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MDL 252 Microbiology 2 > Practical Exam Review > Flashcards

Practical Exam Review Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
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Ascaris ova

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2
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Ascaris ova

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3
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Ascaris ova

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4
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Ascaris

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5
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Aspergillus

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6
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Aspergillus

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7
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Aspergillus

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8
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Aspergillus

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9
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Aspergillus

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10
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Dematiacious

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11
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Aspergillus

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12
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C. neoformans bird seed

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13
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C. neoformans budding yeast

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14
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C. neoformans encapsulated yeast

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15
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C. neoformans sab dex

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16
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C. neoformans

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17
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C. albicans

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18
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C. albicans

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19
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C. albicans

Positive Germ Tube

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20
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A

C. albicans yeast

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21
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Chlamydoconidia

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22
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Clamodochlymdia pseudohyphae

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23
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Coccidiodes immitis

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24
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Coccidiodes immitis

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25
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Coccidiodes immitis

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26
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Coccidiodes immitis

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27
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Coccidiodes immitis

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28
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Coccidiodes immitis

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29
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Conidia

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30
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C. neoformans

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31
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Cryptosporidium oocyst

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32
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Cryptosporidium oocyst

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33
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Cryptosporidium parvum

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34
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E histolytica

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35
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E. histolytica troph

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36
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E histolytica

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37
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E histolytica

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38
Q
A

Enterobius ova

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39
Q
A

epithelial cell

and gram pos or gram variable rod

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40
Q
A

epithelial cells and GPC underdecolorized

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41
Q
A

few epi cells many gram neg rod many budding yeast

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42
Q
A

few WBC few epis, many gram pos diplo

few gram neg rod

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43
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A

Positive Flurochrome Stain

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44
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Germ tube

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45
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Giardia cyst troph

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46
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Giardia cyst

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47
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Giardia troph

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48
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Giardia

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49
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GPC clusters

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50
Q
A

Gram negative coccobacilli

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51
Q
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Gram neg rods

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52
Q
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Gram pos cocci in pairs epithelial cells and WBC

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53
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Gram pos cocci chains

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54
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Gram pos rods

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55
Q
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Hyline mold

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56
Q
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Hyphae

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57
Q
A

LJ agar

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58
Q
A

many WBC many gram deg diplo

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59
Q
A

MGIT

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60
Q
A

Microsporum canis

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61
Q
A

Negative flurochrome stain

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62
Q
A

Negative kinyoun stain

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63
Q
A

Penicillium Lactophenol

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64
Q
A

Penicillium Lactophenol

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65
Q
A

Penicillium Sab dex

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66
Q
A

Penicillium

67
Q
A

Pinworm

68
Q
A

Plasmodium Giemsa Stain

69
Q
A

Positive Calcafluor stain

70
Q
A

Positive Fluorochrome Stain

71
Q
A

Positive Fluorochrome Stain

72
Q
A

Positive FTA-ABS

73
Q
A

Positive Germ Tube

74
Q
A

Positive Kinyoun

75
Q
A

Positive Kinyoun

76
Q
A

Pseudohyphae

77
Q
A

RBC gram neg rods

78
Q
A

Shistosoma ova

79
Q
A

Shistosoma ova

80
Q
A

T. trichuria ova

81
Q
A

Taenia

82
Q
A

T. trichuria ova

83
Q
A

T. trichuria ova

84
Q
A

Trophozoite

85
Q
A

Trypanasoma cruzi

86
Q
A

Trypanasoma cruzi

87
Q
A

Trypanasoma cruzi

88
Q
A

Unacceptable sputum screen

89
Q
A

WBC and gram neg diplo

90
Q
A

WBC and gram pos rods

91
Q
A

WBC gram neg rods

92
Q
A

WBC gram pos cocci some intracellular gram neg rods

93
Q

Name 2 methods of measuring the turbidity of the inoculum

A

Match with McFarland Standard using unaided eye

Use of commercial instrument - densitometer, colorimeter

94
Q

Name 2 criteria for selection of antimicrobials agents to be tested?

A

Site of infection

method

avaliability (formulary)

Known resistance patterns

95
Q

Give the class and spectrum of activity for the following:

Ampicillin

A

Beta lactam, gram pos and gram neg

96
Q

Give the class and spectrum of activity for the following:

Cefazolin

A

beta lactam

gram pos, gram neg

97
Q

Give the class and spectrum of activity for the following:

Clindamycin

A

Lincosamide

gram pos (rarely gram neg)

98
Q

Give the class and spectrum of activity for the following:

Levofloxacin

A

quinolone

gram pos and neg

99
Q

Give the class and spectrum of activity for the following:

Piperacillin

A

beta lactam

gram pos and neg

100
Q

Give the class and spectrum of activity for the following:

Ticarcillin/Clavulanic Acid

A

beta lactam combo

gram pos and neg

101
Q

Give the class and spectrum of activity for the following:

Trimethoprim/sulfa

A

combo

gram pos and neg

102
Q

What are the possible problems and what measures should be taken if the following are observed when performing quality control:

Several E. coli zones are too large

A

check inoculum

medium depth

medium pH

103
Q

What are the possible problems and what measures should be taken if the following are observed when performing quality control:

Small colonies within the zone of Tetracycline with S. aureus

A

mixed culture - reisolate

resistant mutants

104
Q

What are the possible problems and what measures should be taken if the following are observed when performing quality control:

Gentamycin zone too small with P. aeruginosa

A

Ca and/or Mg level too high in medium

105
Q

What is the relationship between MIC and zone size?

A

see regression graph pg 195

MIC breakpoints plotted against zone sizes, regression line is drawn

DD breakpoints are where lines intersect

106
Q

An organism with an increased MIC value will be expected to have an increased or decreased zone size?

A

decreased

107
Q

Name the 3 weekly QC organisms used for the Kirby Bauer method

A

E. coli 25922

P. aerug 27853

S. aureus 25923

108
Q

Describe the action of the (amoxicillian or ticarcillin)/clavulanic combination

A

2 beta lactams

beta lactam/beta lactamase inhibitor

Inhibitor renders B-lactamase incapable, beta lactam drug

109
Q

An oxacillin disk is used to test S. pneumoniae for penicillin

Why?

A

Due to increased resistance observed with penicillin, OX is more sensitive and reliable indicator

110
Q

An oxacillin disk is used to test S. pneumoniae for penicillin. What should be done if the interpretation is resistant or <20mm

A

Perform MIC for confirmation

111
Q

Define empiric antimicrobial therapy

A

Therapy that is started before knowing organism or susceptibility profile

112
Q

If you mistakenly adjusted the organism inoculum suspension to be equal to a number 1 McFarland turbidity standard, would the results be falsely resistant, sensitive, or not altered

A

Resistant

113
Q

Why should you not incubate the disk diffusion plate in a CO2 enriched incubator

A

It will alter the pH and affect the zone sizes

114
Q

Small colonies are observed at the inner edge of the zone of inhibition around the oxacillin disk when S. aureus is tested. The outer zone size corresponds to an interpretation of susceptible, and the small colonies are growing in the resistant range. How do you interpret the results?

A

Resistant

115
Q

While reading a disk diffusion susceptibility test, you notice a faint haze of growth to the edge of the sulfmethoxazole disk and a more pronounced zone that measures in the sensitive range. Is the drug S, I, or R?

A

Sensitive

116
Q

Your Mueller Hinton agar is 3.5mm in depth. How will this affect the results? Will they be falsely sensitive or falsely resistant? Will the zones be too large or too small?

A

Sensitive

Too large

117
Q

In recording the results of a microdilution tray, you notice that a slight haze is present in all the trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole wells. Will you record the result as susceptible or resistant?

A

Susceptible

118
Q

What is being detected in the serum of patients with a reactive RPR?

A

Antilipid antibodies (reagin)

119
Q

Name 2 tests that may be used to confirm a reactive RPR?

A

FTA-ABS, MHA-TP - treponemal tests

120
Q

Why is the room temperature where the testing occurs important?

A

Too cold <73 = decreased reactivity

Too hot >85 = increased reactivity

121
Q

What is the clinical value of performing a quantitative test on a reactive sample?

A

4 fold rise = infection, reinfection or treatment failure

4 fold decrease = adequate therapy

122
Q

Describe the prozone effect and what should be done if it is observed?

A

Specimen will be more reactive when diluted. Any reactive specimen should be titered.

123
Q

Does a non reactive RPR rule out Syphillis? If not, why?

A

May be primary syphilis, secondary with prozone effect or late syphallis

124
Q

Describe the colony of Candida albicans (yeast) on Sab dex agar

A

Moist, creamy, white

125
Q

Describe the colony and reverse of Aspergillus on Czapek dox agar

A

Colony - fluffy, white, blue green, grey green

Reverse - tan

126
Q

Describe the colony and reverse of Trichophyton mentagrophytes on Mycobiotic agar

A

White powdery colony, tan reverse

127
Q

How will a dematiaceous mold appear on sab dex agar?

A

dark grey, dark green to black

128
Q

Give 2 examples of dematiaceous molds

A

Alternaria, phialophora, cladosporium, exophiala, etc.

129
Q

What is the difference between a germ tube and pseudohyphae?

A

Germ tube - no constriction between yeast cell and hyphal structure

Pseudohyphae - has constriction

130
Q

What is the interpretation of a positive germ tube?

A

Diagnostic for Candida albicans

131
Q

Which media is most useful to determine microscopic chacteristics of yeast?

A

Corn meal agar

132
Q

What is the most reliable method for ID of molds?

A

Microscopic identification

133
Q

What is the ID of the organism on the front page of blackboard?

A

Penicllium spp.

134
Q

What is the primary Kinyoun stain and its function?

A

Carbolfuchsin - stains the mycobacteria

135
Q

What is the Kinyoun counterstain and its function?

A

Methylene blue - stains background and other bacteria - not acid fast

136
Q

What is present in the cell wall that contributes to acid-fastness

A

Mycolic acids

137
Q

How will mycobacteria appear on a gram stain?

A

poorly stained, beaded gram pos bacilli, gram neutral or ghosts

138
Q

Which stain is more sensitive Kinyoun or Flurochrome?

A

Fluorochrome

139
Q

Why is quantitation of the AFB important?

A

indicates the extent of the patient’s infectiousness

140
Q

How many oil fields should be observed before calling a smear negative

A

300 oil fields

141
Q

What factors may contribute to a false positive smear?

A

Cross-contamination of slides, using tap water in staining, not wiping oil immersion between slides

142
Q

What must be done to prepare a sputum or fluid specimens for AFB staining?

A

Decontamination, concentration by centrifugation, heat-fixing

143
Q

Which fixative is appropriate for:

Trichrome

A

SAF, PVA

144
Q

Which fixative is appropriate for:

Acid fast stains

A

SAF or formalin

145
Q

Which fixative is appropriate for:

Fluorescent stains

A

Formalin, SAF

146
Q

Which fixative is appropriate for:

Recovery of helminth eggs

A

formalin

147
Q

Counterstain in modified acid fast stain

A

Methlyene blue

148
Q

Giemsa stain is appropriate for which organisms (2 example)

A

Plasmodium and Trypansoma

149
Q

Is thick or thin smear used for ID?

A

Thin

150
Q

On trichrome, nuclei of E. coli should stain

A

red or purple

151
Q

Name 2 microscopic structures associated with C. albicans

A

Clamidochlamidia, germ tube

152
Q

Fungal elements on calcafluor will appear

A

blue/white or yellow green

153
Q

A positive well on API 20 will appear

A

cloudy/turbid

154
Q

Basic principle of the 20C system

A

ID of yeast, carbohydrate utilization

155
Q

Disk diffusion testing for S. aureus will use which media?

A

Mueller hinton

156
Q

Zone sizes must be interpreted using _____?

A

CLSI standards/tables

157
Q

Name 3 common AST quality control organisms?

A

E. coli

S. aureus

P. aeruginosa

158
Q

Give two reasons for zones too large on E. coli

A

medium depth

medium pH

159
Q

Kinyoun primary stain is _____?

A

Carbolfuchsin

160
Q

Fluorochrome counterstain is _____?

A

Potassium permanganate

161
Q

What is the appearance of a positive MGIT tube?

A

Fluoroscence

162
Q

1-9 AFB org/field on kinyoun stain will be reported as?

A

3+

163
Q

Serum that agglutinates with the cardiolipin reagent may be reported as?

A

reactive or weakly reactive

MDL 252 Microbiology 2 (7 decks)

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