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Practical Questions Flashcards

1
Q

If no alternate for a flag flight is available, but is required, how much fuel may be substituted?

A

2 hours of fuel for a turbojet

3 hours of fuel for a turboprop

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2
Q

What are standard takeoff minimums from a listed airport?

A

1 statute mile if operating a 2 engine aircraft

½ statute mile is operating a 3 engine aircraft

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3
Q

What are takeoff minimums from an airport that is not listed in the company operations specifications does not have instrument approaches?

A

1,000 foot ceilings and 1 statute mile visibility, or
900 foot ceilings and 1½ statute mile visibility, or
800 foot ceilings and 2 statute miles visibility

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4
Q

The required number of flight attendants on board an aircraft is based on what?

A

Passenger Seating capacity of the aircraft

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5
Q

Which required items on board an aircraft are based on passenger seating capability? On occupants?

A 
Seating:
1- flight attendants
2- first aid kits
3- Fire extinguishers
4- PA system and intercom

Occupants:
1- Survival Equipment,
2- Floatation devices
3- Oxygen

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6
Q

When is a takeoff alternate required for flag and domestic flights?

A

When visibility is less than required on the approach chart

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7
Q

Explain the difference between a domestic, flag, and supplemental air carriers

A

All are U.S. owned corporations
Both domestic and flag are scheduled flights that you can purchase tickets for, whereas supplemental are not scheduled, and you cannot purchase a ticket
Domestic operations are conducted within the contiguous 48 states
Flag operations are conducted in and out of the U.S.
Supplemental have no geographical limitations

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8
Q

What requirements must be met in order for an airport to be listed as a takeoff alternate?

A

The alternate must be listed in the company’s operation specifications and the weather must be above minimum requirements after C-55

For a 2 engine aircraft the airport can be no greater than 1 hour away in still air, with 1 engine inoperative

For more then 2 engine aircraft the airport can be no greater than 2 hours away in still air, with 1 engine inoperative

Flag over 6 hours always require an alternate, which can be substituted with island reserve fuel if no alternate exists

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9
Q

Why does an aircraft have the following structural limits?

A

Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW) is set to prevent wing bending while airborne
Taxi Weight is set to prevent overheating of the brakes under normal taxi time
Takeoff Weight is due to thrust capability of the engine
Landing Weight is set to avoid breakage of the weakest component of the aircraft

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10
Q

When is a destination alternate required for supplemental, domestic, and flag fights?

A

Supplemental flights always require an alternate
Flag flights that are under 6 hour and Domestic flights require an alternate when weather minimums at the destination airport 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA are below 2,000 foot ceilings and 3 SM visibility
Flag over 6 hours always require an alternate, which can be substituted with island reserve fuel if no alternate exists

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11
Q

When determining the length of a runway for landing, is the dispatcher concerned with actual runway length or effective runway length? What is the difference?

A

Effective runway length, because the actual runway length includes the displaced threshold

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12
Q

Under what part of the FARs does an individual qualify as an aircraft dispatcher?

A

Part 65

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13
Q

The Dispatching section under part 121 is assigned what subpart?

A

Subpart U

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14
Q

At and above what altitude and class type are VFR flights prohibited?

A

At and above flight level 180 and within class A airspace

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15
Q

What assistance does the pilot receive from a VASI system? What types are there?

A

VASI provides decent guidance and safe obstruction clearance. It indicated if the pilot is above, on, or below the glide slope.
VASI
PAPI
Tricolor system

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16
Q

Will certain types of runway environment lights allow an aircraft to take off with less than standard minimums? Must these exceptions, if they exist, be listed in the operation specifications?

A

Yes and it would be listed in the opspecs

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17
Q

Explain enroute engine out procedures and landing airport requirements for 2 engine and 3 or more engine aircrafts.

A

For a 2 engine aircraft, the pilot must land at the nearest suitable airport at point in time
For a 3 or more engine aircraft, the pilot can choose the suitable airport

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18
Q

Explain clearway and length requirements allowed when used in conjunction with take off distance.

A

A clearway is an area beyond the end of the runway clear of obstructions. It extends the takeoff distance available, but it cannot extend it more than 50% of the runway length

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19
Q

What do the MEA, MOCA, and OROCA provide during enroute operations?

A

All provide obstruction clearance, but radio reception differs between the types. MEA allows for radio contact from Navaid to Navaid, MOCA allows for radio contact within 22 NM from the Navaid, OROCA does not allow for radio contact

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20
Q

What are the 4 segments of takeoff climb?

A
  1. Vlof to gear retraction
  2. Gear retraction to 400 feet
  3. 400 feet to flap retraction
  4. Flap retraction to 1500 feet
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21
Q

In general terms, what items are associated with MEL and CDL?

A

CDL is the configuration deviation list and is generally associated with items on the outside of the aircraft
MEL is the minimum equipment list and is generally associated with items inside and on the outside of the aircraft

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22
Q

If an item becomes inoperative and it is not listed in the MEL, is the aircraft automatically grounded?

A

Yes, more research must be done in order to determine if they aircraft is safe to operate

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23
Q

Briefly explain the following types of airports.

A

Regular- is where flights are normally scheduled to and from, where you can purchase a ticket
Terminal- is where maintenance is provided
Refueling- is where refueling is performed
Provisional- is used as a backup airport for a particular flight or for a particular time when the regular airport cannot accommodate

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24
Q

Does a foreign air carrier entering and departing from the U.S. come under the classification of part 121 of the FARs?

A

No, it falls under part 129

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25
Q

Describe the difference between straight in approach and a straight in landing.

A

Straight in approach is any instrument approach that is executed without using the procedure turn.
Straight in landing is where the approach takes you within 30 degrees of the runway centerline

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26
Q

Does ceiling or visibility legally restrict the pilots from continuing an approach?

A

Typically in the U.S. only visibility restricts continuing an approach, however when flight planning both are restricting

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27
Q

How are category speeds determined for an aircraft? Is an aircraft always considered to be in the same category?

A

Category is determined by the Max Structural Landing Weight multiplied by 1.3
Aircrafts do not change categories and can never use an approach for a lower category aircraft

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28
Q

Does the dispatcher have authority to declare and emergency without first informing the pilot?

A

Yes, if communication with PIC is down

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29
Q

What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach? Give an example of a non-precision approach.

A

A precision approach uses a navigation system that provides course and glide slope guidance
A non-precision approach uses a navigation system for course deviation but does not provide glide slope information. VOR is an example of a non precision approach

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30
Q

What is ETOP? Describe the concept, including company and aircraft certifications. What advisory circular may be consulted?

A

ETOPS is extended over water operations. It allows the aircraft to fly a greater distance between 2 airports. Without ETOPS, a 1 engine aircraft can fly no more than 1 hour past an airport with 1 engine inoperative in still air at normal cruise speed. For an aircraft this is increased to 180 minutes.
For more information regarding ETOPS Advisory Circular 120-42B can be consulted.

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31
Q

What is altitude capability? What is its significance on choosing an enroute altitude?

A

Altitude capability is the maximum altitude at which the aircraft is capable of operating. When choosing an enroute altitude, the dispatcher cannot assign an altitude that exceeds this.

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32
Q

Explain the “look/see” privilege when a pilot is conducting an approach under part 121.

A

Once the pilot is on the final approach segment, he may determine the flight visibility

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33
Q

If an approach chart has different minimums than the company operation specifications, which document does the pilot abide by?

A

Opspecs

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34
Q

May an aircraft dispatcher be regulatory violated by the FAA? If so, give an example.

A

Yes. For example, providing the wrong fuel load, incorrect information, or no information at all may cause the dispatcher to be regulatory violated by the FAA.

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35
Q

Describe the following terms:

A

Constant Mach - is one speed throughout the entire flight
Long Range Cruise - as the ac becomes lighter, the lower the mach # becomes
Maximum Range Cruise - is close to the stall speed and if only used when minimum fuel
Maximum Endurance - is used for holding
Cost Index - is variable cost per hour, plus fuel cost at specific speeds

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36
Q

An airport has RVR published as its minimums, but the RVR is inoperative. Where can the pilot find the te\he conversion to statute miles?

A

On the government approach chart

The visibility can be no less than ½ statute mile

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37
Q

What is the time factor for redispatch for an aircraft at an intermediate airport?

A

Domestic is 1 hour

Flag is 6 hours

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38
Q

What is pressure altitude? How is it determined from the local altimeter setting? Give an example.

A

Pressure altitude is when the altimeter reading is 29.92” at sea level (QNE)
By subtracting the local altimeter setting (QNH) from QNE you get either a positive or negative decimal number, which you multiply by 1000 and add or subtract to the field elevation (FE)
For example, if the FE = 1,000 feet and QNH = 28.92. You subtract 28.92 from 29.92, which is 1.00, multiply by 1000 and add to the FE… giving you a pressure altitude of 2000 feet

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39
Q

What three restrictions may be placed on an aircraft with a CDL item?

A

Altitude, Airspeed, Weight

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40
Q

What is the vertical extent of the following airways?

A

Victor Airways: from 1,200 to 17,999

Jet Route: from FL 180 to FL 450

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41
Q

What regulation part and appendix of the FARs cover North Atlantic Routes?

A

Part 91

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42
Q

What is the purpose of wing mounted vortex generators?

A

They prevent high speed stalling by slowing the airflow on top of the wing, which delays flow separation.

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43
Q

When attempting to locate an airport by grid coordinates, where can these be found?

A

In the AFD (airport facilities directory) and on government approach charts

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44
Q

Adverse weather conditions are usually associated with what type of pressure system?

A

Adverse weather conditions are usually associated with low pressure systems because air masses are pulled together but do not mix causing a frontal system

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45
Q

Outboard ailerons are used in conjunction with slow flight conditions, why are they not used in high speed flight.

A

They are used only in slow speed flight because if used during high speed flight, they can break

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46
Q

Explain the significance of VMBE and V1 on takeoff.

A

VMBE (break energy) must be at or higher than V1

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47
Q

Explain the difference between an air mass and steady state thunderstorm.

A

An air mass thunderstorm is formed by surface heating. Summer Thunderstorm. It has little lateral movement and last approximately 20-90 minutes

A steady state thunderstorm is associated with cold fronts. Its lateral movement is faster than that of an air mass thunderstorm and can last several hours.

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48
Q

What is density altitude? What factors create a change in density altitude?

A

Density Altitude is pressure altitude corrected for temperature. The only factor that affects density altitude is temperature. If temperature is greater than ISA then density altitude is greater than pressure altitude

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49
Q

What are balanced and unbalanced field conditions?

A

When TODA is equal to ASDA, it is a balanced condition

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50
Q 
Explain the following V speeds.
V1
VR
VMU
VLOF
V2
A

V1 is the takeoff decision speed
VR is the speed at which the transition from ground to flight is made
VMU is the speed that puts the aircraft in the proper attitude
VLOF is take off power with all engines operating
V2 is the take off safety speed with 1 engine inoperative

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51
Q

Must an aircraft dispatcher be in continual contact with the aircraft? If so, may messages be passed through a 3rd party?

A

Yes, the aircraft dispatcher must be in continual contact and they can use a third party such as airink

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52
Q

What is the purpose of minimum sector altitude? What obstruction clearance does it render?

A

The MSA provides 1,000 ft obstruction clearance to be used with 2 way communication failure
Compare with the initial approach altitude and use the higher altitude

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53
Q

Why is the remarks section in the ADF important concerning a planned airport for a particular flight?

A

It contains pertinent information you may need for the flight

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54
Q

What is a selcal system? How does it function?

A

A selcal system is a paging system for the aircraft. Once paged, pilots must “call” the frequency indicated

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55
Q

Explain the term squall line.

A

A squall line is a line of thunderstorms

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56
Q

Usually flights are referred to “flt 456”. If a pilot states to ATC “trip 456”, what is the significance?

A

Stating trip instead of flight means you’re being hijacked

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57
Q

When an aircraft call sign is followed by the word “heavy”, what is the significance?

A

The aircraft is over 300,000lbs which will increase the wake turbulence

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58
Q

Where is rollout RVR located on the runway?

A

It is located opposite of the landing end of the runway

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59
Q

WHere are winds found to flow predominantly from east to west?

A

From the equator to 30 degrees north

From 60 degrees to 60 degrees north

60
Q

Ideal icing conditions are at what temperatures?

A

Clear ice- from 0 to -15 degrees celsius / cumulus clouds

Rhyme ice- from 0 to -10 degrees celsius / stratus clouds

61
Q

If an aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency, is the pilot responsible for the written report?

A

No, the person who declares the emergency is responsible for the written report

62
Q

May the captain designate a crew member to administer medical drugs to a passenger that is ill on board?

A

No

63
Q

An aircraft is equipped with spoilers (ground/flight). What is the function? When are they deployed?

A

Flight spoilers are used to increase the rate of descent without increasing speed
Ground spoilers are used on the ground to destroy lift

64
Q

What is the function of nose wheel steering?

A

Nose wheel steers is used on the ground when there isn’t enough wind going past the rudder to make it effective

65
Q

What are the basic components of the precision approach? Name 2 types.

A

A precision approach gives you horizontal and vertical guidance
Precision approaches require a glide slope, localizer, and approach lighting
ILS and PAR are types of precision approaches

66
Q

Explain RVR

A

RVR measures horizontal visibility the pilot will see upon landing

67
Q

Define ceiling in terms of sky conditions

A

Consists of 1 of 3 types of sky coverage

Broken, Overcast, or Vertical Visibility

68
Q

Who has operational control with a domestic and flag air carrier? Who has it with a supplemental?

A

Dispatcher and Pilot in Command share operational control for domestic and flag operations
Director of flight operations and PIC share operation control for supplemental operations

69
Q

What condition does “step climb” refer? When is it applied?

A

Step climb is when you would increase in altitude in steps.
It is applied when the aircraft is heavy or when ATC requires

70
Q

What combined responsibilities does the aircraft dispatcher share with the pilot in command on a flag and domestic flight?

A

Preflight Briefing

On time, Delay, or termination of flight due to safety

71
Q

What are the sole responsibility of the aircraft dispatcher?

A

Monitor flight

Pass on pertinent information

72
Q

Does a supplemental air carrier require an aircraft dispatcher?

A

no , director of operations

73
Q

What is a “prohibited area”? Why is it established?

A

It is where the aircraft is prohibited for national security

74
Q

Explain aircraft performance stopping distance requirements under 121
:

A 
Destination: 
DRY 60% of effective runway length
WET 115% of requirements for dry runway length
Alternate:
DRY 60% of effective runway length 
WET no additional requirements
75
Q

Explain the following transponder codes

A 
7500 - Hijacking
7600 - 2 way radio failure
7700 - Emergency
7777 - Military
1200 - VFR
76
Q

What are fuel requirements for the following?
Domestic-
Flag-

A

Domestic
Destination
Alternate is required
45 min at normal cruise

Flag
Destination + 10% of trip time
Alternate if required
30 min holding at 1500 AGL

77
Q

What is the purpose of ADIZ?

A

Air Defense Identification Zone is used to identify VFR aircraft movement into and out of US

78
Q

Explain DA and MDA

A

Both are altitudes for approach
DA is the decision altitude for precision approaches
MDA is the minimum altitude for non precision approaches

79
Q

A “low-time pilot” has what restrictions placed on him/her when conducting an approach?

A

100 feet is added to the MDA or DA
½ SM is added to visibility
Alternate mins are 300/1

80
Q

A pilot while on station away from home lost his wallet the previous night, but has a photocopy of medical and license. Is he legal to take the flight?

A

No, he must have original or official replacements

81
Q

Explain the following terms found on certain weather reports in respect to wind speed.

00000
9900

A

00000 - calm

9900 - light and variable

82
Q

If an emergency must be broadcast over the radio what would be repeated 3 times before giving the message? What is the word for alert?

A

Emergency - mayday, mayday, mayday

Alert - Pan, Pan, Pan

83
Q

If an approach chart as the letter after the procedure type (VOR-A) instead of runway number, what does this signify?

A

No straight in landing, must circle

84
Q

Repair times for the following MEL categories

A

A - Per MEL, usually must do items
B- 3 days
C- 10 days
D- 120 days total (30 days which can be extended 4 times as long as work has been done)

85
Q

What does the following indicate on a government approach chart? T & A

A

T- non standard take off mins (121 must abide)
A- non standard alternate mins (121 does not need to abide)
ANA - cannot use as alternate

86
Q

Can a dispatcher extend a 10 hour shift without a rest period of 8 hours?

A

Yes, only is every attempt has been made by supervisor to not extend

87
Q

How many days must a flight recorder and voice recorder be retained if requested by the FAA? How long are the above retained under normal circumstances?

A

60 days is requested
30 min of last recorded voice data
25 hours for flight recorder (last hour for testing)

88
Q

IF a fire extinguisher is outdated on the aircraft, what would the dispatcher research to determine the next course of action?

A

MEL

89
Q

Winds are given in relation to true north, when are they given in relation to magnetic north?

A

Winds are given in relation to magnetic north for ATIS and tower

90
Q

Is vertical visibility considered a ceiling?

A

Yes, because it is 1 of the 3 ceilings (broken, overcast, vertical visibility)

91
Q

What are the characteristics between HF and VHF frequencies in regards to the Ionosphere?

A

HF- the signal bounces off the ionosphere and returns to the earth’s surface
Wx interference
Low altitude
Long range
VHF- the signal cuts through the ionosphere
No wx interference
High altitude required the further from the station

92
Q

Will an engine shutdown situation require more fuel burn?

A

Yes, the operating engine(s) will require more power because drag will increase when the a/c will yaw toward working engine

93
Q

How many times a day at Nat Tracks issued?

A

1x east bound

1x west bound

94
Q

Explain reduced weather condition location in relation to frontal position

A

Areas of low pressure produce fronts because air masses are pulled together but do not mix. In contrast, areas of high pressure do not produce fronts because air masses are being pushed apart

95
Q

If an aircraft lands at an unlisted airport, what items must the dispatcher research for the pilot?

A

All pertinent information

96
Q

If additional passengers appear for a flight and the flight is at maximum weight, can fuel be reduced to accommodate the weight of the passengers?

A

If the aircraft is above minimum fuel, fuel can be reduced to accommodate pax

97
Q

Explain the different measurements for wind shear

A

Vertical - change in wind speed of 6kts or greater per 1,000 ft
Horizontal - more than 18 kts per 150 NM

98
Q

Describe the tropopause.

A

As you approach the tropopause, temperature decreases and winds increase
Above the tropopause, the temperature stays the same and winds decrease

99
Q

Explain a stopway in terms of dimensions and accelerate stop distance

A

The stopway has to be able to support the weight of the aircraft in the event of an aborted takeoff. The width of the stopway must be equal to that of the runway and there is no maximum length.
The stopway increases the accelerate stop distance

100
Q

How is a terminal class VOR identified on low altitude charts? What is it used for?

A

A “T” will be in the navaid information box

This type of VOR is used only for approaches and takeoffs

101
Q

Explain the cause and effect of hydroplaning

A

Hydroplaning is caused by the loss of friction between the tire and the surface and it caused the loss of control of the aircraft

102
Q

Explain the concept and where information is found on Land and Hold Short Operations.

A

Land and hold short operations are an ATC procedure that allows a pilot to land and stop before the intersecting runway, pilots have the ability to decline
Information on land and hold short is located in company’s opspecs if authorized. For runway lengths, refer to AFD

103
Q

What is MNPS and where is it applied? Equipment required?

A

Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications
It is applied between 27 and 90 degrees north between the U.S. and Europe
Equipment- 2 VHF, 2 HF, 2 Long Range Navigation systems

104
Q

Does rain have to be present to have a microburst?

A

NO

105
Q

Does an engine shutdown constitute an emergency?

A

2 engine - yes

3+ - it is up to the pilot

106
Q

Is the critical engine of an aircraft only based on Aerodynamic considerations?

A

No, it is also based on what systems are attached to the engine

107
Q

As far as increased performance, in terms of aerodynamics and fuel efficiency, what importance does altitude signify?

A

KIAS - increases altitude results in an increase in speed and fuel burn
Mach - increase in altitude results in a decrease in speed and fuel burn

108
Q

Who renders the authority for the foreign carriers and U.S. registered aircraft to utilize the north Atlantic tracks?

A

Canada, U.K., USA

109
Q

Do pilots require special training to fly the NATRACKS?

A

Yes

110
Q

What special equipment must an aircraft have to fly ETOPS?

A

APU that is workable inflight
Extra Oxygen for the flight crew
Cargo holes must have a special liner
Extra fire fighting equipment

111
Q

What is TCAS 1, 2, 3?

A

1- provides traffic advisory
2- provides traffic advisory and resolution in vertical plane
3- provides traffic advisory and resolution in vertical and horizontal plane

112
Q

When does a pilot use the IFIM? What items does it contain?

A

International Flight Information Manual is used when flying internationally
Contains which paperwork is required for entering the country

113
Q

What is dew point?

A

Point at which the air becomes saturated

114
Q

Describe RVSM.

A

Reduces vertical separation from 2,000 to 1,000 feet between FL 290-410
Allows more traffic
Altitude hold within +/- 65 feet
2 primary Altimeters must read within 200 ft of each other and be hooked up to a computer
TCAS
Pilots must have special certification

115
Q

What is the minimum age can you get a dispatch certificate?

A

23

116
Q

Explain the anti skid mechanism

A

The slower wheel will decrease brake pressure in order to speed up to match the other wheel

117
Q

Explain DRM and CRM

A

The overall idea is to include more individuals to get a better outcome
DRM - Dispatch Resource Management
CRM - Crew Resource Management

118
Q

What is EPR?

A

Engine pressure ratio

It measures the outtake to the intake (always 1)

119
Q

What document is considered the flight release for supplemental carriers?

A

Flight plan

120
Q

What is the difference between class I and class II navaids?

A 
Class I is within range of VOR/ADF/DME
Class II exceeds class I range GPS/INS/Doppler Radar
121
Q

What is meant by the term operational control?

A

the authority to Initiate, Conduct, or Terminate a flight

122
Q

How is optimum altitude determined?

A

By specific range

123
Q

Describe RNP

A

Required Navigation Performance
Must be within certain distance from center line 95% of the time
10 NM (water) 2 NM (land) 1 NM (terminal) .3 NM (approach) (.1 in theory)

124
Q

What is the obstacle clearance height during dry and wet runway conditions?

A

35’ for dry

15’ for wet

125
Q

Describe screen height and flare distance.

A

Both are runway heights
Screen height requires you to be 35’ or 15’ by the end of the runway
Fare distance is Vlof ro V2

126
Q

Why does weight have to be reduced for contaminated runway conditions?

A

Since it will take longer to stop on a contaminated runway, you will have less runway for takeoff therefore you must have less weight

127
Q

If an air carrier has C-55 in its opspecs, why is it applied instead of non standard alternate minimums?

A

Using C-55 and operating under 121, your minimums are higher than using the non standard alternate minimums

128
Q

Can you use C-55 to alternate airport approach when approach charts depict A/NA?

A

No, you cannot use any alternate that has A/NA on the approach chart

129
Q

What are several types of fog?

A

Advection - coastal
Upslope - mountainous
Radiation - in land

130
Q

What does the term bleed air refer to? What are some of the systems bleed air is used for?

A

Bleed air refers to taking air from engine compressor and using for other functions, such as anti-ice, air conditioning, pressurization, engine start, hydraulic pressure, and toilet flush

131
Q

What is drift down? What restrictions apply to performance?

A

When you lose 1 engine, you are required to come down to a lower altitude

132
Q

How long does a flight folder have to be retained by carrier?

A

3 months (Load manifest, Flight plan, Dispatch Release)

133
Q

Reversers are operated by what system?

A

Pneumatic system

Reverses airflow to stop aircraft on the ground

134
Q

What are the 3 primary flight controls? What axis do they control?

A

Rudder controls the yaw
Elevator controls the pitch
Ailerons control the roll

135
Q

What are the different types of hydroplaning

A

Viscous - standing water
Dynamic - drizzle **
Rubber reverted - friction causing steam

136
Q

What are the characteristics of improper CG loading?

A

Forward- more stable / increased stall speed / decrease cruise speed
Aft - less stable / decreased stall speed / increased cruise speed

137
Q

What maximum speed in class B below 10,000 MSL?

A 
250 kts within class B
200 kts below lateral limits of class B
138
Q

What is an FDC and D notam? When are they applied?

A

FDC- changes in approach procedures and enroute charts (after publications)
D- time critical changes in route closures/ out of service ILS/ airspace restrictions

139
Q

What items are listed on a flight release and dispatch release?

A

Flight release- AAIM + CM Names (supplemental)

Dispatch release- AAIM (airplane registration + flight # / airports / IFR / Min Fuel)

140
Q

What are the different types of training?

A

Initial
Upgrade
Transition
Difference

141
Q

Explain a PIREP.

A

Pilot report (UA - pilot report) (UUA- urgent pilot report

142
Q

Explain hold over time.

A

Time to take off before refreezing

Begins at the start of de-icing

143
Q

How is fog formed?

A

Moisture + light wind (5kts) + nuclei (salt, dust, etc…)

144
Q

What is an air mass?

A

Area of consistent characteristics

145
Q

What is the width of a Victor Airway

A

10nm

146
Q

I am your Capitan and I am high-mins, what does that mean?

A

Landing mins need to be increased by 100feet and 1/2sm

Dispatch (2 decks)

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