Practice Flashcards

1
Q

What are the five types of dermatological treatment?

A

1) surface treatment (insect repellent, sunscreen, topical anti microbial/fungal)
2) stratum corneum (solar keratosis, emollient therapy)
3) skin appendages (acne, depilatory, antiperspirant)
4) viable epidermis/dermis (anti-inflammatory, anaesthetic, antihistamine)
5) transdermal (HRT, opioid, Parkinson’s)

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2
Q

Examples of internal topical preparations?

A
Mucosal membranes, rectal, vaginal 
Bonjela 
Nystatin
Clotrimazole
Anusol
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3
Q

Advantages of topical delivery?

A
No first pass metabolism 
Controlled release 
More selective to target site
Less side effects 
Easy to use
Good compliance
Avoid fluctuation in drug levels 
Efficacy with lower daily doses 
Easy to terminate drug action
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4
Q

Disadvantages of topical delivery?

A

Allergic reactions to active and excipients
Larger drug particles may not penetrate the skin
Only for drugs where smaller plasma concentrations are required
Enzymatic breakdown of some drugs in the skin

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5
Q

How do transdermal penetration enhancers act?

A

1) disruption of highly ordered structure of stratum corneum lipid
2) interaction with intercellular protein
3) improved partition of the drug, co-enhancer or solvent into the strain corneum

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6
Q

Examples of transdermal penetration enhancers?

A

Propylene glycol
N-methyl pyrrolidone (NMP)
Dimethyl sulphoxide (DMSO)
Laurocapram (azone)

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7
Q

Types of solid topical dosage forms?

A

Powder
Aerosol
Plaster

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8
Q

Types of liquid topical dosage forms?

A
Lotion
Liniment 
Solution
Emulsion
Suspension
Aerosol
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9
Q

Types of semi-solid topical dosage forms?

A
Ointment
Cream
Paste
Gel
Jelly
Suppository
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10
Q

Ointment features?

A
Usually less than 20% water 
More than 50% hydrocarbons
Greasier than other preparations 
Soften/melt at body temperature
Translucent
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11
Q

Advantages of ointments?

A

Less skin sensitivities due to less preservatives
Good for moderate to severe dry skin
Good for night time application
Less regular applications needed

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12
Q

Disadvantages of ointments?

A

Some people don’t like the greasy feeling so can cause non-adherence
Can ‘grease’ clothes and bedding

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13
Q

Features of creams?

A

Semisolid that possesses a relatively soft, spreadable consistency
More fluid than ointments
Formulated as either water in oil or oil in water emulsions
White appearance due to scattered light from dispersed oil globules
Less greasy

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14
Q

Advantages of creams?

A

Less greasy so increased adherence

Can be used in weeping eczema

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15
Q

Disadvantages of creams?

A

More applications required

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16
Q

Features of lotions?

A

Light preparations with high water content

Oil in water emulsion

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17
Q

Advantages of lotions?

A

Spread easily
Quickly absorbed
Can use on hair areas
Can be used to deliver antibiotics, antifungals, corticosteroids etc

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18
Q

Disadvantages of lotions?

A

Poor moisturising properties

Must be shaken

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19
Q

Features of gels?

A

Semisolid systems
Consist of dispersion of small inorganic particles or large organic molecules in an aqueous suspension
Also use a gelling agent such as carbomer to thicken the colloidal dispersion
Non-Newtonian flow characteristics
Very high water content but are water insoluble
Can contain drug substances, cosolvents, anti microbial preservatives, stabilisers
Drug release rate depends of physical structure of the gel

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20
Q

What are emollients?

A

Smooth and soften skin by restoring the skin barrier
Semi-solids that contain no water (oil or grease based)
Can contain exfoliations (salicylic acid), antipruritics (lauromacrogols), lipids such as ceremides and cholesterol and antiseptics

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21
Q

How do emollients moisturise the skin?

A

Increase the amount of water in the stratum corneum in two ways:
Occlusion by trapping moisture into the skin it is best achieved by greasy emollients such as petrolatum products
Active movement of water from the dermis with low molecular weight molecules called humectants (urea, glycerine)

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22
Q

What are parabens?

A
Hydroxybenzoates
Popular preservative found in creams
Broad spectrum of anti microbial activity
Colourless, odourless
Stable 
Unexpensive
But allergies in 1.2% of patients
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23
Q

What is lanolin?

A

Yellow, waxy substance secreted from sebaceous glands of sheep to waterproof their wool
Rarely cause reactions (hypoallergenic)

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24
Q

Counselling required for paraffin?

A

Flammable

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25
Q

What is sodium Lauryl Sulfate?

A

Surfactant and detergent
Partly water soluble and partly oil soluble this allows the water and oil to become mixed
Used in emollients for its thickening and emulsifying properties
Can be drying and may cause irritation

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26
Q

Advice when giving out an emollient?

A

Wash and dry hands and affected area
Maybe use a spatula to reduce microbial contamination or give a pump dispenser
Apply as frequently as possible and especially after bathing
Avoid bubble baths
Use as a soap substitute- either apply when wet or dry then wash off
Apply in the direction of the growing body hair

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27
Q

What is the recommended amount of emollient to use per week?

A

500-1000g per week

Half for a child

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28
Q

Cautions with bath oils?

A

Elderly and young children due to bath becoming slippery

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29
Q

What are adverse drug reactions?

A

An unwanted or harmful reaction that occurs after administration of a drug and is suspected or known to be to due to the drug

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30
Q

What percentage of hospital admissions are due to ADRs?

A

6-7%

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31
Q

ADRs occur in what percent of hospital inpatients?

A

10-20%

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32
Q

Implications of ADRs?

A

adverse effect on patients quality of life
Can cause patients to lose trust
Increased cost of patient care
Lengthen hospital stays
May mimic disease, causing unnecessary investigations

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33
Q

What does type A ADRs stand for?

A

augmented

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34
Q

What are type A ADRs?

A
Predictable
Does related 
Morbidity high
Mortality low 
Usually stops when the drug is withdrawn
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35
Q

Examples of type A ADRs?

A

Bleeding from warfarin

Antimuscarinic side effects from TCAs

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36
Q

Antimuscarinic ADRs mneumonic?

A
SLUMBAG
Salivation, secretions, sweating (lack of)
Lacrimation (lack of)
Urinary retention 
Miosis
Bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, bowel movement
Abdominal cramps, anorexia
GI upset
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37
Q

What do type B ADRs stand for?

A

bizarre

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38
Q

What are type B ADRs?

A

unpredictable
Rare
Often severe

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39
Q

Examples of type B ADRs?

A

anaphylaxis from antibiotics

Agranulocytosis from clozapine, carbimazole and carbamazepine

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40
Q

What do type C ADRs stand for?

A

Continuous

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41
Q

What are type C ADRs?

A

when the patient has been taking for a long time

Need to assess benefits vs risks of continuing treatment

42
Q

Example of a type C ADR?

A

osteonecrosis of the jaw with bisphosphonates

43
Q

What do type D ADRs stand for?

A

delayed

44
Q

What are types D ADRs?

A

It can happen after the course of medication has been completed

45
Q

Example of a type D ADR?

A

Tendon rupture with ciprofloxacin

46
Q

What do type E ADRs stand for?

A

end of use

47
Q

What are type E ADRs?

A

withdrawal symptoms

48
Q

Example of a type E ADR?

A

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

49
Q

Groups most vulnerable to ADRs?

A
Elderly
Renal impairment
Hepatic impairment
Children
Pregnancy
Breast-feeding
Women (due pharmacokinetics, immunology and hormones)
50
Q

Frequency of a very common ADR?

A

More than 1 in 10

51
Q

Frequency of a common ADR?

A

1-10 to 1-100

52
Q

Frequency of an uncommon ADR?

A

1 in 100 to 1 in 1000

53
Q

Frequency of a rare ADR?

A

1 in 1000 to 1 in 10,000

54
Q

Frequency of a very rare ADR?

A

less than 1 in 10,000

55
Q

What does frequency not known mean in regards to ADRs?

A

frequency is not defined by product literature, or the side effect has been reported from post-marketing surveillance data

56
Q

Top 10 drugs that cause ADRs?

A
NSAIDs
Diuretics
Warfarin
ACE inhibitors/ AII antagonists
Antidepressants
Beta-blockers
Opiates
Digoxin
Prednisolone
Clopidogrel
57
Q

ADRs from NSAIDs?

A
GI bleeding
Poetic ulceration
Haemorrhagic cerebrovascular event
Renal impairment
Wheezing 
Rash
58
Q

ADRs from Diuretics?

A

Renal impairment
Hypotension
Electrolyte disturbance
Gout

59
Q

ADRs from warfarin?

A

GI bleeding
Haematuria
High INR
Haematoma

60
Q

ADRs from ACE inhibitors/AII antagonists?

A

Renal impairment
Hypotension
Electrolyte disturbance
Angioedema

61
Q

ADRs from antidepressants?

A
Confusion
Hypotension 
Constipation 
GI bleeds
Hyponatremia
62
Q

ADRs from beta-blockers?

A

Bradycardia
Heart block
Hypotension
Wheezing

63
Q

ADRs from opiates?

A

Constipation
Vomiting
Confusion
Urinary retention

64
Q

ADRs from digoxin?

A

Symptomatic toxic levels

65
Q

ADRs from prednisolone?

A

Gastritis
GI bleeding
Hyperglycaemia
Osteoporotic fracture

66
Q

ADRs from clopidogrel?

A

GI bleeding

67
Q

What drug reactions should be reported by the yellow card scheme?

A

Serious reactions from established drugs

All reactions from new drugs

68
Q

What is pharmacovigilance?

A

Monitoring the use of medicines in everyday practice to identity ADRs
Assessing risks and benefits of medications
Providing information to healthcare professions to optimise safety
Monitoring the effect of any action taken

69
Q

Drugs that increase the risk of falls in the elderly?

A
benzodiazepines
Antidepressants
Sedatives
Antipsychotics
Anticonvulsants
Anticholinergics
Opioids 
Antihypertensives
70
Q

What kind of drugs require close monitoring?

A

those with a narrow therapeutic index

71
Q

Drug interaction definition?

A

when the effect of one drug is changed by the presence of another drug, food, drink or an environmental chemical agent

72
Q

Types of pharmacodynamic drug reactions?

A

interference with drug effects of receptor
Interference with a physiological control process
Additive or opposing physiological effects

73
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

increased stimulation of serotonin receptors through increased release, reduced reuptake of serotonin and increased stimulation of receptors

74
Q

Symptoms of serotonin syndrome?

A
mental status changes
GI disturbances 
Agitation
Confusion
Hallucinations
Hyperthermia 
Tremor
75
Q

Drugs that can cause serotonin syndrome?

A
Ondansetron
Triptans
SSRIs
Mirtazapine
Fentanyl
Tramadol
Cocaine
St. Johns wort
Legal highs
76
Q

What are pharmacokinetic drug interactions?

A

When the presence of one drug increased or decreased the concentration of another
More difficult to predict
All ADME

77
Q

What are absorption drug interactions?

A

Formation of insoluble complexes

Enhanced absorption

78
Q

Examples of absorption drug interactions?

A

Alendronic acid has decreased bioavailability when taken with calcium
Rivaroxaban had increased absorption when taken with food

79
Q

What are distribution drug interactions?

A

drugs that compete for the same transport proteins

Inhibition of efflux transporters

80
Q

Examples of distribution drug interactions?

A

Verapamil affects P-gp efflux pumps, so less digoxin is transported back out. Increasing digoxin concentrations
Phenytoin and valproate compete for the same protein binding site, usually displacing phenytoin

81
Q

Examples of drugs that commonly interact with CYP enzyme inhibitors and inducers?

A
warfarin
Contraceptive pill
Theophylline
Corticosteroids
Tricyclics
Pethidine
Statins
82
Q

What do CYP inducers do?

A

Reduce the concentration of drugs that are metabolised by CYPs

83
Q

Examples of CYP inducers?

A
CRAPGPS
Carbamazepine
Rifampin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin 
Phenobarbital
Sulphonylureas
84
Q

Why do CYP inhibitors do?

A

increase the concentration of drugs that are metabolism by CYPs

85
Q

Examples of CYP inhibitors?

A
SICKFACESCOM
Sodium valproate 
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole 
Fluconazole
Alcohol and grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol 
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole
86
Q

Example of food/drink being a CYP inhibitor?

A

cranberry juice inhibits CYP2C9, which breaks warfarin down, leading to increased levels of warfarin
Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4, which breaks down statins leading to increased exposure. This can lead to rhabdomyolysis

87
Q

How can CYP induction cause toxic metabolites?

A

paracetamol is usually conjugated with glutathione to form a non-toxic metabolite
Once this is used up, paracetamol can conjugate with other compounds to produce toxic metabolites

88
Q

Name a drug that can act as both a CYP inducer and inhibitor depending on the scenario?

A

Ritonavir

89
Q

What is a sign?

A

It can be objectively observed by the healthcare professional

90
Q

What is a symptom?

A

What is observed by the patient and cannot be directly measured

91
Q

What is biomedical testing?

A

the area of biomedical science that is concerned with the analysis of body specimens

92
Q

Types of biospecimen?

A
urine
Blood
Tissues
Cells
DNA
RNA
Proteins
93
Q

Types of routine biomedical tests?

A
Microbiology 
Virology
Haematology
Coagulation
Clinical biochemistry 
Toxicology
Immunology/serology
Immunohaematology
Urinalysis 
Histopathology
Cytopathology
Electron microscopy
Genetics
TFTs
Lipid profile
94
Q

How can drugs affect biomedical tests?

A
in vivo
In vitro (interference with analytical procedure)
95
Q

Types of in vivo effects on biomedical tests?

A

such as raised LFTs or other tests due to drug side effects

96
Q

Types of in vitro effects on biomedical tests?

A

Alteration of chemical reactions, cause of turbidity in the reaction system, interference with enzyme reactions, cross-reaction with antibodies, radioactive interference

97
Q

What are the 12 standards for medical notes?

A

1) Should be available at all times during hospital stay
2) Every page should have name, identification number and hospital location
3) Standardised structure and layout
4) Documentation should reflect continuum of care (chronological)
5) Standardised proforma to document admission, handover and discharge
6) Every entry dated, timed (24hr clock), legible with name signed and printed. Alterations should be countersigned
7) Entries made as soon as possible
8) Should identify most senior professional present and consultant
9) Agreed transfer of care if consultant changes
10) Entry should be made everytime doctor sees patient. If no entry for 4 days (acute) or 7 days (long-stay) the next entry should explain why
11) Discharge summary should be commenced when patient is admitted
12) Clearly record advanced decisions such as refusing treatment, DNAR, consent

98
Q

What are Korotkoff sounds?

A

Noises used to measure blood pressure manually. It is when the blood pressure cuff changes the flow of blood through the artery

99
Q

What does NEWS stand for?

A

National Early Warning Score

100
Q

What does a NEWS score take into account?

A
Respiratory rate
Oxygen saturations (including if any supplementary oxygen)
Temperature 
Systolic blood pressure
Heart rate
Consciousness