows Update on a semiannual schedule.

Question 100

original equipment manufacturer (OEM)

Answer 100

In PC terms, companies that sell Windows co-branded under their own logo. OEM Windows licenses are valid only on the system that the software was installed on, and the OEM must provide support.

Question 101

BitLocker

Answer 101

Feature of Windows allowing for encryption of NTFS-formatted drives. The encryption key can be stored in a TPM chip on the computer or on a USB drive.

Question 102

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

Answer 102

Application protocol for operating remote connections to a host using a graphical interface. The protocol sends screen data from the remote host to the client and transfers mouse and keyboard input from the client to the remote host. It uses TCP port 3389.

Question 103

upgrade path

Answer 103

Earlier versions of an OS that support an in-place upgrade to a newer version, retaining settings, third-party apps, and user data files.

Question 105

Clean install

Answer 105

OS setup method where the target disk is repartitioned and formatted, removing any existing OS and/or data files.

Question 107

In-place upgrade

Answer 107

OS installation method where the setup program is launched from an existing OS. This can typically retain user data files, settings, and third-party apps.

Question 108

unattended installations

Answer 108

Deployment method where installation choices are saved in an answer file or script so that the setup program executes without manual intervention.

Question 109

image deployment

Answer 109

Deployment method where the target disk is written with an image of the new OS.

Question 110

boot media

Answer 110

Device used to start the setup program and hold source files for installing or upgrading an OS.

Question 111

master boot record (MBR)

Answer 111

Sector on a mass storage device that holds information about partitions and the OS boot loader.

Question 112

globally unique identifier(GUID) partition table (GPT)

Answer 112

Modern disk partitioning system allowing large numbers of partitions and very large partition sizes.

Question 113

recovery partition

Answer 113

OEM recovery media enabling the user to reset the system to its factory configuration.

Question 114

System requirements

Answer 114

Minimum specifications for CPU speed, memory, and disk capacity for installing an OS or app.

Question 115

distribution method

Answer 115

Formats for provisioning application installation files, such as via optical discs, downloads, and image files.

Question 116

potential impacts

Answer 116

Considerations that should be made when planning the installation or upgrade of new apps.

Question 117

Safe Mode

Answer 117

Troubleshooting startup mode that loads a limited selection of drivers and services.

Question 118

Startup Repair

Answer 118

Troubleshooting boot options that allow use of tools such as safe mode and recovery discs.

Question 119

Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE)

Answer 119

Windows troubleshooting feature that installs a command shell environment to a recovery partition to remediate boot issues.

Question 120

System Restore

Answer 120

Windows System Protection feature that allows the configuration to be reverted to a restore point.

Question 121

Roll Back Driver

Answer 121

Windows troubleshooting feature that allows removal of an update or reversion to a previous driver version.

Question 122

Reset this PC

Answer 122

Windows feature to attempt system recovery by reinstalling Windows from source.

Question 123

fixboot

Answer 123

Windows command in Windows allowing for the repair (or attempted repair) of the boot manager and boot loader.

Question 124

blue screen of death (BSoD)

Answer 124

Microsoft status screen that indicates an error from which the system cannot recover (also called a stop error). Blue screens are usually caused by bad driver software or hardware faults (memory or disk). Other operating systems use similar crash indicators, such as Apple’s pinwheel and Linux’s kernel panic message.

Question 125

drifting out of sync

Answer 125

Situation where hosts on a network are not closely synchronized to the same date/time source.

Question 126

network interface card (NIC)

Answer 126

Adapter card that provides one or more Ethernet ports for connecting hosts to a network so that they can exchange data over a link.

Question 127

subnet mask

Answer 127

Number of bits applied to an IP address to mask the network ID portion from the host/interface ID portion.

Question 128

Internet Protocol (IP)

Answer 128

Network (Internet) layer protocol in the TCP/IP suite providing packet addressing and routing for all higher-level protocols in the suite.

Question 129

Domain Name System (DNS)

Answer 129

Service that maps fully qualified domain name labels to IP addresses on most TCP/IP networks, including the Internet.

Question 130

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

Answer 130

Protocol used to automatically assign IP addressing information to hosts that have not been configured manually.

Question 131

Network Location Awareness (NLA)

Answer 131

Windows feature that categorizes network profile as public or private. Each profile can have a different firewall configuration, with public network types being more restricted, by default.

Question 132

virtual private network (VPN)

Answer 132

Secure tunnel created between two endpoints connected via an unsecure transport network (typically the Internet).

Question 133

Wireless Wide Area Network (WWAN)

Answer 133

Network covering a large area using wireless technologies, such as a cellular radio data network or line-of-sight microwave transmission.

Question 134

metered

Answer 134

Windows feature for indicating that network data transfer is billable and for setting warnings and caps to avoid unexpected charges from the provider.

Question 135

proxy server

Answer 135

Server that mediates the communications between a client and another server. It can filter and often modify communications as well as provide caching services to improve performance.

Question 136

ipconfig command

Answer 136

Command tool used to gather information about the IP configuration of a Windows host.

Question 137

ping command

Answer 137

Cross-platform command tool for testing IP packet transmission.

Question 138

tracert command

Answer 138

Diagnostic utilities that trace the route taken by a packet as it “hops” to the destination host on a remote network. tracert is the Windows implementation, while traceroute runs on Linux.

Question 139

pathping command

Answer 139

Windows utility for measuring latency and packet loss across an internetwork.

Question 140

nslookup command

Answer 140

Cross-platform command tool for querying DNS resource records.

Question 141

netstat command

Answer 141

Cross-platform command tool to show network information on a machine running TCP/IP, notably active connections, and the routing table.

Question 142

access control list (ACL)

Answer 142

Collection of access control entries (ACEs) that determines which subjects (user accounts, host IP addresses, and so on) are allowed or denied access to the object and the privileges given (read-only, read/write, and so on).

Question 143

Implicit deny

Answer 143

Basic principle of security stating that unless something has explicitly been granted access, it should be denied access.

Question 144

least privilege

Answer 144

Basic principle of security stating that something should be allocated the minimum necessary rights, privileges, or information to perform its role.

Question 145

local account

Answer 145

User account that can be authenticated again and allocated permissions for the computer that hosts the account only.

Question 146

security group

Answer 146

Access control feature that allows permissions to be allocated to multiple users more efficiently.

Question 147

Administrators

Answer 147

Privileged user account that has been granted memberships of the Administrators security group. There is also an account named Administrator, but this is usually disabled by default.

Question 148

standard account

Answer 148

Non-privileged user account in Windows that typically has membership of the Users security group only.

Question 149

Guest

Answer 149

Non-privileged account that is permitted to access the computer/network without authenticating.

Question 150

Power Users

Answer 150

One of the default Windows group accounts. Its use is deprecated, but it is still included with Windows to support legacy applications.

Question 151

User Account Control (UAC)

Answer 151

Windows feature designed to mitigate abuse of administrative accounts by requiring explicit consent to use privileges.

Question 152

Multifactor authentication (MFA)

Answer 152

Authentication scheme that requires the user to present at least two different factors as credentials; for example, something you know, something you have, something you are, something you do, and somewhere you are. Specifying two factors is known as 2FA.

Question 153

2-step verification

Answer 153

Authentication mechanism that uses a separate channel to authorize a sign-on attempt or to transmit an additional credential. This can use a registered email account or a contact phone number for an SMS or voice call.

Question 154

soft token

Answer 154

Either an additional code to use for 2-step verification, such as a one-time password, or authorization data that can be presented as evidence of authentication in an SSO system.

Question 155

short message service (SMS)

Answer 155

System for sending text messages between cell phones.

Question 156

authenticator application

Answer 156

Software that allows a smartphone to operate as a second authentication factor or as a trusted channel for 2-step verification.

Question 157

hard token

Answer 157

USB storage key or smart card with a cryptographic module that can hold authenticating encryption keys securely.

Question 158

Windows Hello

Answer 158

Feature that supports passwordless sign-in for Windows.

Question 159

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

Answer 159

Specification for secure hardware-based storage of encryption keys, hashed passwords, and other user- and platform-identification information.

Question 160

Fingerprint

Answer 160

Biometric authentication device that can produce a template signature of a user’s fingerprint and then subsequently compare the template to the digit submitted for authentication.

Question 161

Facial recognition

Answer 161

Biometric authentication mechanism that uses an infrared camera to verify that the user’s face matches a 3D model recorded at enrollment.

Question 162

Single sign-On (SSO)

Answer 162

Authentication technology that enables a user to authenticate once and receive authorizations for multiple services.

Question 163

domain

Answer 163

Group of hosts that is within the same namespace and administered by the same authority.

Question 164

Active Directory (AD)

Answer 164

Network directory service for Microsoft Windows domain networks that facilitates authentication and authorization of user and computer accounts.

Question 165

member server

Answer 165

Any application server computer that has joined a domain but does not maintain a copy of the Active Directory database.

Question 166

organizational unit (OU)

Answer 166

Structural feature of a network directory that can be used to group objects that should share a common configuration or organizing principle, such as accounts within the same business department.

Question 167

group policy objects (GPOs)

Answer 167

On a Windows domain, a way to deploy per-user and per-computer settings such as password policy, account restrictions, firewall status, and so on.

Question 168

gpupdate

Answer 168

Command-line tools to apply and analyze group policies. Group policies are a means of configuring registry settings.

Question 169

login script

Answer 169

Code that performs a series of tasks automatically when a user account is authenticated.

Question 170

Mobile Device Management (MDM)

Answer 170

Process and supporting technologies for tracking, controlling, and securing the organization’s mobile infrastructure.

Question 171

workgroup

Answer 171

Group of network hosts that shares resources in a peer-to-peer fashion. No one computer provides a centralized directory.

Question 172

network discovery

Answer 172

Windows firewall configuration that makes a host visible to network browsers.

Question 173

file sharing

Answer 173

Windows firewall configuration that opens the network ports required to operate as a file/print server.

Question 174

mapped drive

Answer 174

Windows mechanism for navigating shared network folders by assigning them with drive letters.

Question 175

NTFS permissions

Answer 175

ACL that mediates local and network access to a file system object under Windows when the volume is formatted with NTFS.

Question 176

inheritance

Answer 176

File system access-control-concept where child objects are automatically assigned the same permissions as their parent object.

Question 177

Everyone

Answer 177

System security group that represents any account, including unauthenticated users.

Question 178

home folder

Answer 178

Default local or network folder for users to save data files to.

Question 179

Roaming profiles

Answer 179

Configuring a network share to hold user profile data. The data is copied to and from the share at logon and logoff.

Question 180

Folder redirection

Answer 180

In Windows, redirecting an individual user profile folder, such as Documents or Pictures, to a network share.

Question 181

shell

Answer 181

System component providing a command interpreter by which the user can use a kernel interface and operate the OS.

Question 182

Bash

Answer 182

Command interpreter and scripting language for Unix-like systems.

Question 183

terminal

Answer 183

Software that implements input and output for a command shell.

Question 184

consoles

Answer 184

Device that implements input and output for a command shell. In Linux, multiple virtual consoles support use of a single host by multiple user sessions simultaneously.

Question 185

Nano

Answer 185

Command-line text editor operated by CTRL key combinations.

Question 186

vi or vim

Answer 186

Command-line text editor that extends the original vi software. Vim uses a command mode for file operations and an insert mode for editing.

Question 187

pwd

Answer 187

Linux command for showing the current directory (“Print Working Directory”).

Question 188

ls

Answer 188

Linux command for listing file system objects.

Question 189

cat

Answer 189

Linux command to view and combine (concatenate) files.

Question 190

find command

Answer 190

Command-line Linux tool used to search the file system.

Question 191

grep

Answer 191

Linux command for searching and filtering input. This can be used as a file search tool when combined with ls.

Question 192

cp command

Answer 192

Command-line tool for copying files in Linux.

Question 193

mv command

Answer 193

Command-line tool for moving files in Linux.

Question 194

rm command

Answer 194

Command-line tool for deleting file system objects in Linux.

Question 195

df and du commands

Answer 195

Command-line tools used to report storage usage in Linux.

Question 196

su

Answer 196

Linux commands allowing a user to use the root account or execute commands restricted to privileged users.

Question 197

sudo

Answer 197

Linux commands allowing a user to use the root account or execute commands restricted to privileged users.

Question 198

symbolic

Answer 198

Syntax for setting Linux permissions that uses characters to represent permissions values.

Question 199

chmod command

Answer 199

Linux command for managing file permissions.

Question 200

octal notation

Answer 200

Linux file-permission mode that uses numeric values to represent permissions.

Question 201

chown

Answer 201

Linux command for managing the account owner for files and directories.

Question 202

apt-get

Answer 202

One of the package management tools available in Linux for installing and updating software.

Question 203

yum

Answer 203

Package manager for installing, maintaining, inventorying, and removing software from the Red Hat family of Linux distributions.

Question 204

ps command

Answer 204

Linux command for retrieving process information.

Question 205

top command

Answer 205

Interactive Linux command for monitoring process information.

Question 206

ifconfig

Answer 206

Deprecated Linux command tool used to gather information about the IP configuration of the network adapter or to configure the network adapter.

Question 207

ip command

Answer 207

Linux command tool used to gather information about the IP configuration of the network adapter or to configure the network adapter.

Question 208

dig

Answer 208

Utility to query a DNS server and return information about a particular domain name or resource record.

Question 209

Samba

Answer 209

Linux software package that implements Server Message Block (SMB) file/print sharing, primarily to support integration with Windows hosts.

Question 210

cron

Answer 210

Scheduled task that is managed by the Linux cron daemon.

Question 211

dock

Answer 211

macOS feature for managing applications from the desktop; similar to the Windows taskbar.

Question 212

Spotlight Search

Answer 212

macOS file system search tool.

Question 213

Mission Control

Answer 213

App facilitating multiple desktops in macOS.

Question 214

System Preferences

Answer 214

macOS control panel hosting multiple prefpane configuration utilities.

Question 215

Magic Mouse

Answer 215

Touch-enabled mouse and trackpad hardware for Apple computers.

Question 216

Accessibility prefpane

Answer 216

macOS utility related to desktop and input/output device accessibility configuration.

Question 217

Apple ID

Answer 217

Cloud-based service allowing users to synchronize settings and manage apps, file sharing, and backups between multiple Apple devices.

Question 218

keychain

Answer 218

macOS app for managing passwords cached by the OS and supported browser/web applications.

Question 219

FileVault

Answer 219

macOS disk encryption product.

Question 220

Finder

Answer 220

File management app in macOS.

Question 221

iCloud

Answer 221

Mobile/cloud computing office-productivity and data-storage suite operated by Apple and closely integrated with macOS and iOS.

Question 222

DMG

Answer 222

macOS installer format that can be copied directly to the Applications folder.

Question 223

PKG

Answer 223

macOS installer format that supports complex setup tasks.

Question 224

.APP

Answer 224

Default extension for a macOS app subdirectory when installed to the Applications folder.

Question 225

Disk Utility

Answer 225

macOS tool for disk and file system support tasks.

Question 226

Remote Disc

Answer 226

macOS tool for sharing an optical drive over the network.

Question 227

Time Machine

Answer 227

App facilitating backup operations in macOS.

Question 228

spinning wait cursor

Answer 228

macOS indicator that a process is busy and is not able to accept input.

Question 229

Force Quit

Answer 229

macOS tool for halting a process; equivalent to the process management functionality in Task Manager.

Question 230

confidentiality, integrity, and availability (CIA triad)

Answer 230

Three principles of security control and management. Also known as the information security triad. Also referred to in reverse order as the AIC triad.

Question 231

cybersecurity

Answer 231

Protection of computer systems and digital information resources from unauthorized access, attack, theft, or data damage.

Question 232

threat actor

Answer 232

Person or entity responsible for an event that has been identified as a security incident or as a risk.

Question 233

Risk

Answer 233

Likelihood and impact (or consequence) of a threat actor exercising a vulnerability.

Question 234

Vulnerability

Answer 234

Weakness that could be triggered accidentally or exploited intentionally to cause a security breach.

Question 235

non-compliant system

Answer 235

System whose configuration is different from its secure baseline.

Question 236

unprotected system

Answer 236

System where one or more required security controls (antivirus or firewall, for example) is missing or misconfigured.

Question 237

exploit

Answer 237

Specific method by which malware code infects a target host, often via some vulnerability in a software process.

Question 238

zero-day

Answer 238

Vulnerability in software that is unpatched by the developer or an attack that exploits such a vulnerability.

Question 239

Bring your own device (BYOD)

Answer 239

Security framework and tools to facilitate use of personally-owned devices to access corporate networks and data.

Question 240

Social engineering

Answer 240

Using persuasion, manipulation, or intimidation to make the victim violate a security policy. The goal of social engineering might be to gain access to an account, gain access to physical premises, or gather information.

Question 241

Impersonation

Answer 241

Social engineering attack where an attacker pretends to be someone they are not.

Question 242

pretexting

Answer 242

Social engineering tactic where a team will communicate, whether directly or indirectly, a lie or half-truth in order to get someone to believe a falsehood

Question 243

Dumpster diving

Answer 243

The social engineering technique of discovering things about an organization (or person) based on what it throws away.

Question 244

shoulder surfing

Answer 244

Social engineering tactic to obtain someone’s password or PIN by observing him or her as he or she types it in.

Question 245

Tailgating

Answer 245

Social engineering technique to gain access to a building by following someone who is unaware of their presence.

Question 246

Pibbybacking

Answer 246

Allowing a threat actor to enter a site or controlled location without authorization.

Question 247

Phishing

Answer 247

Email-based social engineering attack, in which the attacker sends email from a supposedly reputable source, such as a bank, to try to elicit private information from the victim.

Question 248

Spear Phishing

Answer 248

Email-based or web-based form of phishing which targets specific individuals.

Question 249

Whaling

Answer 249

An email-based or web-based form of phishing which targets senior executives or wealthy individuals.

Question 250

Vishing

Answer 250

Social engineering attack where the threat actor extracts information while speaking over the phone or leveraging IP-based voice messaging services (VoIP).

Question 251

evil twin

Answer 251

Wireless access point that deceives users into believing that it is a legitimate network access point.

Question 252

threats

Answer 252

Potential for an entity to exercise a vulnerability (that is, to breach security).

Question 253

insider threat

Answer 253

Type of threat actor who is assigned privileges on the system that cause an intentional or unintentional incident.

Question 254

Footprinting

Answer 254

The phase in an attack or penetration test in which the attacker or tester gathers information about the target before attacking it.

Question 255

spoofing

Answer 255

Attack technique where the threat actor disguises their identity or impersonates another user or resource.

Question 256

on-path

Answer 256

Attack where the threat actor makes an independent connection between two victims and is able to read and possibly modify traffic.

Question 257

denial of service (DoS)

Answer 257

Any type of physical, application, or network attack that affects the availability of a managed resource.

Question 258

distributed DoS (DDoS)

Answer 258

An attack that uses multiple compromised hosts (a botnet) to overwhelm a service with request or response traffic.

Question 259

botnet

Answer 259

Group of hosts or devices that have been infected by a control program called a bot that enables attackers to exploit the hosts to mount attacks.

Question 260

password

Answer 260

Any attack where the attacker tries to gain unauthorized access to and use of passwords.

Question 261

Dictionary

Answer 261

Type of password attack that compares encrypted passwords against a predetermined list of possible password values.

Question 262

Brute force

Answer 262

Type of password attack where an attacker uses an application to exhaustively try every possible alphanumeric combination to crack encrypted passwords.

Question 263

cross-site scripting

Answer 263

Malicious script hosted on the attacker’s site or coded in a link injected onto a trusted site designed to compromise clients browsing the trusted site, circumventing the browser’s security model of trusted zones.

Question 264

SQL injection

Answer 264

Attack that injects a database query into the input data directed at a server by accessing the client side of the application.

Question 265

hash

Answer 265

Function that converts an arbitrary length string input to a fixed length string output. A cryptographic hash function does this in a way that reduces the chance of collisions, where two different inputs produce the same output.

Question 266

symmetric encryption

Answer 266

Two-way encryption scheme in which encryption and decryption are both performed by the same key. Also known as shared-key encryption.

Question 267

asymmetric encryption cipher

Answer 267

Cipher that uses public and private keys. The keys are mathematically linked, using either Rivel, Shamir, Adleman (RSA) or elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) alogrithms, but the private key is not derivable from the public one. An asymmetric key cannot reverse the operation it performs, so the public key cannot decrypt what it has encrypted, for example.

Question 268

private key

Answer 268

In asymmetric encryption, the private key is known only to the holder and is linked to, but not derivable from, a public key distributed to those with which the holder wants to communicate securely. A private key can be used to encrypt data that can be decrypted by the linked public key or vice versa.

Question 269

public key

Answer 269

During asymmetric encryption, this key is freely distributed and can be used to perform the reverse encryption or decryption operation of the linked private key in the pair.

Question 270

digital signature

Answer 270

Message digest encrypted using the sender’s private key that is appended to a message to authenticate the sender and prove message integrity.

Question 271

Key exchange

Answer 271

Any method by which cryptographic keys are transferred among users, thus enabling the use of a cryptographic algorithm.

Question 272

Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)

Answer 272

Standards for authenticating and encrypting access to Wi-Fi networks.

Question 273

Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

Answer 273

Mechanism used in the first version of WPA to improve the security of wireless encryption mechanisms, compared to the flawed WEP standard.

Question 274

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

Answer 274

Symmetric 128-, 192-, or 256-bit block cipher used for bulk encryption in modern security standards, such as WPA2, WPA3, and TLS.

Question 275

Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP)

Answer 275

Encryption protocol used for wireless LANs that addresses the vulnerabilities of the WEP protocol.

Question 276

simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE)

Answer 276

Personal authentication mechanism for Wi-Fi networks introduced with WPA3 to address vulnerabilities in the WPA-PSK method.

Question 277

pre-shared key (PSK)

Answer 277

Wireless network authentication mode where a passphrase-based mechanism is used to allow group authentication to a wireless network. The passphrase is used to derive an encryption key.

Question 278

802.1x

Answer 278

Standard for encapsulating EAP communications over a LAN (EAPoL) or WLAN (EAPoW) to implement port-based authentication.

Question 279

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Answer 279

Framework for negotiating authentication methods that enables systems to use hardware-based identifiers, such as fingerprint scanners or smart card readers, for authentication, and establish secure tunnels through which to submit credentials.

Question 280

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

Answer 280

Security concept where a centralized platform verifies subject identification, ensures the subject is assigned relevant permissions, and then logs these actions to create an audit trail.

Question 281

Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)

Answer 281

AAA protocol used to manage remote and wireless authentication infrastructures.

Question 282

Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

Answer 282

It is an AAA protocol that was developed by Cisco and used by numerous third-party implementations that is used in authenticating administrative access to routers and switches.

Question 283

Kerberos

Answer 283

Single sign-on authentication and authorization service that is based on a time-sensitive, ticket-granting system.

Question 284

home router

Answer 284

SOHO device providing Internet routing via a full fiber, DSL, cable, or satellite link. These appliances also provide a 4-port LAN switch and Wi-Fi plus a firewall.

Question 285

physical placement

Answer 285

Considerations for installation location for PC and network devices to ensure reliable and secure operation.

Question 286

firmware

Answer 286

Software instructions embedded on a hardware device such as a computer motherboard. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable read-only memory (ROM) types.

Question 287

service set ID (SSID)

Answer 287

Character string that identifies a particular wireless LAN (WLAN).

Question 288

content filtering

Answer 288

Security measure performed on email and Internet traffic to identify and block suspicious, malicious and/or inappropriate content in accordance with an organization’s policies.

Question 289

reservation (DHCP)

Answer 289

DHCP configuration that assigns either a prereserved or persistent IP address to a given host, based on its hardware address or other ID.

Question 290

port forwarding

Answer 290

Process in which a router takes requests from the Internet for a particular application (such as HTTP) and sends them to a designated host on the LAN.

Question 291

port mapping

Answer 291

Type of port forwarding where the external port is forwarded to a different internal port on the LAN host.

Question 292

Port triggering

Answer 292

Mechanism to configure access through a firewall for applications that require more than one port. Basically, when the firewall detects activity on outbound port A destined for a given external IP address, it opens inbound access for the external IP address on port B for a set period.

Question 293

Universal Plug-and-Play (UPnP)

Answer 293

Protocol framework allowing network devices to autoconfigure services, such as allowing a games console to request appropriate settings from a firewall.

Question 294

screened subnet

Answer 294

Segment isolated from the rest of a private network by one or more firewalls that accepts connections from the Internet over designated ports.

Question 295

DMZ host

Answer 295

Home router implementation of DMZ where all ports with no existing forwarding rules are opened and directed to a single LAN host.

Question 296

bollards

Answer 296

Sturdy vertical post installed to control road traffic or designed to prevent ram-raiding and vehicle-ramming attacks.

Question 297

fencing

Answer 297

Security barrier designed to prevent unauthorized access to a site perimeter.

Question 298

access control vestibule

Answer 298

Secure entry system with two gateways, only one of which is open at any one time.

Question 299

magnetometer

Answer 299

Hand-held or walkthrough metal detector designed to detect concealed weapons.

Question 300

Badge reader

Answer 300

Authentication mechanism that allows a user to present a smartcard to operate an entry system.

Question 301

smart card

Answer 301

Security device similar to a credit card that can store authentication information, such as a user’s private key, on an embedded cryptoprocessor.

Question 302

Palmprint scanner

Answer 302

Biometric camera-based scanner that uses unique features of a palm shown by visible and infrared light.

Question 303

Retina scanner

Answer 303

Biometric scanner based on analysis of the unique pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye.

Question 304

equipment locks

Answer 304

Physical security device that restricts access to ports and internal components to key holders.

Question 305

alarm system

Answer 305

Physical intrusion detection and warning that can use circuit, motion, proximity, and duress triggers.

Question 306

Motion sensors

Answer 306

Alarm system triggered by movement as detected by microwave radio reflection or passive infrared sensors.

Question 307

Video surveillance

Answer 307

Physical security control that uses cameras and recording devices to visually monitor the activity in a certain area.

Question 308

lighting

Answer 308

Physical security mechanisms that ensure a site is sufficiently illuminated for employees and guests to feel safe and for camera-based surveillance systems to work well.

Question 309

complexity requirements

Answer 309

Rules designed to enforce best-practice password selection, such as minimum length and use of multiple character types.

Question 310

expiration requirement

Answer 310

Rules designed to enforce best-practice password use by forcing regular selection of new passwords.

Question 311

BIOS/UEFI Passwords

Answer 311

This type of firmware-configured password is shared by all users and consequently is very rarely used. It might be used to provide extra security on a standalone computer that does not often require interactive logon, such as a computer used to manage embedded systems.

Question 312

lunchtime attack

Answer 312

Where a threat actor exploits an unlocked and unattended desktop or mobile device to gain unauthorized access.

Question 313

screensavers

Answer 313

Security mechanism that locks the desktop after a period of inactivity and requires user to authenticate to resume.

Question 314

personally identifiable information (PII)

Answer 314

Data that can be used to identify or contact an individual (or in the case of identity theft, to impersonate them).

Question 315

Execution control

Answer 315

Process of determining what additional software may be installed on a client or server beyond its baseline to prevent the use of unauthorized software.

Question 316

AutoPlay

Answer 316

Windows mechanisms for automatic actions to occur when a peripheral storage device is attached.

Question 317

Windows Defender Antivirus

Answer 317

Security scanner installed and enabled by default in Windows that provides protection against general malware types.

Question 318

Definition/pattern updates

Answer 318

Information about new viruses and other malware used to update antivirus scanners.

Question 319

Encrypting File System (EFS)

Answer 319

Microsoft’s file-level encryption feature available for use on NTFS.

Question 320

trusted source

Answer 320

Installer package that can be verified by a digital signature or cryptographic hash.

Question 321

untrusted source

Answer 321

Installer package whose authenticity and integrity cannot be verified.

Question 322

Extentions

Answer 322

Add-on that uses the browser API to implement new functionality.

Question 323

Plug-ins

Answer 323

Software installed to a web browser to handle multimedia objects embedded in web pages. Use of most plug-in types is now deprecated.

Question 324

digital certificates

Answer 324

Identification and authentication information presented in the X.509 format and issued by a Certificate Authority (CA) as a guarantee that a key pair (as identified by the public key embedded in the certificate) is valid for a particular subject (user or host).

Question 325

secure connection

Answer 325

Using HTTPS to browse a site where the host has presented a valid digital certificate issued by a CA that is trusted by the browser. A padlock icon is shown to indicate the secure status of the connection.

Question 326

Pop-up blockers

Answer 326

Browser feature or extension that prevents sites from creating new browser windows.

Question 327

Ad blockers

Answer 327

Browser feature or add-in that prevents third-party content from being displayed when visiting a site.

Question 328

cache

Answer 328

Cookies, site files, form data, passwords, and other information stored by a browser. Caching behavior can be enabled or disabled and data can be cleared manually.

Question 329

Private/incognito browsing mode

Answer 329

Browser mode in which all session data and cache is discarded and tracking protection features are enabled by default.

Question 330

Viruses

Answer 330

Malicious code inserted into an executable file image. The malicious code is executed when the file is run and can deliver a payload, such as attempting to infect other files.

Question 331

Boot sector viruses

Answer 331

Malicious code inserted into the boot sector code or partition table of a storage device that attempts to execute when the device is attached.

Question 332

Trojans

Answer 332

Malicious software program hidden within an innocuous-seeming piece of software. Usually, the Trojan is used to try to compromise the security of the target computer.

Question 333

Worms

Answer 333

Type of malware that replicates between processes in system memory and can spread over client/server network connections.

Question 334

Fileless malware

Answer 334

Exploit techniques that use the host’s scripting environment to create malicious processes.

Question 335

backdoor

Answer 335

Mechanism for gaining access to a computer that bypasses or subverts the normal method of authentication.

Question 336

remote access Trojan (RAT)

Answer 336

Malware that creates a backdoor remote administration channel to allow a threat actor to access and control the infected host.

Question 337

command and control (C2 or C&C)

Answer 337

Infrastructure of hosts and services with which attackers direct, distribute, and control malware over botnets.

Question 338

Spyware

Answer 338

Software that records information about a PC and its users, often installed without the user’s consent.

Question 339

keylogger

Answer 339

Malicious software or hardware that can record user keystrokes.

Question 340

rootkit

Answer 340

Class of malware that modifies system files, often at the kernel level, to conceal its presence.

Question 341

Ransomware

Answer 341

Malware that tries to extort money from the victim by blocking normal operation of a computer and/or encrypting the victim’s files and demanding payment.

Question 342

cryptominer

Answer 342

Malware that hijacks computer resources to create cryptocurrency.

Question 343

antivirus scan

Answer 343

Software capable of detecting and removing virus infections and (in most cases) other types of malware, such as worms, Trojans, rootkits, adware, spyware, password crackers, network mappers, DoS tools, and so on.

Question 344

Rogue antivirus

Answer 344

Spoofed desktop notifications and browser ads designed to alarm users and promote installation of Trojan malware.

Question 345

Redirection

Answer 345

Consequence of malware infection where DNS and/or search results are corrupted to redirect requests from legitimate site hosts to spoofed sites or ads.

Question 346

certificate warnings

Answer 346

Browser indication that a site connection is not secure because the certificate is invalid or the issuing CA is not trusted.

Question 347

quarentine

Answer 347

The process of isolating a file, computer system, or computer network to prevent the spread of a virus or another cybersecurity incident.

Question 348

sandbox

Answer 348

Computing environment that is isolated from a host system to guarantee that the environment runs in a controlled, secure fashion. Communication links between the sandbox and the host are usually completely prohibited so that malware or faulty software can be analyzed in isolation and without risk to the host.

Question 349

screen lock

Answer 349

Mobile device mechanism that locks the screen after a period of inactivity.

Question 350

swipe

Answer 350

Mobile gesture that unlocks the screen without requiring authentication.

Question 351

Personal identification number (PIN)

Answer 351

Number used in conjunction with authentication devices such as smart cards; as the PIN should be known only to the user, loss of the smart card should not represent a security risk.

Question 352

Fingerprint

Answer 352

Mobile device bio gesture authentication mechanism that requires the user to scan their fingerprint to unlock the device.

Question 353

Pattern

Answer 353

Mobile device authentication mechanism that requires the user to input a join the dots pattern to unlock the device.

Question 354

failed login attempts

Answer 354

Mobile device authentication mechanism that progressively delays or blocks unlock attempts after multiple failures.

Question 355

locator application

Answer 355

Cloud app that uses mobile device location service to identify its current position on a map and enable security features to mitigate theft or loss.

Question 356

remote wipe

Answer 356

Software that allows deletion of data and settings on a mobile device to be initiated from a remote server.

Question 357

device wipe

Answer 357

Remote-initiated factory reset of a mobile device that removes all user data and settings.

Question 358

enterprise wipe

Answer 358

Remote-initiated wipe of a mobile device that removes corporate apps and data only.

Question 359

Internet of Things (IoT)

Answer 359

Devices that can report state and configuration data and be remotely managed over IP networks.

Question 360

factory reset

Answer 360

Standard routine created by manufacturer that can be invoked to restore an appliance to its shipped state, clearing any user customization, configuration, or modification.

Question 361

AirDrop

Answer 361

iOS feature for simple file sharing via Bluetooth.

Question 362

Nearby Share

Answer 362

Android feature for simple file sharing via Bluetooth.

Question 363

Root access

Answer 363

Gaining superuser level access over an Android-based mobile device.

Question 364

Jailbreak

Answer 364

Removes the protective seal and any OS specific restrictions to give users greater control over the device.

Question 365

developer mode

Answer 365

Mobile device feature designed for testing apps during development that may weaken corporate security protections if misused.

Question 366

.APK

Answer 366

Android app package format used when sideloading software from a source other than a trusted store.

Question 367

bootleg app

Answer 367

Software that illegally copies or imitates a commercial product or brand.

Question 368

Virtual Network Computing (VNC)

Answer 368

Remote access tool and protocol. VNC is the basis of macOS screen-sharing.

Question 369

Microsoft Remote Assistance (MSRA)

Answer 369

Windows remote-support feature allowing a user to invite a technical support professional to provide assistance over a network using chat. The user can also grant the support professional control over his or her desktop. Remote Assistance uses the same RDP protocol as Remote Desktop.

Question 370

Quick Assist

Answer 370

Windows support feature allowing remote screen-sharing over the Internet.

Question 371

Secure Shell (SSH)

Answer 371

Application protocol supporting secure tunneling and remote terminal emulation and file copy. SSH runs over TCP port 22.

Question 372

Remote monitoring and management (RMM)

Answer 372

Category of support software designed for outsourced management of client networks by MSPs.

Question 373

Desktop management or unified endpoint management (UEM)

Answer 373

Enterprise software for controlling device settings, apps, and corporate data storage on all types of fixed, mobile, and IoT computing devices.

Question 374

endpoint detection and response (EDR)

Answer 374

Software agent that collects system data and logs for analysis by a monitoring system to provide early detection of threats.

Question 375

screen-sharing

Answer 375

Software that allows clients to view and control the desktop over a network or the Internet.

Question 376

video-conferencing

Answer 376

Software that allows users to configure virtual meeting rooms, with options for voice, video, instant messaging, and screen-sharing.

Question 377

Backups

Answer 377

Security copy of production data made to removable media, typically according to a regular schedule. Different backup types (full, incremental, or differential) balance media capacity, time required to backup, and time required to restore.

Question 378

recovery

Answer 378

Operation to recover system functionality and/or data integrity using backup media.

Question 379

File History

Answer 379

Windows feature for backing up user data.

Question 380

Retention

Answer 380

Process an organization uses to maintain the existence of and control over certain data in order to comply with business policies and/or applicable laws and regulations.

Question 381

backup chain

Answer 381

Sequence of jobs starting with a full backup and followed by either incremental or differential backups to implement a media rotation scheme.

Question 382

full backup

Answer 382

Job type in which all selected files, regardless of prior state, are backed up.

Question 383

differential

Answer 383

Job type in which all selected files that have changed since the last full backup are backed up.

Question 384

synthetic full backup

Answer 384

Job type that combines incremental backup jobs to synthesize a full backup job. Synthetic full backups have the advantage of being easy to restore from while also being easy on bandwidth across the network as only changes are transmitted.

Question 385

grandfather-father-son (GFS)

Answer 385

Media rotation scheme that labels tapes/devices used for backup jobs in generations, with the youngest generation having a shorter retention period than the oldest.

Question 386

Incremental backups

Answer 386

Job type in which all selected files that have changed since the last full or incremental backup (whichever was most recent) are backed up.

Question 387

Off site backup storage

Answer 387

Media rotation scheme that ensures at least one copy of data is held at a different location to mitigate the risk of a disaster that destroys all storage at a single site.

Question 388

3-2-1 backup rule

Answer 388

Best practice maxim stating that at any given time there should be at least three copies of data stored on two media types, with one copy held off site.

Question 389

Regulated data

Answer 389

Information that has storage- and handling-compliance requirements defined by national and state legislation and/or industry regulations.

Question 390

Personal Government-Issued Information

Answer 390

Data related to identity documents issued by governments, such as passports, social security IDs, and driving licenses, that is liable to be subject to strict legal and regulatory compliance requirements.

Question 391

Healthcare data

Answer 391

Data that can be used to identify an individual and includes information about past, present, or future health as well as related payments and data used in the operation of a healthcare business.

Question 392

credit card transactions

Answer 392

Regulated data related to processing financial transactions.

Question 393

prohibited content

Answer 393

Data found on a computer system that is not permitted by policy or that is not compliant with relevant legislation or regulations.

Question 394

end-user license agreement (EULA)

Answer 394

Contract governing the installation and use of software.

Question 395

open-source

Answer 395

Licensing model that grants permissive rights to end-users, such as to install, use, modify, and distribute a software product and its source code, as long as redistribution permits the same rights.

Question 396

digital rights management (DRM)

Answer 396

Copyright protection technologies for digital media. DRM solutions usually try to restrict the number of devices allowed for playback of a licensed digital file, such as a music track or ebook.

Question 397

incident response plan (IRP)

Answer 397

Procedures and guidelines covering appropriate priorities, actions, and responsibilities in the event of security incidents, divided into preparation, detection/analysis, containment, eradication/recovery, and post-incident stages.

Question 398

Computer Security Incident Response Team (CSIRT)

Answer 398

Team with responsibility for incident response. The CSIRT must have expertise across a number of business domains (IT, HR, legal, and marketing, for instance).

Question 399

Digital forensics

Answer 399

Process of gathering and submitting computer evidence to trial. Digital evidence is latent, meaning that it must be interpreted. This means that great care must be taken to prove that the evidence has not been tampered with or falsified.

Question 400

chain of custody

Answer 400

Record of evidence-handling from collection to presentation in court to disposal.

Question 401

sanitization

Answer 401

Process of thoroughly and completely removing data from a storage medium so that file remnants cannot be recovered.

Question 402

standard formatting

Answer 402

Using a vendor tool to delete the file system and/or partition table on storage media before recycling or repurposing. This method carries the greatest risk of leaving persistent data remnants.

Question 403

erasing/wiping

Answer 403

Using a third-party tool to fully erase storage media before recycling or repurposing, minimizing the risk of leaving persistent data remnants.

Question 404

low level

Answer 404

Using a vendor tool to fully erase storage media before recycling or repurposing, minimizing the risk of leaving persistent data remnants.

Question 405

Secure Erase (SE)

Answer 405

Method of sanitizing a drive using the ATA command set.

Question 406

Instant Secure Erase (ISE)

Answer 406

Media sanitization command built into HDDs and SSDs that are self-encrypting that works by erasing the encryption key, leaving remnants unrecoverable.

Question 407

physical destruction

Answer 407

Using drilling, shredding, incineration, or degaussing of storage media before recycling or repurposing to minimize the risk of leaving persistent data remnants.

Question 408

certificate of destruction

Answer 408

Validation from an outsourcing provider of recycling/repurposing services that media has been destroyed or sanitized to the agreed standard.

Question 409

script

Answer 409

Series of simple or complex commands, parameters, variables, and other components stored in a text file and processed by a shell interpreter.

Question 410

.SH

Answer 410

Extension for a Linux shell script file format. The shebang in the first line of the script identifies the shell type (Bash, for instance).

Question 411

variable (in programming)

Answer 411

Identifier for a value that can change during program execution. Variables are usually declared with a particular data type.

Question 412

branch (in programming)

Answer 412

In scripting and programming, control statement that uses a condition to determine which code block to execute next.

Question 413

loop (in programming)

Answer 413

In scripting and programming, control statement that executes code repeatedly based on a condition.

Question 414

operators (in programming)

Answer 414

Programming object that can resolve the truth value of a condition, such as whether one variable is equal to another.

Question 415

PowerShell (PS)

Answer 415

Command shell and scripting language built on the .NET Framework that use cmdlets for Windows automation.

Question 416

.PS1

Answer 416

Extension for the PowerShell script format.

Question 417

VBScript

Answer 417

A command shell and scripting language built on the .NET Framework, which allows the administrator to automate and manage computing tasks.

Question 418

.VBS

Answer 418

Extension for the Visual Basic Script file format.

Question 419

.BAT

Answer 419

Extension for the batch file format that is used to execute a series of Windows CMD shell commands.

Question 420

JavaScript

Answer 420

Scripting language used to add interactivity to web pages and HTML-format email.

Question 421

.JS

Answer 421

Extension for the JavaScript file format.

Question 422

automation

Answer 422

Use of scripts to perform configuration steps without requiring manual intervention.

Question 423

Python

Answer 423

High-level programming language that is widely used for automation.

Question 424

.PY

Answer 424

Extension for a script written in the Python programming language.

Question 425

application programming interface (API)

Answer 425

Methods exposed by a script or program that allow other scripts or programs to use it. For example, an API enables software developers to access functions of the TCP/IP network stack under a particular operating system.

Question 426

standard operating procedure (SOP)

Answer 426

Documentation of best practice and work instructions to use to perform a common administrative task.

Question 427

ticketing system

Answer 427

Database software designed to implement a structured support process by identifying each case with a unique job ticket ID and with descriptive fields to record how the issue was resolved.

Question 428

asset

Answer 428

Thing of economic value. For accounting purposes, assets are classified in different ways, such as tangible and intangible or short term and long term. Asset management means identifying each asset and recording its location, attributes, and value in a database.

Question 429

Escalation

Answer 429

In the context of support procedures, incident response, and breach-reporting, escalation is the process of involving expert and senior staff to assist in problem management.

Question 430

incident report

Answer 430

An analysis of events that can provide insight into how to improve response and support processes in the future.

Question 431

asset tag

Answer 431

Practice of assigning an ID to assets to associate them with entries in an inventory database.

Question 432

network topology diagram

Answer 432

Documentation showing how network nodes are connected by cabling or how they are logically identified and connected, such as in IP networks.

Question 433

knowledge base (KB)

Answer 433

Searchable database of product FAQs (Frequently Asked Questions), advice, and known troubleshooting issues. The Microsoft KB is found at support.microsoft.com.

Question 434

Change management

Answer 434

Process through which changes to the configuration of information systems are implemented as part of the organization’s overall configuration management efforts.

Question 435

configuration management

Answer 435

Process through which an organization’s information systems components are kept in a controlled state that meets the organization’s requirements, including those for security and compliance.

Question 436

risk analysis

Answer 436

Process for qualifying or quantifying the likelihood and impact of a factor.

Question 437

acceptable use policy (AUP)

Answer 437

Policy that governs employees’ use of company equipment and Internet services. ISPs may also apply AUPs to their customers.

Question 438

splash screen

Answer 438

Displaying terms of use or other restrictions before use of a computer or app is allowed.

Question 439

Active listening

Answer 439

Communication technique to ensure that you capture all the information that the other person is “transmitting,” including nonverbal cues such as tone of voice or gestures. There are various active-listening techniques for ensuring that you are “getting the right message,” such as summarizing, reflecting (matching the speaker’s communication style), interpreting, and verbal attends (such as “Uh-huh.” or “I see.”).

Question 440

fuse

Answer 440

Circuit breaker designed to protect the device and users of the device from faulty wiring or supply of power (overcurrent protection).

Question 441

grounded

Answer 441

Wire that provides a return path for electrical current as a safety feature; if an electrical connection short circuits into the metal chassis, a ground wire ensures that the current flows to ground rather than electrocuting someone handling the faulty device.

Question 442

Electrostatic discharge (ESD)

Answer 442

Metal and plastic surfaces can allow a charge to build up. This can discharge if a potential difference is formed between the charged object and an oppositely charged conductive object. This electrical discharge can damage silicon chips and computer components if they are exposed to it.

Question 443

Under-voltage event

Answer 443

When the power that is supplied by the electrical wall socket is insufficient to allow the computer to function correctly. Under-voltage events are long sags in power output that are often caused by overloaded or faulty grid distribution circuits or by a failure in the supply route from electrical power station to a building.

Question 444

Power failure

Answer 444

Complete loss of building power.

Question 445

surge suppressor

Answer 445

Device that protects electrical devices against the damaging effects of a power surge or spike.

Question 446

uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

Answer 446

Battery-powered device that supplies AC power that an electronic device can use in the event of power failure.

Question 447

material safety data sheet (MSDS)

Answer 447

Information sheet accompanying hazardous products or substances that explains the proper procedures for handling and disposal.

Question 448

You are developing a Bash script to test whether a given host is up. Users will run the script in the following format:

./ping.sh 192.168.1.1

Within the code, what identifier can you use to refer to the IP address passed to the script as an argument?

Answer 448

$1 will refer to the first positional argument.

Question 449

You are auditing a file system for the presence of any unauthorized Windows shell script files. Which three extensions should you scan for?

Answer 449

.PS1 for PowerShell scripts, .VBS for VBScript, and .BAT for cmd batch files.

Question 450

What type of cryptographic key is delivered in a digital certificate?

Answer 450

A digital certificate is a wrapper for a subject’s public key. The public and private keys in an asymmetric cipher are paired. If one key is used to encrypt a message, only the other key can then decrypt it.

Question 451

What is the purpose of a KB?

Answer 451

A knowledge base (KB) is a reference to assist with installing, configuring, and troubleshooting hardware and software. KBs might be created by vendors to support their products. A company might also create an internal KB, populated with guidelines, procedures, information from service tickets, and answers to frequently asked questions (FAQs).

Question 452

The building will house a number of servers contained within a secure room and network racks. You have recommended that the provisioning requirement includes key-operated chassis faceplates. What threats will this mitigate?

Answer 452

A lockable faceplate controls who can access the power button, external ports, and internal components. This mitigates the risk of someone gaining access to the server room via social engineering. It also mitigates risks from insider threat by rogue administrators, though to a lesser extent (each request for a chassis key would need to be approved and logged).

Question 453

What type of account management policy can protect against password-guessing attacks?

Answer 453

A lockout policy disables the account after a number of incorrect sign-in attempts.

Question 454

When might you need to consult SDS documentation?

Answer 454

A Safety Data Sheet (SDS), previously known as a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), should be consulted when introducing a new product or substance to the workplace. Subsequently, you should refer to it in case of an accident involving the substance or when you need to dispose of it.

Question 455

A threat actor crafts an email addressed to a senior support technician and part-time football coach inviting him to register for free football coaching advice. The website contains password-stealing malware. What is the name of this type of attack?

Answer 455

A phishing attack tries to make users authenticate with a fake resource, such as a website. Phishing emails are often sent in mass as spam. This is a variant of phishing called spear phishing because it is specifically targeted at a single person, using personal information known about the subject (his or her football-coaching volunteer work).

Question 456

What backup issue does the synthetic job type address?

Answer 456

A synthetic full backup reduces data transfer requirements and, therefore, backup job time by synthesizing a full backup from previous incremental backups rather than directly from the source data.

Question 457

In AAA architecture, what type of device might a RADIUS client be?

Answer 457

AAA refers to Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting and the Remote Access Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) protocol is one way of implementing this architecture. The RADIUS server is positioned on the internal network and processes authentication and authorization requests. The RADIUS client is the access point, and it must be configured with the IP address of the server plus a shared secret passphrase. The access point forwards authentication traffic between the end-user device (a supplicant) and the RADIUS server but cannot inspect the traffic.

Question 458

You are trying to troubleshoot a problem over the phone and need to get advice from your manager. How should you handle this with the customer?

Answer 458

Advise the customer that you will put him or her on hold while you speak to someone else, or arrange to call the customer back.

Question 459

What role do barcodes play in managing inventory?

Answer 459

An inventory is a list of assets stored as database records. You must be able to correlate each physical device with an asset record by labeling it. A barcode label is a good way of doing this.

Question 460

How do you perform a scan to identify file system errors in read-only mode?

Answer 460

At a command prompt, run chkdsk without any switches.

(Note that sfc is not the correct answer as this verifies the integrity of protected system files rather than checks the file system on a drive.)

Question 461

Confidentiality and integrity are two important properties of information stored in a secure retrieval system. What is the third property?

Answer 461

Availability—information that is inaccessible is not of much use to authorized users. For example, a secure system must protect against denial of service (DoS) attacks.

Question 462

Katie works in a high-security government facility. When she comes to work in the morning, she places her hand on a scanning device installed at a turnstile in the building lobby. The scanner reads her palmprint and compares it to a master record of her palmprint in a database to verify her identity. What type of security control is this?

Answer 462

Biometric authentication deployed as part of a building’s entry-control system.

Question 463

A computer is caught in a reboot loop. It starts, shows a BSoD, and then reboots. What should you do?

Answer 463

Boot using a recovery tool, such as the product disc, and attempt startup repair and/or repair of the Windows installation using sfc or Windows reset.

Question 464

A threat actor recovers some documents via dumpster diving and learns that the system policy causes passwords to be configured with a random mix of different characters that are only five characters in length. To what type of password cracking attack is this vulnerable?

Answer 464

Brute force attacks are effective against short passwords. Dictionary attacks depend on users choosing ordinary words or phrases in a password.

Question 465

You have selected a secure location for a new home router, changed the default password, and verified the WAN IP address and Internet link. What next step should you perform before configuring wireless settings?

Answer 465

Check for a firmware update. Using the latest firmware is important to mitigate risks from software vulnerabilities.

Question 466

You are troubleshooting a user device that keeps powering off unexpectedly. You run hardware diagnostics and confirm there is no component fault or overheating issue. What should your next troubleshooting step be?

Answer 466

Check that the device has sufficient spare storage, and check for updates. If you can’t identify a device-wide fault, test to see whether the issue is associated with use of a single app.

Question 467

You are writing some work instructions to assist technicians with deploying new user desktops via cloning. What type of installation and boot method is this process most likely to use, and what are the boot requirements?

Answer 467

Cloning refers to the image deployment installation method. An image is a copy of an existing installation saved as a single file. Image deployment could use USB boot media (or even optical discs), but network boot is more likely. Network boot requires a PXE-compatible network adapter and motherboard in the computer and the boot device priority set to network/PXE. The network requires a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server plus a remote network installation server to run unattended setup and apply the image.

Question 468

How do you activate Spotlight Search using the keyboard?

Answer 468

COMMAND+SPACEBAR

Question 469

Why is DNS configuration a step in the malware remediation process?

Answer 469

Compromising domain-name resolution is a very effective means of redirecting users to malicious websites. Following malware infection, it is important to ensure that DNS is being performed by valid servers.

Question 470

Users working from home need to be able to access a PC on the corporate network via RDP. What technology will enable this without having to open the RDP port to Internet access?

Answer 470

Configure a virtual private network (VPN) so that remote users can connect to the corporate LAN and then launch the remote desktop protocol (RDP) client to connect to the office PC.

Question 471

A company wants to minimize the number of devices and mobile OS versions that it must support but allow use of a device by employees for personal email and social networking. What mobile deployment model is the best fit for these requirements?

Answer 471

Corporate owned, personally enabled (COPE) will allow standardization to a single device and OS. As the requirement does not specify a single device and OS, choose your own device (CYOD) would also fit.

Question 472

You are completing a checklist of security features for workstation deployments. Following the CompTIA A+ objectives, what additional item should you add to the following list, and what recommendation for a built-in Windows feature or features can you recommend be used to implement it?

• Password best practices
• End-user best practices
• Account management
• Change default administrator’s useraccount/password
• Disable AutoRun/AutoPlay
• Enable Windows Update, Windows Defender - Antivirus, and Windows Defender Firewall

Answer 472

Data-at-rest encryption. In Windows, this can be configured at file level via the Encrypting File System (EFS) or at disk level via BitLocker.

Question 473

When you arrive at a customer location to service a network printer, the user is upset because the printer is not working and therefore he cannot submit his reports on time. How should you approach this user?

Answer 473

Demonstrate empathy with the customer’s situation, use active listening skills to show that you understand the importance of the issue, and make the customer confident that you can help. Then use closed-questioning techniques to start to diagnose the problem.

Question 474

You are assisting with the configuration of MDM software. One concern is to deny access to devices that might be able to run apps that could be used to circumvent the access controls enforced by MDM. What types of configurations are of concern?

Answer 474

Devices that are jailbroken or rooted allow the owner account complete control. Devices that allow installation of apps from untrusted sources, such as by sideloading APK packages or via developer mode, could also have weakened permissions.

Question 475

Why are the actions of a first responder critical in the context of a forensic investigation?

Answer 475

Digital evidence is difficult to capture in a form that demonstrates that it has not been tampered with. Documentation of the scene and proper procedures are crucial.

Question 476

You are reviewing a secure deployment checklist for home router wireless configuration. Following the CompTIA A+ objectives, what additional setting should be considered along with the following four settings?

• Changing the service set identifier (SSID)
• Disabling SSID broadcast
• Encryption settings
• Changing channels

Answer 476

Disabling guest access. It might be appropriate to allow a guest network depending on the circumstances, but the general principle is that services and access methods that are not required should be disabled.

Question 477

You are working on the training documentation for help-desk agents. What should you include for dealing with difficult situations?

Answer 477

Do not argue with customers and/or be defensive. Avoid dismissing customer problems, and do not be judgmental. Try to calm the customer and move the support call toward positive troubleshooting diagnosis and activity, emphasizing a collaborative approach. Do not disclose experiences via social media outlets.

Question 478

In which atmospheric conditions is the risk of ESD highest?

Answer 478

During cool, dry conditions when humidity is low. When humidity is high, the static electricity can dissipate through the moisture present in the air.

Question 479

A command has generated a large amount of data on the screen. What could you add to the command to make the output more readable?

Answer 479

Either | more or | less.

Question 480

What two factors must a user present to authenticate to a wireless network secured using EAP-TLS?

Answer 480

1. A digital certificate and its associated private key are installed on the wireless station.

2. Device authentication, typically via a password, PIN, or biometric gesture, permits access to the private key.

Question 481

True or false? An organization should rely on automatic screen savers to prevent lunchtime attacks.

Answer 481

False.
A lunchtime attack is where a threat actor gains access to a signed-in user account because the desktop has not locked. While an automatic screensaver lock provides some protection, there may still be a window of opportunity for a threat actor between the user leaving the workstation unattended and the screensaver activating. Users must lock the workstation manually when leaving it unattended.

Question 482

True or false? The level of risk from zero-day attacks is only significant with respect to EOL systems.

Answer 482

False.
A zero-day is a vulnerability that is unknown to the product vendor and means that no patch is available to mitigate it. This can affect currently supported as well as unsupported end-of-life (EOL) systems. The main difference is that there is a good chance of a patch being developed if the system is still supported, but almost no chance if it is EOL.

Question 483

True or false. TKIP represents the best available wireless encryption and should be configured in place of AES if supported.

Answer 483

False. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) provides stronger encryption and is enabled by selecting Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) version 2 with AES/CCMP or WPA3 encryption mode. The Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) attempts to fix problems with the older RC4 cipher used by the first version of WPA. TKIP and WPA1 are now deprecated.

Question 484

True or false? Updates are not necessary for iOS devices because the OS is closed source.

Answer 484

False.
Closed source just means that the vendor controls development of the OS. It is still subject to updates to fix problems and introduce new features.

Question 485

True or false? Using a browser’s incognito mode will prevent sites from recording the user’s IP address.

Answer 485

**False. **
Incognito mode can prevent the use of cookies but cannot conceal the user’s source IP address.

(You do not need to include this in your answer, but the main way to conceal the source IP address is to connect to sites via a virtual private network (VPN).)

Question 486

True or false? Windows Defender Firewall can be disabled.

Answer 486

**True. **
It is not usually a good idea to do so, but it can be disabled via Security Center or the Control Panel applet.

Question 487

True or false? A factory reset preserves the user’s personal data.

Answer 487

**False. **
Restoring to factory settings means removing all user data and settings.

Question 488

True or False? You should fit an antistatic wrist strap over your clothing as this is most likely to retain a charge.

Answer 488

False. The conductive path will occur through your fingers as you touch electronic components. The stud in the wrist strap must make contact with your skin to drain the charge.

Question 489

True or false? Under default settings, the user account added during setup is not affected by User Account Control.

Answer 489

**False. **
User Account Control (UAC) is designed to prevent misuse of accounts with administrative privileges. Use of such privileges requires the user to approve a consent dialog or to enter the credentials of an administrator account. This system can be disabled via UAC settings, but it is enabled by default.

Question 490

True or False: SSDs can benefit from occasional defragmentation or optimization.

Answer 490

True. **
With flash drives and SSDs, while seek time is not a performance factor, the file system *can still benefit from occasional defragmentation or optimization. There are several things to consider, including the lifespan of the SSD. You can read more about the technical considerations in optimizing SSDs at hanselman.com/blog/TheRealAndCompleteStoryDoesWindowsDefragmentYourSSD.aspx

Question 491

What two types of biometric authentication mechanism are supported on smartphones? (2)

Answer 491

• Fingerprint recognition
• Facial recognition.

Question 492

A user is assigned Read NTFS permissions to a resource via his user account and Full Control via membership of a group. What effective NTFS permissions does the user have for the resource?

Answer 492

Full control—the most effective permissions are applied.

Question 493

You are writing a tech note to guide new technicians on operational procedures for working with Active Directory. As part of this note, what is the difference between the gpupdate and gpresult commands?

Answer 493

gpupdate is used to refresh local policy settings with updates or changes from the policy template.
gpresult is used to identify the Resultant Set of Policies (RSoP) for a given computer and/or user account.

Question 494

You are updating a deployment checklist for installing new workstation PCs. What are the principal environmental hazards to consider when choosing a location? (4)

Answer 494

• Heat
• Direct sunlight,
• Excessive dust and liquids
• Very low or high humidity.

(Equipment should also be installed so as not to pose a topple or trip hazard.)

Question 495

You receive a support call from a user who is “stuck” on a web page. She is trying to use the Back button to return to her search results, but the page just displays again with a pop-up message. Is her computer infected with malware?

Answer 495

If it only occurs on certain sites, it is probably part of the site design. A script running on the site can prevent use of the Back button. It could also be a sign of adware or spyware though, so it would be safest to scan the computer using up-to-date anti-malware software.

Question 496

Why might a PC infected with malware display no obvious symptoms?

Answer 496

If the malware is used with the intent to steal information or record behavior, it will not try to make its presence obvious. A rootkit may be very hard to detect even when a rigorous investigation is made.

Question 497

While troubleshooting an issue with a graphics card in Windows 10, you discover that the driver version is not up to date. What first step could you perform to install the latest driver?

Answer 497

In the Settings app, select Update & Security. Under Windows Update, select “View optional updates.”

(If a graphics driver update is not listed here, check the vendor’s site for driver installation software.)

Question 498

Where would you look for the option to view and configure wireless adapter status in macOS?

Answer 498

In the Status menu on the Menu bar, in the top-right of the screen, or in the Network prefpane.

Question 499

A DHCP server has been reconfigured to use a new network address scheme following a network problem. What command would you use to refresh the IP configuration on Windows client workstations?

Answer 499

ipconfig /renew

Question 500

Early in the day, a user called the help desk saying that his computer is running slowly and freezing up. Shortly after this user called, other help desk technicians who overheard your call also received calls from users who report similar symptoms. Is this likely to be a malware infection?

Answer 500

It is certainly possible. Software updates are often applied when a computer is started in the morning, so that is another potential cause, but you should investigate and log a warning so that all support staff are alerted. It is very difficult to categorize malware when the only symptom is performance issues. However, performance issues could be a result of a badly written Trojan, or a Trojan/backdoor application might be using resources maliciously (for DDoS, Bitcoin mining, spam, and so on).

Question 501

You are documenting workstation backup and recovery methods and want to include the 3-2-1 backup rule. What is this rule?

Answer 501

It states that you should have three copies of your data across two media types, with one copy held offline and offsite. The production data counts as one copy.

Question 502

Another user calls to say he is trying to sign-on to his online banking service, but the browser reports that the certificate is invalid. Should the bank update its certificate, or do you suspect another cause?

Answer 502

It would be highly unlikely for a commercial bank to allow its website certificates to run out of date or otherwise be misconfigured. You should strongly suspect redirection by malware or a phishing/pharming scam.

Question 503

What feature of modern file systems assists recovery after power outages or OS crash events?

Answer 503

Journaling means that the file system keeps a log of updates that it can use to recover damaged data. The OS might also make use of snapshot capability to maintain a file-version history or perform continuous backups.

Question 504

Advanced malware can operate covertly with no easily detectable symptoms that can be obtained by scanning the device itself. What other type of symptom could provide evidence of compromise in this scenario?

Answer 504

Leaked data files or personal information such as passwords.

Question 505

Which Linux command will display detailed information about all files and directories in the current directory, including system files?

Answer 505

ls -la

Question 506

Angel unboxed a new tablet that his company just purchased and tried to connect to the corporate network. He knows the SSID of the wireless network and the password used to access the wireless network. He was denied access, and an enrollment warning message was displayed that he must contact the IT Department immediately. What happened, and why did he receive the message?

Answer 506

Mobile device management (MDM) is being used to mediate network access. The device must be enrolled with the MDM software before it can join the network.

Question 507

What command could you use to move a file names.doc from your current directory to the USB stick linked to folder /mnt/usb?

Answer 507

mv names.doc /mnt/usb

Question 508

A security consultant has recommended blocking end-user access to the chrome://flags browser page. Does this prevent a user from changing any browser settings?

Answer 508

**No. **
The chrome://flags page is for advanced configuration settings. General user, security, and privacy settings are configured via chrome://settings.

Question 509

You are pinging a host at 192.168.0.99 from a host at 192.168.0.200. The response is “Reply from 192.168.0.200: Destination host unreachable.” The hosts use the subnet mask 255.255.255.0. Does the ping output indicate a problem with the default gateway?

Answer 509

**No. **
The hosts are on the same IP network (192.168.0.0/24). This means that 192.168.0.200 does not try to use a router (the gateway) to send the probes. 192.168.0.200 uses address resolution protocol (ARP) to find the host with the IP 192.168.0.99. The host unreachable message indicates that there was no response, but the problem will be an issue such as the host being disconnected from the network or configured to block discovery rather than a gateway issue.

Question 510

An employee has a private license for a graphics editing application that was bundled with the purchase of a digital camera. The employee needs to use this temporarily for a project and installs it on her computer at work. Is this a valid use of the license?

Answer 510

**No. **
The license is likely to permit installation to only one computer at a time. It might or might not prohibit commercial use, but regardless of the license terms, any installation of software must be managed by the IT department.

Question 511

You are supporting a home user with upgrading a computer from Windows 10 to Windows 11. You have run Microsoft’s PC Health Check tool, and it verifies that the computer meets the hardware requirements. Should you now proceed with the in-place upgrade?

Answer 511

**No. **
You must backup user data and settings first. A backup is essential as a security precaution.

Question 512

You are monitoring system performance and notice that a substantial number of page faults are occurring. Does this indicate that a memory module is faulty?

Answer 512

No—it shows the system is using the pagefile intensively and could benefit from more system RAM being installed.

Question 513

You are attempting to run a command but receive the message “The requested operation requires elevation.” What must you do to run the command?

Answer 513

Open a new command prompt window with sufficient privileges.
You can right-click the Command Prompt icon and select Run as administrator or press CTRL+SHIFT+ENTER to execute the icon or cmd.exe command.

Question 514

You are supporting a user who has installed a vendor keyboard driver. The keyboard no longer functions correctly. Under Windows 10, what are the steps to revert to the previous driver?

Answer 514

Open Device Manager from the WinX menu, Instant Search, or the Computer Management console. Expand Keyboards, then right-click the device and select Properties. On the Driver tab, select Roll Back Driver.

Question 515

How would you update an app purchased from the Mac App Store?

Answer 515

Open the Mac App Store,
then select the Updates button.

Question 516

You are assisting a user over the phone and need to identify the edition of Windows that is installed. What step instructions must you give for the user to report this information to you?

Answer 516

Open the Settings app,
then select System.
Select the About section, and read the text next to Edition under the Windows specifications heading.

Question 517

You are checking that a remote Windows workstation will be able to dial into a web conference with good quality audio/video. What is the best tool to use to measure latency between the workstation’s network and the web conferencing server?

Answer 517

pathping measures latency over a longer period and so will return a more accurate measurement than the individual round trip time (RTT) values returned by ping or tracert.

Question 518

You are updating data handling guidance to help employees recognize different types of regulated data. What examples could you add to help identify healthcare data?

Answer 518

Personal healthcare data is
- Medical records,
- Insurance forms,
- Hospital/laboratory test results, and so on.

(Healthcare information is also present in de-identified or anonymized data sets.)

Question 519

A different user wants to configure a multiplayer game server by using the DMZ feature of the router. Is this the best configuration option?

Answer 519

Probably not. Using a home router’s “demilitarized zone” or DMZ host option forwards traffic for all ports not covered by specific port-forwarding rules to the host. It is possible to achieve a secure configuration with this option by blocking unauthorized ports and protecting the host using a personal firewall, but using specific port-forwarding/mapping rules is better practice. The most secure solution is to isolate the game server in a screened subnet so that is separated from other LAN hosts, but this typically requires multiple router/firewalls.

Question 520

You are monitoring CPU Usage and notice that it often jumps to 100% and then falls back. Does this indicate a problem?

Answer 520

Probably not—CPU Usage usually peaks and falls. If it stays over 80–90%, the system could require a faster CPU, or if it spikes continually, there could be a faulty application.

Question 521

A file is secured with the numeric permissions 0774. What rights does another user account have over the file?

Answer 521

Read-only

Question 522

A user calls saying that their screen occasionally goes blue, and the system shuts down. What should you advise the user to do?

Answer 522

Record STOP Error Information: Ask the user to take note of the STOP error code and any error messages that appear on the blue screen when the system crashes. The STOP error code, also known as the “Blue Screen of Death” (BSOD) code, can provide valuable clues about the cause of the issue.

Question 523

You are joining a new startup business that will perform outsourced IT management for client firms. You have been asked to identify an appropriate software solution for off-site support and to ensure that service level agreement (SLA) metrics for downtime incidents are adhered to. What general class of remote access technology will be most suitable?

Answer 523

Remote monitoring and management (RMM) tools are principally designed for use by managed service providers (MSPs). As well as remote access and monitoring, this class of tools supports management of multiple client accounts and billing/reporting.

Question 524

What command would allow you to delete the contents of the folder /home/jaime/junk and all its subdirectories?

Answer 524

rm -r /home/jaime/junk

Question 525

If you suspect improper handling during installation has caused damage to a RAM module, how could you test that suspicion?

Answer 525

**Run a Memory Diagnostic. **
Because this tests each RAM cell, it should uncover any fault.

Question 526

You are troubleshooting a print problem, which turned out to be caused by user error. The user is not confident that the problem is solved and wants more reassurance. You have already explained what the user was doing wrong in some detail. What should you do?

Answer 526

Run through the print process step-by-step to show that it works. It is very important to get a customer’s acceptance that a problem is closed.

Question 527

You have a computer with two SATA disks. You want to evaluate the performance of the primary disk. How would you select this in Performance Monitor, and what might be appropriate counters to use?

Answer 527

Select the Physical Disk object,
select the counter, and then select the 0 C: instance.

(Counters that are useful for evaluating performance include % Disk Time and Average Disk Queue Length.)

Question 528

You are writing work instructions for third-party app deployments using the CompTIA A+ objectives to guide you. In the section on system requirements for applications, you have covered the following topics:

• 32-bit- vs. 64-bit-dependent Operating System requirements
• Dedicated graphics card vs. integrated (VRAM requirements)
• RAM requirements
• CPU requirements
• External hardware tokens

What additional topic should you include, if any?

Answer 528

Storage requirements.
Each app takes up a certain amount of space when installed to the fixed disk. Also, you must plan for user-generated file storage, temp files, log files, and other data generated through use of the app.

Question 529

Which Linux command allows a user to run a specific command or program with superuser/root privileges?

Answer 529

sudo

Question 530

In terms of system hardware, what is the main advantage of a 64-bit version of Windows?

Answer 530

Support for more than 4 GB RAM.

Question 531

You are assisting with the development of end-user security awareness documentation. What is the difference between tailgating and shoulder surfing?

Answer 531

Tailgating means following someone else through a door or gateway to enter premises without authorization.
Shoulder surfing means covertly observing someone type a PIN or password or other confidential data.

Question 532

A security consultant has recommended more frequent monitoring of the antivirus software on workstations. What sort of checks should this monitoring perform? (3)

Answer 532

• That the antivirus is enabled,
• It’s up to date with scan engine components and definitions,
• And has only authorized exclusions configured.

Question 533

What primary indicator must be verified in the browser before using a web form?

Answer 533

That the browser address bar displays the lock icon to indicate that the site uses a trusted certificate. This validates the site identity and protects information submitted via the form from interception.

Question 534

What are the prerequisites for joining a computer to a domain? (3)

Answer 534

• The computer must be running a supported edition of Windows (Pro, Enterprise, or Education).
• The PC must be configured with an appropriate IP address and have access to the domain DNS servers.
• An account with domain administrative credentials must be used to authorize the join operation.

Question 535

What are the requirements for configuring fingerprint authentication via Windows Hello?

Answer 535

The computer must have a fingerprint reader and a trusted platform module (TPM). Windows Hello must first be configured with a personal identification number (PIN) as a backup method.

Question 536

Your company is replacing its Windows desktops with Mac workstations, and you need to assist users with the transition. What is the equivalent of File Explorer in macOS?

Answer 536

The Finder.

Question 537

You are troubleshooting an issue with a wireless adapter. When you open Device Manager, you find the device’s icon is shown with a down arrow superimposed. What does this mean, and why might this configuration have been imposed?

Answer 537

The icon indicates that the device has been disabled. It could be that there was a fault, or there may be a network configuration or security reason for disabling the adapter.

(In this sort of situation, use incident logs and device documentation to establish the reason behind the configuration change.)

Question 538

A customer asks whether an iOS app that your company developed will also work on her Apple macOS computer. What issue does this raise, and what answer might you give?

Answer 538

The issue here is compatibility between different operating systems. Even though both are produced by Apple, iOS and macOS use different environments, so the iOS app cannot necessarily be installed directly. Your company might make a macOS version. With the latest versions of macOS, there is support for native iOS apps, so this might be something you can offer.

Question 539

For which backup/restore issue is a cloud-based backup service an effective solution?

Answer 539

The issue of provisioning an off-site copy of a backup. Cloud storage can also provide extra capacity.

Question 540

What care should you take when lifting a heavy object?

Answer 540

The main concern is damaging your back. Lift slowly and use your legs for power, not your back muscles.

Question 541

You are assisting another user who is trying to configure a static IP on a Windows workstation. The user says that 255.255.255.0 is not being accepted in the prefix length box. Should the user open a different dialog to complete the configuration or enter a different value?

Answer 541

The Network & Internet settings Edit IP settings dialog can be used. 255.255.255.0 is the subnet mask in dotted decimal format. The dialog just requires the number of mask bits. Each “255” in a dotted decimal mask represents 8 bits, so the user should enter 24.

Question 542

Apart from Windows and macOS, what operating system options are there for client PCs installed to a local network? (3)

Answer 542

• The other main choice is one of the distributions of Linux
• A company might also use some sort of UNIX.
• Finally, Chrome OS is installed on Chromebox PCs. These are often used by educational institutions and businesses that rely primarily on web applications rather than locally installed desktop software.

Question 543

A company must deploy custom browser software to employees’ workstations. What method can be used to validate the download and installation of this custom software?

Answer 543

The package can be signed using a developer certificate issued by a trusted certificate authority. Alternatively, a cryptographic hash of the installer can be made, and this value can be given to each support technician. When installing the software, the technician can make his or her own hash of the downloaded installer and compare it to the reference hash.

Question 544

You are repurposing an old computer. You perform a clean OS install using optical media. During setup, you configured the partition manager to apply GPT style. After the file copy stage, the new installation fails to boot. What is the likely cause?

Answer 544

The PC is set to boot using the legacy BIOS method. This is not compatible with GPT-style partitioning.
(If supported by system firmware setup, switch to UEFI boot. If the firmware is BIOS only, change the boot method back to optical disc, run setup again, and choose MBR partitioning.)

Question 545

While you are assigning privileges to the accounting department in your organization, Cindy, a human resource administrative assistant, insists that she needs access to the employee records database so that she can fulfill change of address requests from employees. After checking with her manager and referring to the organization’s access control security policy, you discover that Cindy’s job role does not fall into the authorized category for access to that database. What security concept are you practicing in this scenario?

Answer 545

The principle of least privilege.

Question 546

You take a support call where the user doesn’t understand why a program runs at startup when the Startup folder is empty. What is the likely cause, and how could you verify this?

Answer 546

The program has added a registry entry to run at startup.
You could check this (and optionally disable the program) by using Task Manager.

Question 547

Which Windows command is probably best suited for scripting file backup operations?

Answer 547

The robocopy command offers more options than those offered by the xcopy command, so it will usually be the better choice. The copy command is quite basic and probably not suitable.

Question 548

What is the significance of a $ symbol at the end of a share name?

Answer 548

The share is hidden from the file browser.
It can be accessed by typing a UNC. The default administrative shares are all configured as hidden.

Question 549

In Windows, what is the difference between the boot volume and the system volume?

Answer 549

The boot volume contains the boot files; the system volume contains the system root (OS files).
The boot volume is not normally assigned a drive letter. The system volume is normally allocated the drive letter C:.

Question 550

You receive a call from a user trying to save a file and receiving an “Access Denied” error. Assuming a normal configuration with no underlying file corruption, encryption, or malware issue, what is the cause and what do you suggest?

Answer 550

The user does not have “Write” or “Modify” permission to that folder.
If there is no configuration issue, you should advise the user about the storage locations permitted for user-generated files. If there were a configuration issue, you would investigate why the user had not been granted the correct permissions for the target folder.

Question 551

Assuming default Explorer view settings are configured, what steps should the user take to get better context of files?

Answer 551

The user must first show file extensions, using the View tab in the File Explorer Options applet
(you might also note that this can be done via a check box on the View menu ribbon of File Explorer).

Question 552

You are assisting a user with configuring a static IP address. The user has entered the following configuration values and now cannot access the Internet. Is there a configuration issue or a different problem?

• IP: 192.168.1.1
• Mask: 255.255.255.0
• Gateway: 192.168.1.0
• DNS: 192.168.1.0

Answer 552

There is a configuration problem.
192.168.1.0 is not a host address. With the subnet mask 255.255.255.0, it identifies the network range as 192.168.1.0/24. The gateway is usually configured as the first available host address in this range: 192.168.1.1. The DNS server should also be set to 192.168.1.1. The client IP should be set to any other available value, such as 192.168.1.100.

Question 553

You are assisting with the design of a new campus building for a multinational firm. On the recommendation of a security consultant, the architect has added closely spaced sculpted stone posts with reinforced steel cores that surround the area between the building entrance and the street. At the most recent client meeting, the building owner has queried the cost of these. Can you explain their purpose?

Answer 553

These bollards are designed to prevent vehicles from crashing into the building lobby as part of a terrorist or criminal attack.

(The security consultant should only recommend the control if the risk of this type of attack justifies the expense.)

Question 554

When you set NTFS permissions on a folder, what happens to the files and subfolders by default?

Answer 554

They inherit the parent folder’s permissions.

Question 555

What are the principal characteristics of a surge protector? (3)

Answer 555

This is a circuit designed to protect connected devices from the effect of sudden increases or spikes in the supply voltage and/or current. Surge protectors are rated by:
- Clamping voltage (low values are better),
- Joules rating (higher values are better),
- Amperage (the maximum current that can be carried).

Question 556

You discover that a threat actor has been able to harvest credentials from some visitors connecting to the company’s wireless network from the lobby. The visitors had connected to a network named “Internet” and were presented with a web page requesting an email address and password to enable guest access. The company’s access point had been disconnected from the cabled network. What type of attack has been perpetrated?

Answer 556

This is an evil twin attack where the threat actor uses social engineering techniques to persuade users to connect to an access point that spoofs a legitimate guest network service.

Question 557

A computer cannot connect to the network. The machine is configured to obtain a TCP/IP configuration automatically. You use ipconfig to determine the IP address and it returns 0.0.0.0. What does this tell you?

Answer 557

This is an irregular state for a Windows PC. If a DHCP server cannot be contacted, the machine should default to using an APIPA address (169.254.x.y). As it has not done this, something is wrong with the networking software installed on the machine. The best option is probably to perform a network reset via the Settings > Network & Internet > Status page

Question 558

You are advising a customer with an older-model Android smartphone. The customer wants to update to the latest version of Android, but using the update option results in a “No updates available” message. What type of issue is this, and what advice can you provide?

Answer 558

This is an issue with update limitations. Android is quite a fragmented market, and customers must depend on the handset vendor to implement OS updates for a particular model. The customer can only check the handset vendor’s website or helpline to find out if a version update will ever be supported for that model.

Question 559

A user reports that a new device is not sustaining a battery charge for more than a couple of hours. What type of malware could this be a symptom of?

Answer 559

This is most characteristic of cryptomining malware as that explicitly hijacks the computer resources of a device to perform the intensive calculations required to mine blockchain currency.

Question 560

You are writing a proposal to improve a company’s current support procedures with a ticketing system. You have identified the following requirements for information that each ticket should capture. Following the CompTIA A+ objectives, what additional field or data point should be captured?

• User information
• Device information
• Problem description/Progress notes/Problem resolution
• Categories
• Escalation levels

Answer 560

This list contains no means of recording the severity of the ticket. This field is important for prioritizing issues.

Question 561

If a single physical disk is divided into three partitions in a non-Windows environment, how many different file systems can be supported?

Answer 561

Three—each partition can use a different file system.

Question 562

What is the name of Apple’s backup software for macOS?

Answer 562

Time Machine

Question 563

You are writing guidance for departmental managers to request new software installs. You want each manager to consider impacts to the business, operation, network, and devices as part of their request. In terms of impacts to business, you have written guidance to consider support and training requirements. What other topic should you include?

Answer 563

To consider:
- licensing requirements, such as number of users or devices.
- There also needs to be a system for monitoring license compliance
- ensuring there are no unauthorized installs

Question 564

Why might you run the shutdown command with the /t switch?

Answer 564

To specify a delay between running the command and shutdown starting. You might do this to give users a chance to save work or to ensure that a computer is restarted overnight.

Question 565

True or false? If you want the same policy to apply to a number of computers within a domain, you could add the computers to the same Organizational Unit (OU) and apply the policy to the OU.

Answer 565

True

Question 566

True or false? You can configure a web server running on Linux to accept remote terminal connections from clients without using passwords.

Answer 566

**True. **
This can be configured using public key authentication with the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol. The server can be installed with the public keys of authorized users.

Question 567

True or false? WPA3 personal mode is configured by selecting a passphrase shared between all users who are permitted to connect to the network.

Answer 567

**True. **
WPA3-Personal uses group authentication via a shared passphrase. The simultaneous authentication of equals (SAE) mechanism by which this passphrase is used to generate network encryption keys is improved compared to the older WPA2 protocol, however.

Question 568

A program is continually using 99–100% of processor time. What should you do?

Answer 568

Try to end the application or the process using Task Manager, and then contact the application vendor to find out why the problem is occurring.

Question 569

You are developing a script to ensure that the M: drive is mapped consistently to the same network folder on all client workstations. What type of construct might you use to ensure the script runs without errors?

Answer 569

Use a conditional block (If statement) to check for an existing mapping, and remove it before applying the correct mapping.

Question 570

You are updating an internal support knowledge base with advice for troubleshooting mobile devices. What is the first step to take if a user reports that an app will not close?

Answer 570

Use force stop if available and/or reboot the device.

Question 571

You are supporting a user who has just replaced a wireless router. The user has joined the new wireless network successfully but can no longer find other computers on the network. What should you check first?

Answer 571

Use Network & Internet to check the network profile type. When the network changed, the user probably selected the wrong option at the prompt to allow the PC to be discoverable, and the profile is probably set to Public. Change the type Private.

Question 572

A Windows user is trying to join a video conference and cannot hear any sound from her headset. Which tool can you suggest using to try to remedy the fault?

Answer 572

Use the Sound settings app or Control Panel applet to check the volume setting and that the headset is configured as the input and output device. If the headset is not listed, check the USB or Bluetooth connection.

Question 573

Which three principal user security groups are created when Windows is installed?

Answer 573

- Users,
- Administrators,
- Guests
(You might also include Power Users, though use of this group is deprecated. Going beyond the account types listed in the exam objectives, you might include groups such as Remote Desktop Users, Remote Management Users, or Backup Operators. There are also system groups, such as Everyone, but users cannot be assigned manually to these.)

Question 574

Your organization is donating workstations to a local college. The workstations have a mix of HDD and SSD fixed disks. There is a proposal to use a Windows boot disk to delete the partition information for each disk. What factors must be considered before proceeding with this method?

Answer 574

Using standard formatting tools will leave data remnants that could be recovered in some circumstances. This might not be considered high risk, but it would be safer to use a vendor low-level format tool with support for Secure Erase or Crypto Erase.

Question 575

You have downloaded an installer for a third-party app from the vendor’s website. What should you do before proceeding with setup?

Answer 575

Verify the integrity of the download using a hash value or the vendor’s digital certificate.

Question 576

A user calls to say that he clicked Yes to a prompt to allow the browser to access the computer’s location service while using a particular site and is now worried about personal information being tracked by other sites. How can the user adjust the app permission in Windows?

Answer 576

Via the App permissions section under Privacy settings.

(You might also note that most browser software can be configured to only allow location information on a per-site basis.)

Question 577

You are updating a procedure that lists security considerations for remote access technologies. One of the precautions is to check that remote access ports have not been opened on the firewall without authorization. Which default port for VNC needs to be monitored?

Answer 577

Virtual Network Computing (VNC) uses TCP port 5900 by default.

Question 578

A user works on a document and leaves the file open for lunch. Upon the user’s return, the computer is in power-saving mode. How do you reassure the user and advise on the status of the file?

Answer 578

When a computer goes into a power-saving mode, it will either maintain a small amount of power to the memory modules or write the contents of memory to a hibernation file on disk. Consequently, the user should be able to start the laptop again, and the desktop will resume with the open file still there. You should advise the customer to save changes to files regularly, however.

Question 579

You are developing a script to scan server hosts to discover which ports are open and to identify which server software is operating the port. What considerations should you make before deploying this script?

Answer 579

While the risk is low, scanning activity could cause problems with the target and possibly even crash it. Test the script in a sandbox environment before deploying it. Security software might block the operation of this script, and there is some risk from the script or its output being misused. Make sure that use of the script and its output are subject to access controls and that any system reconfiguration is properly change-managed.

Question 580

What does chain-of-custody documentation prove?

Answer 580

Who has had access to evidence collected from a crime scene and where and how it has been stored.

Question 581

You are advising a business that needs to provision video-editing workstations with 4-way multiprocessing. Which retail Windows edition will allow them to make full use of this hardware?

Answer 581

Windows Pro for Workstations supports 4-way multiprocessing (four CPUs installed to separate sockets) and up to 6 TB RAM. Windows Enterprise has the same hardware limits but is not available via a retail channel.

Question 582

You are advising a customer whose business is expanding. The business owner needs to provision an additional 30 desktop computers, some of which will be installed at a second office location. The business is currently run with a workgroup network of five Windows 10 Home Premium desktop computers and one file server. Why might you suggest licenses for an edition of Windows 10 that supports corporate needs for the new computers and has upgrades for the old computers? Which specific edition(s) could you recommend?

Answer 582

Without a domain, accounts must be configured on each computer individually. With more than 30 computers to manage at two locations, this would be a substantial task, so switching to a domain network, where the accounts can be configured on the server, is likely to save costs in the long term. You can suggest either Windows 10 Pro or Windows 10 Enterprise for use on a domain.

Question 583

If a user obtains Read permissions from a share and Deny Write from NTFS permissions, can the user view files in the folder over the network?

Answer 583

Yes (but he or she cannot create files).

Question 584

Is the command format d: /fs:exfat /q valid? If so, what is its effect, and what precaution might you need to take before running it?

Answer 584

Yes, it is valid. It formats drive D with the exFAT file system by using a quick format (does not scan for bad sectors). This will delete the file table on the drive so existing data files can be overwritten—the formatted drive will appear to be empty in Explorer. If there are existing files that need to be preserved, they should be backed up before running the format command.

Question 585

You are assisting a home user who wants her spouse to be able to sign in to a new Windows laptop using a Microsoft account. Is this possible, and if so, which management interface is used?

Answer 585

Yes, while there are varying methods in accomplishing this task, this can be done via the Accounts settings app. You can also use the legacy control panel on both Windows 10 and 11.

Question 586

The marketing department has refitted a kitchen area and provisioned several smart appliances for employee use. Should the IT department have been consulted first?

Answer 586

Yes. Uncontrolled deployment of network-enabled devices is referred as shadow IT. The devices could increase the network attack surface and expose it to vulnerabilities. The devices must be deployed in a secure configuration and monitored for security advisories and updates.

Question 587

You are assisting a user with setting up Internet access to a web server on a home network. You want to configure a DHCP reservation to set the web server’s IP address, allow external clients to connect to the secure port TCP/443, but configure the web server to listen on port TCP/8080. Is this configuration possible on a typical home router?

Answer 587

Yes.
You need to configure a port-mapping rule so that the router takes requests arriving at its WAN IP for TCP/443 and forwards them to the server’s IP address on TCP/8080. Using a known IP address for the server by configuring a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) reservation simplifies this configuration. The home router’s DHCP server must be configured with the media access control (MAC) address or hardware identifier of the web server.

Question 588

What tool would you use to add a user to a local security group?

Answer 588

You can change the account type between Standard and Administrator via Control Panel, but the Local Users and Groups management console is the tool to use for a custom security group. You could also use the net localgroup command.

Question 589

What are the two main types of network topology diagrams?

Answer 589

You can create diagrams to show the physical topology or the logical topology.
- The physical topology shows how nodes are connected by cabling.
- The logical topology shows IP addresses and subnets/VLANs.

(There are lots of other types of network topology diagrams, of course, but physical and logical are the two basic distinctions you can make. It is best practice not to try to create a diagram that shows both as this is likely to reduce clarity.)

Question 590

What frequent tests should you perform to ensure the integrity of backup settings and media?

Answer 590

You can perform a test restore and validate the files. You can run an integrity check on the media by using, for example, chkdsk on a hard drive used for backup. Backup software can often be configured to perform an integrity check on each file during a backup operation. You can also perform an audit of files included in a backup against a list of source files to ensure that everything has been included.

Question 591

You want to execute a block of statements based on the contents of an inventory list. What type of code construct is best suited to this task?

Answer 591

You can use any type of loop to iterate through the items in a list or collection, but a For loop is probably the simplest.

Question 592

Why might you need to use a virus encyclopedia? (3)

Answer 592

You might need to:
- verify symptoms of infection
- Also, if a virus cannot be removed automatically, you might want to find a manual removal method
- You might also want to identify the consequences of infection—whether the virus might have stolen passwords, and so on.

Question 593

You need to set up a VPN connection on a user’s Windows laptop. The VPN type is IKEv2. What other information, if any, do you need to configure the connection?

Answer 593

You must also input the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) or IP address of the remote access VPN server.

Question 594

The contract ended recently for several workers who were hired for a specific project. The IT department has not yet removed those employees’ login accounts. It appears that one of the accounts has been used to access the network, and a rootkit was installed on a server. You immediately contact the agency the employee was hired through and learn that the employee is out of the country, so it is unlikely that this person caused the problem. What actions do you need to take?

Answer 594

You need to:
1. create an incident report
2. remove or disable the login accounts
3. isolate the infected server and possibly any user computers that communicate with the server
4. remove the rootkit from the server.

(In terms of wider security policies, investigate why the temporary accounts were not disabled on completion of the project.)