Final Review

Question 1

A McFarland standard of 0.5 corresponds to a bacterial count of: a. 1.5x10(6) b. 1.0x10(8) c. 1.5x10(8) d. 1.0x10(4)

Answer 1

c. 1.5x10(8)

Question 2

The mode of action of erythromycin and azithromycin is: a. inhibition of protein synthesis b. inhibition of nucleic acid c. inhibition of cell wall d. alters the cell membrane

Answer 2

a. inhibition of protein synthesis

Question 3

Quality control records for media and reagents should be maintained a minimum of: a. one year b. three years c. two years d. five years

Answer 3

c. two years

Question 4

True or False: It is not necessary to perform quality control on user prepared MacConkey plates because it is exempt.

Answer 4

False

Question 5

The spectrum of activity for aminoglycosides is: a. gram positive aerobic bacteria b. gram negative aerobic bacteria c. gram negative anaerobic bacteria d. aerobic gram positive and gram negative bacteria e. all of the above

Answer 5

d. aerobic gram positive and gram negative bacteria

Question 6

True of False: Proficiency testing in the microbiology lab will evaluate the accuracy of personnel and procedures

Answer 6

True

Question 7

Supplemental testing of Enterococcus spp. for detection of high level resistance to which class of antimicrobials would demonstrate if synergy with ampicillin is possible? a. glycopeptides b. fluroquinolones c. macrolides d. aminoglycosides

Answer 7

d. aminoglycosides

Question 8

All of the following antimicrobials are usually effective against gram negative bacterial except: a. imipenem b. levofloxacin c. vancomycin d. gentamicin

Answer 8

c. vancomycin

Question 9

Specimens for bacterial culture were submitted from a burn patient. The culture grew a non lactose fermenting gram negative rod identified as P. aeruginosa. Disk diffusion testing was performed with the following results. Ampicillin=16mm Cefazolin=16mm Levofloxacin=23mm Ticarcillin/Clavulanic Acid=18mm Use these CLSI interpretations to determine which category is indicated. LVX is _____ AM is _____ CZ is _____ TIM is _____

Answer 9

LVX - Susceptible AM - Resistant CZ - Intermediate TIM - Intermediate

Question 10

Growth of Enterococcus faecalis on a vancomyin agar screen plate would indicate that the organism is a. susceptible to vancomycin b. A beta-lactamase producer c. resistant to vancomycin d. resistant to all beta-lactamase

Answer 10

c. resistant to vancomycin

Question 11

A reference lab has performed a rare manual macrodilution MIC test. Based on the growth in these tubes, what is the MIC value of the antimicrobial? a. 8.0 mcg/ml c. 16.0 mcg/ml d. 8.0 mcg/ml e. 4.0 mcg/ml

Answer 11

d. 8.0 mcg/ml

Question 12

In order to determine the MBC in the previous question you would: a. Subculture tubes 8.0-256 b. Subculture tubes 0.5-4.0 c. Subculture all tubes d. Interpret the MBC as 8.0 mcg/ml e. Interpret the MBC as 16.0 mcg/ml

Answer 12

a. Subculture tubes 8.0-256

Question 13

An isolate of E. coli was found to be ESBL positive, as a result it should be reported as resistant to: a. aminoglycosides b. vancomycin c. levofloxacin d. cephalosporins

Answer 13

d. cephalosporins

Question 14

The use of ATCC reference organisms when performing quality control on established procedures will confirm the following: a. exempt and non exempt b. validity and reliability c. preliminary vs. final results d. proper collection and transport

Answer 14

b. validity and reliability

Question 15

This test uses the patient’s own serum and can be used to monitor antimicrobic therapy as well as the effects of antibodies and complement. a. disk diffusion b. SBC (SBT) c. MIC (MBC) d. beta-lactamase

Answer 15

b. SBC (SBT)

Question 16

Providing detailed instruction to nurses for proper specimen collection will effect this area of quality assessment: a. postanalytical b. analytical c. continuous daily monitoring d. preanalytical e. proanalytical

Answer 16

d. preanalytical

Question 17

True or False: A large disk diffusion zone size will correspond to a low MIC value

Answer 17

True

Question 18

The action of this antimicrobial in the class of Fluoroquinolones is generally bacteriocidal: a. levofloxacin b. vancomycin c. cephazolin d. erythromycin

Answer 18

a. levofloxacin

Question 19

When performing routine AST quality control, after the initial 20 day testing period, all labs are required to test their systems: a. daily b. monthly c. weekly d. only when new lot numbers are received

Answer 19

c. weekly

Question 20

Reference bacterial organisms are available through which of the following sources? a. CLIA b. ATCC c. CLSI d. TQM

Answer 20

b. ATCC

Question 21

Antimicrobial resistance resulting from the normal genetic, structural, or physiologic state of a microorganism is defined as: a. antagonistic b. bacteriocidal c. acquired d. intrinsic

Answer 21

d. intrinsic

Question 22

Skip

Answer 22

Skip

Question 23

Which of the following will define test performance, reagent preparation, quality control and results reporting as well as display signature by the microbiology supervisor? a. patient reports b. Q-Probes c. Benchmarks d. standard operating procedure manual

Answer 23

d. standard operating procedure manual

Question 24

Which bacterial combinations represent the most appropriate quality control organisms when testing a new lot number of catalase test reagent. a. Strep agalactiae and Strep pyogenes b. Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes c. Staph aureus and Staph saprophyticus d. Staph aureus and Staph epi

Answer 24

b. Staph aureus and Strep pyogenes

Question 25

The testing method demonstrated here will confirm an organism’s resistance to: a. pencillins b. carbapenams c. glycopeptides d. aminogylcosides

Answer 25

b. carbapenams

Question 26

The MIC value of Oxacillin (OX) when read from this microdilution plate is: a. >4.0 mcg/ml b. 4.0 mcg/ml c. 2.0 mcg/ml d. .5 mcg/ml

Answer 26

a. >4.0 mcg/ml

Question 27

Which of the following is not an example of intrinsic antibiotic resistance? a. klebsiella va. ampicillin b. staph vs. oxacillin c. E. coli vs. vancomycin d. Pseudomonas vs. trimethorprim and sulfonamides

Answer 27

b. staph vs. oxacillin

Question 28

True or False: A Mueller Hinton Agar with a depth of 3.5mm will result in zone sizes that are falsely resistant.

Answer 28

False

Question 29

In recording the results of a microdilution tray, you notice a slight haze is present in all the trimethoprim-sulfa wells. You would record the result as: a. resistant b. susceptible c. intermediate d. invalid

Answer 29

b. susceptible

Question 30

What is the interpretation for Ampicillin (AM) based on following MIC interpretive standards: >=1.0 mcg/ml: susceptible 2-4 mcg/ml: intermediate >=8 mcg/ml: resistant a. susceptible b. intermediate c. resistant d. unable to interpret

Answer 30

a. susceptible

Question 31

Preanalytical instructions to patient providers in clinics should indicate that which specimen may be refrigerated? a. sputum b. urine c. CSF d. urogenital swab

Answer 31

b. urine

Question 32

When performing disk diffusion QC, only one disk out of twelve is out of range. What is the most likely explanation? a. inoculum is too light b. bad disk c. inoculum is too heavy d. mixed culture

Answer 32

b. bad disk

Question 33

True or False: Panic values should be called immediately to the first available health care worker.

Answer 33

False

Question 34

True or False: Quality assurance is associated with those external activities that ensure positive patient outcomes

Answer 34

True

Question 35

Microbiology turnaround time can be defined as the elapsed time between: a. specimen receipt in the lab and reporting of final results b. specimen collection and reporting of final results c. specimen collection and reporting of preliminary gram stain results d. specimen receipt in the lab and initial culture set up

Answer 35

a. specimen receipt in the lab and reporting of final results

Question 36

3 appropriate organisms to use when performing QC on a new lot of API 20E test systems would be: a. Enterococcus sp., E. coli and Staphylococcus sp b. Klebsiella sp., Haemophilus sp. and Enterococcus sp c. Pseudomonas sp., E. coli, and Neisseria spp d. E. coli, Klebsiella pneumoniae, Proteus mirabilis

Answer 36

d. E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus mirabilis

Question 37

True or False: Daily review by the microbiology supervisor of AST results that have been reported is an analytic function

Answer 37

False

Question 38

True or False: An isolate of Staph aureus is determined to be resistant to Linezolid by MIC method. This antimicrobial (Linezolid) is the most appropriate for treatment.

Answer 38

False

Question 39

Disk diffusion testing was performed on an isolate of P. aeruginosa from a urine culture. Numerous colonies were observed within the zone of this antimicrobial. What is the most probable cause? a. media was too thick b. media was too thin c. inoculum too heavy d. resistant mutants

Answer 39

d. resistant mutants

Question 40

Most antimicrobials are cleared by which organ? a. kidney b. pancreas c. lymphatics d. liver

Answer 40

d. liver

Question 41

True or False: Commercially prepared media are always exempt from quality control testing.

Answer 41

False

Question 42

Penicillin susceptibility in isolates of Streptococcus pneumoniae can be determined using the following disk diffusion: a. penicillin b. methicilin c. oxacillin d. ampicillin

Answer 42

c. oxacillin

Question 43

Which of these criteria is not used by the laboratory in determining if antimicrobial susceptibility testing will be performed: a. drugs of choice b. clinical significance c. status of patient’s immune system d. reliable standardized methods for testing

Answer 43

c. status of the patient’s immune system

Question 44

Quality control for AST disk diffusion was performed and it was noted that numerous zone sizes were too small. The test was repeated with a new lot number of mueller hinton agar and all zone sizes were within an acceptable range. Which is the best explanation for the unacceptable zones? a. media was too thick b. media was too thin c. inoculum too light d. resistant mutants

Answer 44

a. media was too thick

Question 45

Resistance of Staphylococus to methicillin, penicillin and other beta lactams may be detected by testing with this predictor drug: a. methicillin b. cefazolin c. oxacillin d. vancomycin

Answer 45

c. oxacillin

Question 46

Protein synthesis is the principal mode of action of which of these antimicrobial pairs. a. erythromycin and ampicillin b. gentamycin and vancomycin c. gentamycin and erythromycin d. vancomycin and levofloxacin

Answer 46

c. gentamycin and erythromycin

Question 47

Direct beta-lactamase testing may be performed by using a/an: a. cephalosporin (cefinase) disk b. oxacillin c. etest d. disk diffusion

Answer 47

c. etest

Question 48

The zone of inhibition of disk A, is most likely to correspond to which of the following MIC results. a. 64mcg/ml b. 2.0 mcg/ml c. 1.0 mcg/ml d. <0.5 mcg/ml

Answer 48

a. 64 mcg/ml

Question 49

Indicate only the criteria that are a part of the CLSI guidelines for AST. (This is an all or nothing question) a. length of incubation for testing b. medium type c. number of antimicrobials to be reported d. McFarland Standard (inoculum) e. age range of patient with infection f. concentration of antimicrobial begin tested

Answer 49

a. length of incubation for testing b. medium type d. McFarland Standard (inoculum) f. concentration of antimicrobial being tested

Question 50

When the activity of a combination of antimicrobials is substantially greater than the activity of the single most active one. The effect is: a. antagonistic b. synergistic c. bacteriostatic d. indifferent

Answer 50

b. synergistic

Question 51

Extended spectrum beta lactamase (ESBL) testing will be useful as a part of the AST of: a. enterobacteriaceae b. Streptococcus spp. c. Staphylococcus spp. d. Enterococcus spp.

Answer 51

a. Enterobacteriaceae

Question 52

The ‘D’ test will test for the resistance of which antimicrobial among S. aureus isolates. a. vancomycin b. clindamycin c. oxacillin d. linezolid

Answer 52

b. clindamycin

Question 53

Ampicillin treatment will acheive adequate levels in: a. blood b. urine c. CSF d. A and B e. A and C f. A, B, and C

Answer 53

f. A, B, and C

Question 54

The microorganism responsible for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever is: a. chlamydia trachomatis b. coccidiodes immitis c. histoplasma capsulatum d. rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 54

d. rickettsia rickettsii

Question 55

True or False: Molds produce fluffy, cottony, wooly or powdery colonies on media and can be identified by the morphology of conidia and their arrangement on their hyphae.

Answer 55

True

Question 56

This organism is the etiological (causative) agent of the most common STD in the United States: a. chlamydia trachomatis b. cryptococcus neoformans c. treponema pallidum d. candida albicans e. histoplasma capsulatum

Answer 56

a. chlamydia trachomatis

Question 57

This extracellular, infective form that resembles a gram negative bacillus is part of the life cycle of Chlamydia trachomatis. a. host cell b. elementary body c. blastoconidia d. conidia

Answer 57

b. elementary body

Question 58

The budding cells of candida albicans, consisting of a mother and daughter cell, may be described as: a. pseudohyphae b. hyphae c. elementary bodies d. blastoconidia

Answer 58

d. blastoconidia

Question 59

The etiological agent of lyme disease is: a. rickettsia rickettsii b. chlamydia trachomatis c. treponema pallidum d. borrelia burgdorferi e. coccidiodes immitis

Answer 59

d. borrelia burgdorferi

Question 60

This fungal organism is implicated in a clip of a case study on blackboard last week from monsters inside me. It causes valley fever. a. Rhizopus sp. b. Candida albicans c. Aspergillus fumigatus d. Microsporum canis e. Histoplasma capsulatum f. Coccidiodes immitis

Answer 60

f. Coccidiodes immitis

Question 61

A request was submitted for the direct examination of skin tissue for the presence of fungi. Which is the best staining method to utilize? a. gram stain b. calcofluor white c. India ink d. darkfield e. lactophenol blue

Answer 61

b. calcofluor white

Question 62

True or False: Room temperatures greater than 85 degrees F will increase the reactivity of RPR results

Answer 62

True

Question 63

This organism can be described as: a. zygomycete b. dimorphic c. dermatophyte d. yeast

Answer 63

a. zygomycete

Question 64

Yeast produce asexually by the production of these structures. a. arthroconidia b. blastoconidia c. pseudohyphae d. chlamydoconidia

Answer 64

b. blastoconidia

Question 65

Bird (Niger) seed agar is useful in the identification of which of the following? a. C. neoformans b. C. albicans c. C. immitis d. S. schenckii

Answer 65

a. C. neoformans

Question 66

Treponemes may be detected in material from skin lesions using this staining method. a. gram stain b. calcofluor white c. india ink d. darkfield

Answer 66

d. darkfield

Question 67

The media that would not be used for the primary recovery of fungi is: a. SABHI agar b. dermatophyte test medium c. cornmeal agar d. brain-heart infusion agar

Answer 67

c. cornmeal agar

Question 68

True or False: Candida sp., other than albicans, will not have germ tubes but may have pseudohyphae, with constrictions between the parent cell and the pseudohyphal projections

Answer 68

True

Question 69

Chronic localized fungal infections that result from traumatic implantation are described as: a. subcutaneous b. systemic c. opportunistic d. cutaneous

Answer 69

a. subcutaneous

Question 70

These colonies were observed on SABHI media at 25 and 35 degrees C. The ID is most likely: a. Histoplasma capsulatum b. Candida albicans c. Aspergillus fumigatus d. Microsporum canis

Answer 70

b. Candida albicans

Question 71

This organism is implicated in allergic reactions. Rarely causes human infections. a. H. capsulatum b. Penicillium sp. c. Rhizopus sp. d. M. canis

Answer 71

b. Penicillium sp.

Question 72

True or False: An organism that appears as yeast at 25C and as a mould at 25C can be described as dimorphic.

Answer 72

False

Question 73

All of the following are necessary for mold identification except: a. Microscopic morphology b. API 20C Aux c. Macroscopic/colony morphology d. growth rate

Answer 73

b. API 20C Aux

Question 74

The formation of these germ tubes indicates the organism is: a. C. neoformans b. C. tropicalis c. C. immitis d. C. albicans

Answer 74

d. C. albicans

Question 75

A good selective, primary media to recover Microsporum canis from a scalp sample would be: a. bird seed agar b. Sab dex - SABHI c. Dermatophyte test media d. Cornmeal

Answer 75

c. Dermatophyte test media

Question 76

A colony from a positive blood culture had the following gram stain. A germ tube was performed and was positive after 5 hours. The germ tube results should be reported as: a. unable to interpret, repeat b. negative - not likely C. albicans c. positive - likely C. albicans

Answer 76

a. unable to interpret, repeat

Question 77

Infections with Candida albicans are generally considered: a. systemic b. subcutaneous c. superficial d. opportunistic

Answer 77

d. opportunistic

Question 78

Which of these is not a feasible diagnostic test to diagnose Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever. a. Serology b. PCR c. Immunohistology d. Culture

Answer 78

d. Culture

Question 79

Which of the following is a dimorphic fungi? a. H. capsulatum b. C. albicans c. C. neoormans d. A. fumigatus e. M. canis

Answer 79

a. H. capsulatum

Question 80

All of the following are associated with Chlamydia trachomatis infection except: a. meningitis b. pelvic inflammatory disease c. ocular trachoma d. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

Answer 80

a. Meningitis

Question 81

True or False: A patient was diagnosed with syphillis based on a positive FTA-ABS test. After successful treatment the FTA-ABS results will return to negative.

Answer 81

False

Question 82

The method of choice to diagnose Cryptococcal meningitis in US hospitals is: a. calcafluor stain b. india ink stain c. germ tube production d. capsular antigen detection

Answer 82

d. capsular antigen detection

Question 83

Laboratory workers should always work under a biological safety hood when working with cultures of: a. C. albicans b. C. immitis c. C. neoformans d. Candida species (other than albicans)

Answer 83

b. C. immitis

Question 84

Based on colony morphology, this organism can be described as: a. Hyaline b. Yeast-like c. Dematiaceous d. Bacterial

Answer 84

c. Dematiaceous

Question 85

A reactive RPR confirms the presence of this in the serum: a. Treponemal antibody b. Syphillis antigen c. Hemagglutinins d. Reaginic antibody

Answer 85

d. Reaginic antibody

Question 86

The appropriate specimen to collect for recovery of this organism is: a. Feces b. Skin scrapings c. Blood d. Urine

Answer 86

b. Skin scrapings

Question 87

The required culture media for Mycoplasma pneumonie is: a. brain heart infusion b. sheep blood agar c. biphasic SP-4 d. SABHI

Answer 87

c. biphasic SP-4

Question 88

The rounded structures attached to the ends of the pseudohyphae were seen on cornmeal agar of a culture of candida albicans. They are: a. chlamydoconidia b. hyphae c. germ tubes d. conidiophores

Answer 88

a. chlamydoconidia

Question 89

This organism is implicated in severe infections of nasal mucosa, face, sinus and brain. a. Aspergillus b. Penicillium sp. c. Coccidiodes sp. d. Rhizopus sp.

Answer 89

d. Rhizopus sp.

Question 90

Chlamydia trachomatis is suspected in a male being seen in the ER. A urine specimen is collected. Which is the most appropriate test to order? a. Chlamydia culture b. Serology (IgM) c. Nucleic Acid Amplification (PCR/AMPA) d. Fluorescent antibody (DFA)

Answer 90

c. Nucleic Acid Amplification (PCR/AMPA)

Question 91

All of these organism are associated with infection by inhalation, except: a. Coccidiodes immitis b. Aspergillus fumigatus c. Candida albicans d. Histoplasma capsulatum

Answer 91

c. Candida albicans

Question 92

These microscopic structures are best demonstrated using this media: a. inhibitory mold agar b. bird seed agar c. cornmeal agar d. dermatophyte test media

Answer 92

c. cornmeal agar

Question 93

This colony has been isolated from a skin culture. Microscopic features can best be seen by performing. a. germ tube test b. india ink preparation c. darkfield exam d. lactophenol cotton blue wet mount

Answer 93

d. lactophenol cotton blue wet mount

Question 94

True or False: Mycoplasmas differ from other bacteria because they have no cell wall.

Answer 94

True

Question 95

What is the organism or appropriate reservoir or vector responsible for transmission to humans. Microsporum canis

Answer 95

dogs and cats

Question 96

What is the organism or appropriate reservoir or vector responsible for transmission to humans. Cryptococcus neoformans

Answer 96

pigeons and other birds

Question 97

What is the organism or appropriate reservoir or vector responsible for transmission to humans. Borrelia burgdorferi

Answer 97

ticks

Question 98

What is the organism or appropriate reservoir or vector responsible for transmission to humans. Treponema pallidum

Answer 98

Humans

Question 99

What is the organism or appropriate reservoir or vector responsible for transmission to humans. Coccidiodes immitis

Answer 99

vegetation (living or dead) soil

Question 100

What is the organism or appropriate reservoir or vector responsible for transmission to humans. Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 100

Ticks

Question 101

What is the organism or appropriate reservoir or vector responsible for transmission to humans. Histoplasma capsulatum

Answer 101

bats and/or birds

Question 102

A sputum specimen was collected from a patient undergoing treatment for leukemia, necrotizing infiltrates are observed on chest x-rays. Bacterial and fungal cultures are ordered. Dark green fuzzy colonies were observed on sab-dex (SABHI) agar and Czapek-Dox agar within 7 days. The lactophenol stain shown below reveals hyaline septate hyphae with distinct conidial heads and flask shaped vesicles arranged on upper 2/3 of vesicle. Numerous microconidia are seen. This causative organism is most likely _____. a. Rhizopus sp. b. candida albicans c. aspergillus fumigatus d. microsporum canis e. histoplasma capsulatum f. coccidiodes immitis

Answer 102

c. aspergillus fumigatus

Question 103

A patient is admitted to the hospital with fever and a very stiff neck. He is in treatment for complications of AIDS. A CSF culture is taken and growth of smooth, mucoid, white colonies are observed in 2 days. Gram stain - budding yeast cells, no pseudohyphae germ tube - negative urease - positive bird seed agar - brown colonies What is the most likely etiological agent? What CSF test should be ordered?

Answer 103

Cryptococcus neoformans Cryptococcal antigen

Question 104

A 29 year old male is being seen by his family physician with complaints of fever, malaise and loss of appetite. He also informs him of a painless ulcer on his genitalia that has since healed. The following lab results are obtained: Fungus culture - negative serology for lyme disease - negative DNA probe (nucleic acid) for Chlamydia antigen - pending RPR - positive 1:8 titer FTA-ABS - positive The patient’s symptoms are most likely the result of infection with:

Answer 104

Treponema pallidum

Question 105

A mother of 2, in her 2nd trimester of pregnancy is being seen by her doctor for a respiratory ailment that has led to symptoms of dissemenated infection. X-rays of her lungs revealed obvious tissue damage. A detailed history revealed she had spent 2 weeks with her sister in Arizona. Cultures, serology, and nucleic acid tests were ordered: Routine Bacterial Culture - normal respiratory flora mycology cultures - fluffy white mold in 4 days DNA probe result - pending Performance of a lactophenol blue stain of the mold (in the BSC) revealed the following structures: barrel shapped alternate arthroconidia separated by disjunctor cells. What is the presumptive ID?

Answer 105

Coccidiodes immitis

Question 106

This organism produces a chronic granulomatous infection that begins in the lung and eventually invades the reticuloendothelial system. It must be handled with extreme caution. The microscopic preparation indicates the organism is:

Answer 106

Histoplasma capsulatum

Question 107

Identify the elements that are part of the life cycle of Chlamydia trachomatis. Indicate only the elements that are included. a. elementary body b. lysis c. flagella d. persistent body e. multiplication f. insertion disks g. spores

Answer 107

a. elementary body b. lysis d. persistent body e. multiplication

Question 108

The Weil Felix test is a presumptive test for diagnosis of: a. Histoplasmosis b. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever c. Syphillis d. Cryptococcal meningitis e. Zygomycosis

Answer 108

b. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

Question 109

Three examples of antifungal agents are: a. ampicillin, tetracycline and fluconazole b. Itraconazole, trimetroprim-sulfa, and penicillin c. ketaconazole, fluconazole and ciprofloxacin d. fluconazole, amphotericin b and ketoconazole

Answer 109

d. fluconazole, amphotericin B and ketoconazole

Question 110

An outbreak of diarrhea was linked to visitors of a community swimming pool. Red oocysts were seen on modified acid fast stains from several of the stool specimens collected. The likely etiological agent is: a. Plasmodium malariae b. entamoeba histolytica c. cryptosporidium parvum d. Taenia solium

Answer 110

c. cryptosporidium parvum

Question 111

Identify this organism found on a trichrome smear of a PVA preserved stool specimen from a patient with chronic diarrhea. a. E. vermicularis ova b. Cryptosporidum oocyst c. E. histolytica trophozoite d. E. histolytica cyst

Answer 111

d. E. histolytica cyst

Question 112

The vector responsible for the spread of this organism is the: a. tick b. reduvid (triatomid) bug c. Mosquito d. Black fly

Answer 112

b. reduvid bug

Question 113

True or False: Herpes Simplex 1 is primarily associated with genital lesions

Answer 113

False

Question 114

This organism is a major cause of amoebic dysentary worldwide: a. E. coli b. E. histolytica c. G. lamblia d. Cryptosporidium parvum

Answer 114

b. E. histolytica

Question 115

The proper specimen to collect when Plasmodium infection is suspected is: a. peripheral blood b. feces c. urine d. sputum

Answer 115

a. peripheral blood

Question 116

The vector responsible for the spread of malaria is the: a. Tsetse fly b. Reduvid bug c. Mosquito d. Black fly

Answer 116

c. Mosquito

Question 117

Avian strains of this virus in domestic and wild birds have led to worldwide pandemics: a. rotavirus b. cytomegalovirus c. mycobacterium avium complex d. influenza virus e. herpes simplex virus

Answer 117

d. influenza virus

Question 118

Select the distinguishing feature of the trophozoite stage of entamoeba histolytica a. large karysome b. presence of red blood cells c. greater than 4 nuclei d. flagella

Answer 118

b. presence of red blood cells

Question 119

Enterobius vermicularis is most likely to be recovered from this type specimen: a. peripheral blood b. perineal scotch tape prep c. urine d. feces e. skin lesion

Answer 119

b. perineal scotch tape prep

Question 120

True or False: Nocardia asteroides infection can be acquired by inhalation

Answer 120

True

Question 121

This organism is the causative agent of shingles. a. cytomegalovirus b. varicella zoster virus c. herpes simplex virus d. respiratory synctial virus

Answer 121

b. varicella zoster virus

Question 122

This method of identification is rapid and provides the most accurate speciation of mycobacterium. a. growth on Lowenstein Jensen agar b. growth on middlebrook agar c. kinyoun stain d. DNA (molecular) ID e. runyon grouping f. MGIT

Answer 122

d. DNA (molecular) ID

Question 123

Which of these is not a step in viral replication? a. maturation b. release c. penetration d. reactivation e. assembly

Answer 123

d. reactivation

Question 124

True or False: Varicella zoster infection may be diagnosed by collection of respiratory or cutaneous samples.

Answer 124

True

Question 125

True or False: Vaccination is effective in the prevention Varicella Zoster viral infections

Answer 125

True

Question 126

Which organism is not a protozoa? a. cryptosporidium parvum b. trichuris trichuria c. giardia lamblia d. entamoeba histolytica

Answer 126

b. trichuris trichuria

Question 127

Characteristic symptoms of infection with this organism involve perianal, perineal andvaginal itching and irritation. a. taenia species b. cryptosporidium parvum c. giardia lamblia d. enterobius vermicularis e. trypanosoma cruzi

Answer 127

d. enterobius vermicularis

Question 128

The staining procedure used in the preparation is: a. kinyoun b. modified acid fast c. giemsa d. trichrome

Answer 128

d. trichrome

Question 129

Which stage of this protozoa is represented in this image? a. cyst b. ova c. trophozoite d. oocyst e. larval

Answer 129

c. trophozoite

Question 130

Infection with this organism occurs by ingesting embryonated eggs in soil. a. enterobius vermicularis b. trypanasoma cruzi c. giardia lamblia d. trichuris trichuria e. ascaris lumbricoides

Answer 130

d. trichuris trichuria

Question 131

A patient collected a stool specimen for ova and parasites at home in a sterile cup. It is delivered to the lab the next day. Is it appropriate for testing? a. Yes, if it is refrigerated b. Yes, if it is kept at room temperature c. No, it is not appropriate

Answer 131

c. No, it is not appropriate

Question 132

Viral transport media is most appropriate for the transport of numerous specimens for viral culture, except: a. respiratory secretions b. tissues c. stool d. peripheral blood

Answer 132

d. peripheral blood

Question 133

This virus is a protypical latent DNA virus with a lifelong integration of viral DNA into human host cells. Infection produces oral and ocular lesions. a. respiratory synctial virus b. cytomegalovirus c. herpes simplex virus d. influenza virus e. rabies virus

Answer 133

c. herpes simplex virus

Question 134

Which of these parasites is a cestode? a. taenia solium b. enterobius vermicularis c. trichuris trichuria d. cryptosporidium parvum

Answer 134

a. taenia solium

Question 135

True or False: Viral specimens in transport media may be held in the regrigerator for up to 5 days.

Answer 135

True

Question 136

Infection with this organism is associated with newborns infected in utero as well as immunocomprised patients. a. respiratory syncytial virus b. cytomegalovirus c. mycobacterium avium complex d. influenza virus e. herpes simplex virus

Answer 136

b. cytomegalovirus

Question 137

A common etiologic agent of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in infants and children is: a. mycobacterium avium complex b. respiratory syncytial virus c. varicella zoster virus d. cytomegalovirus e. plasmodium malariae

Answer 137

b. respiratory syncytial virus

Question 138

This image of a gram stain (A) and modified acid fast stain (B) of a sputum specimen indicate infection with: a. influenza A b. E. coli c. Cryptosporidium parvum d. Nocardia asteroides e. mycobacterium avium complex

Answer 138

d. Nocardia asteroides

Question 139

The most appropriate specimen to collect when CMV is suspected is: a. nasopharyngeal secretions b. stool c. CSF d. urine e. blood

Answer 139

e. blood

Question 140

Identification of trypanasoma cruzi is possible with this specimen: a. feces b. peripheral blood c. urine d. CSF

Answer 140

b. peripheral blood

Question 141

Which staining procedure is commonly used to identify the pictured organism: a. kinyoun b. modified acid fast c. giemsa d. trichrome

Answer 141

b. modified acid fast

Question 142

Indicate whether the viruses are RNA or DNA viruses: Cytomegalovirus

Answer 142

DNA

Question 143

Indicate whether the viruses are RNA or DNA viruses: Influenza virus

Answer 143

RNA

Question 144

Indicate whether the viruses are RNA or DNA viruses: Herpes Simplex Virus

Answer 144

DNA

Question 145

Indicate whether the viruses are RNA or DNA viruses: Respiratory Syncytial Virus

Answer 145

RNA

Question 146

Infection with this organism is usually associated with ingestion of infected water, food or soil. a. giardia lamblia b. cryptosporidium parvum c. ascaris lumbricoides d. hookworm e. diphylobothrium latum

Answer 146

c. ascaris lumbricoides

Question 147

The organism used to manufacture the BCG vaccine is: a. mycobacterium bovis b. mycobacterium avium complex c. mycobacterium tuberculosis d. mycobacterium africanum e. mycobacterium gordonae

Answer 147

a. mycobacterium bovis

Question 148

Viral transport media containing penicillin, gentamycin and amphotericin is used to collect and transport specimens for viral culture because this medium: a. enables rapid viral growth during the transport time b. inhibits bacterial and fungal growth c. destroys non pathogenic viruses d. inhibits complement fixing antibodies

Answer 148

b. inhibits bacterial and fungal growth

Question 149

True or False: Lowenstein-Jensen is an egg based medium for the transport of viral cultures.

Answer 149

False

Question 150

Which microscope/staining method is best when Cestodes are suspected? a. trichrome b. modified acid fast stain c. iodine wet mount d. giemsa stain

Answer 150

c. iodine wet mount

Question 151

A 5 year old girl recently emigrated from Asia with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain is seen by a pediatrician. She has lost 3 lbs. Further exam reveals anemia and a prolasped rectum. A stool culture and ova and parasite screen are ordered. The iodine wet mount of a concentrated stool specimen shows a light brown staining oval organism (ova) with two terminal polar plugs. What is the causative organism? a. giardia lamblia b. entamoeba histolytica c. trichuris trichuria d. plasmodium malariae

Answer 151

c. trichuris trichuria

Question 152

A 12 year old child from a rural community is presented to the ER with gastrointestinal distress. A mild eosinophilia is noted on the CBC as well as a slight increase in liver enzymes. A stool culture and screen for ova and parasites was ordered. The stool culture is negative for any pathogens. The trichrome stain shows numerous spherical organisms (cysts) 12-15 microns. They contain 1-4 nuclei with a central karysome and evenly distributed peripheral chromatin. Elongated chromatoidal bodies with blunt ends are noted. Which organism is responsible for this illness? a. giardia lamblia b. entamoeba histolytica c. trichuirs trichuria d. mycobacterium avium complex

Answer 152

b. entamoeba histolytica

Question 153

A 60 year old man presents to the ER with fever and persistant cough. An exam and history reveals that he is homeless and has had a productive cough with bloody sputum for 3 weeks. The patient is put in isolation and lab tests are ordered. Results are: PPD - positive viral cultures - pending routine bacterial culture - normal respiratory flora mycobacterial kinyoun stain -red bacilli mycobacterial culture - pending Which organism is most likely causing this illness. a. mycobacteium avium complex b. mycobacterium tuberculosis c. cryptosporidium parvum d. enterobius vermicularis

Answer 153

b. mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question 154

A 6 year old is seen by her physician with complaints of stomach cramps and diarrhea. A history indicates that she lives in a rural area and has recently been on a trip with her family to water country. An ova and parasite exam revealed the following: trichrome smear - negative concentrated stool - negative modified acid fast stain - red spherical bodies (oocysts) What is causing her illness? a. cryptosporidum parvum b. enterobius vermicularis c. taenia species ova d. rotavirus

Answer 154

a. cryptosporidum parvum

Question 155

A 46 year old man is seen by a physician after a 2 week illness. He complains of stomach cramps, weight loss and loss of appetite. A history of his diet and habits reveals he is a lover of sushi and frequents sushi bars in the city. A stool culture is negative. O&P exam reveals a recovery of numerous proglottids and the following ova. His infections is caused by: a. giardia lamblia b. entamoeba histolytica c. d. latum d. plasmodium malariae

Answer 155

c. d. latum

Question 156

Mycobacterium which are scotochromogens: a. form pigment only in the presence of light b. form pigment with or without light c. grow rapidly in the presence of light d. form no pigment with or without light

Answer 156

b. form pigment with or without light

Question 157

All of the following are characteristic of rapidly growing NTM, except a. cause skin and soft tissue infections b. may grow at 25 degrees C c. growth appears on solid media after 7 days d. may be acquired from environmental sources

Answer 157

c. growth appears on solid media after 7 days

Question 158

Infection with this nonphotochromogen is associated with natural water sources and primarily infects AIDS patients and those with other immunocompromising conditions. a. mycobacterium avium complex b. mycobacterium tuberculosis c. enterobius vermicularis d. herpes simplex virus e. influenza virus

Answer 158

a. mycobacterium avium complex

Question 159

This direct AFB smear of a sputum indicates a possible infection with which organism? a. M. avium complex b. Plasmodium malariae c. cryptosporidium parvum d. cytomegalovirus

Answer 159

a. M. avium complex

Question 160

A systemic viral infection in a transplant patient is most likely: a. respiratory syncytial virus b. cytomegalovirus c. M. avium complex d. influenza virus

Answer 160

b. cytomegalovirus

Question 161

The specimen processing step for sputum which releases mycobacteria from mucin and cells is: a. decontamination b. staining c. liquefication d. concentration

Answer 161

c. liquefication

Question 162

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is spread by: a. sexual transmission b. mosquitoes c. coughs and sneezes d. blood transfusion

Answer 162

c. coughs and sneezes

Question 163

True or False: A photochromogen will not show pigment with or without light.

Answer 163

False

Question 164

True or False: Specimens suspected of containing M. tuberculosis should be handled in biosafety level 2 or 3 cabinet.

Answer 164

True

Question 165

Identify this “fluke” found in Africa and America. It is associated with water sources and may cause swimmer’s itch. Diagnosis is made from eggs in the feces. a. taenia saginata b. hookworm c. schistosoma mansoni d. ascaris lumbricoides

Answer 165

c. schistosoma

Question 166

Identify this agent of cystercercosis: a. giardia lamblia b. entamoeba histolytica c. trichuris trichuria d. taenia species

Answer 166

d. taenia species

Question 167

Infection with this organism is transmitted by the deer fly and may migrate from the skin to the conjunctiva and the bridge of the nose. a. trypanasoma cruzi b. Loa Loa c. Wuchereria bancrofti d. schistosoma

Answer 167

b. Loa Loa

Question 168

Infection with this organism is usually associated with contact with infected water and sewage. a. roundworm b. pinworm c. whipworm d. hookworm

Answer 168

d. hookworm

Question 169

A patient presents to the ER with acute bronchitis. The best specimen to collect is: a. sputum b. nasopharyngeal swab c. throat swab d. blood

Answer 169

a. sputum

Question 170

A urine specimen in a sterile cup is received in the lab for culture, if processing is delayed the best storage place is: a. refrigerator b. 35 degree C incubator c. room temperature in the micro lab d. freezer

Answer 170

a. refrigerator

Question 171

Potential bioterrorism organisms and toxins are considered to be: a. sentinel organisms b. non-pathogenic c. select agents d. nosocomial

Answer 171

c. select agents

Question 172

True or False: Use of monoclonal antibodies increases the specificity of immunoassays.

Answer 172

True

Question 173

Large amounts of epithelial cells, many of which are covered by tiny gram variable rods and coccobacilli, and the absence of inflammatory cells in vaginal discharge is a sign of: a. pelvic inflammatory disease b. bartholinitis c. cervicitis d. bacterial vaginosis

Answer 173

d. bacterial vaginosis

Question 174

The total number of bottles usually collected in each febrile episode is: a. 12 b. 4 c. 8 d. 2

Answer 174

b. 4

Question 175

A urinalysis performed at Patient First revealed the presence of leukocyte esterase and nitrite, the urine culture is most likely to grow: a. no organisms b. candida albicans c. pseudomonas aeruginosa d. E. coli

Answer 175

d. E. coli

Question 176

In the PCR procedure, this step releases the nucleic acid from the target organism or the clinical specimen that contains the target organism. a. thermal cycling b. hybridization c. extraction d. sequencing

Answer 176

c. extraction

Question 177

The principle methodology of the Bact/alert blood culture system involves: a. detection of the organism’s growth rate b. measuring the CO2 content by fluorescence c. detection of changes in temperature d. measuring the CO2 content by colorimeter

Answer 177

d. measuring the CO2 content by colorimeter

Question 178

The gram stain of a good quality sputum specimen for bacterial culture should contain: a. 10 epi cells/lpf c. >10 WBC/lpf d. <10 epi cells/hpf

Answer 178

a. <10 epi cells/lpf

Question 179

If a .001 ml calibrated loop is used to culture a urine, each colony on the blood plate will equal: a. 1 organism/ml (cfu/ml) b. 10 organisms/ml (cfu/ml) c. 100 organisms/ml (cfu/ml) d. 1000 organisms/ml (cfu/ml)

Answer 179

d. 1000 organisms/ml (cfu/ml)

Question 180

In the MALDI-TOF technique identification profiles are a result of detecting ____ in a flight tube and creating a protein spectrum. a. ions b. lasers c. colonies d. DNA

Answer 180

a. ions

Question 181

Infection of the bladder is known as: a. urethritis b. cystitis c. acute urethral syndrome d. pyelonephritis

Answer 181

b. cystitis

Question 182

Rapid latex testing for C. neoformans in CSF will detect: a. intracellular yeast cells b. cryptococcal DNA c. polysaccharide capsular antigens d. fungal enzymes

Answer 182

c. polysaccharide capsular antigens

Question 183

The main role of a sentinel (level A) lab is: a. rule out and refer suspicious organisms b. rule out or confirm the identity of critical organisms c. analyze suspicious environmental samples d. archive and perform sophisticated molecular tests

Answer 183

a. rule out and refer suspicious organisms

Question 184

Monoclonal and/or poly clonal antibodies are used in all of the following methodologies except: a. latex agglutination b. direct immunofluorescent assay c. polymerase chain reaction d. enzyme immunoassay

Answer 184

c. polymerase chain reaction

Question 185

Which methodology uses RBC, hemolysis, may take up to 48 hours to complete and is usually done in reference labs? a. western blot b. ELISA c. latex agglutination d. complement fixation

Answer 185

d. complement fixation

Question 186

True or False: Signs of bacteremia may include fever, chills, hyperventilation, skin lesions, DIC and shock.

Answer 186

False

Question 187

Proper storage of CSF for routine bacterial culture includes: a. refrigeration for up to 23 hours b. freezing at -70C c. incubation (35C) d. freezing at temperatures above 70C e. all of the above are correct

Answer 187

c. incubation (35C)

Question 188

A blood culture has flagged positive in the Bactec instrument. After removal of the bottle the next step should be: a. notify the physician that the patient has a positive blood culture b. plate the bottle to solid media and incubate for 24 hours c. observe the bottle for hemolysis d. perform and read the gram stain

Answer 188

d. perform and read the gram stain

Question 189

A patient with an undrained hepatic abscess has grown E. coli from a set of blood cultures, this is likely to be: a. transient bacteremia b. intermittent bacteremia c. continuous bacteremia d. contamination

Answer 189

b. intermittent bacteremia

Question 190

The methodology shown here for the detection of RSV or group A streptococcus is a. latex agglutination b. membrane based ELISA c. western blot d. immunofluorescent assay

Answer 190

b. membrane based ELISA

Question 191

The transport medium that best preserves the viability of the most intestinal bacterial pathogens is: a. buffered glycerol b. a rectal culture swab c. Cary-Blair d. campy-thioglycollate broth

Answer 191

c. Cary-Blair

Question 192

Detecting specific antibodies by electrophoretic separation (see image) to confirm the diagnosis of HIV can be done by: a. Western blot b. ELISA c. latex agglutination d. complement fixation e. immunofluorescent assay

Answer 192

a. Western blot

Question 193

Thoracentesis is a procedure which will result in the collection of: a. induced sputum b. bladder urine c. bronchial washing d. transtracheal sputum e. pleural fluid f. peripheral blood

Answer 193

e. pleural fluid

Question 194

The best anticoagulant for blood cultures is: a. sodium citrate b. sodium polyanethol sulfonate c. heparin d. EDTA

Answer 194

b. sodium polyanethol sulfonate

Question 195

This is the most effective infection control procedure: a. standard precautions b. using PPE c. hand washing d. bagging used linen

Answer 195

c. hand washing

Question 196

A .001 ml calibrated loop was used to plate this urine to a blood agar plate. What is the best estimate of the colony count? a. 100,000 org/ml

Answer 196

d. >100,000 org/ml

Question 197

The toxin produced by V. cholera that results in an outpouring of electrolytes and fluid into the intestinal lumen is a/an a. cytotoxin b. neurotoxin c. invasive toxin d. enterotoxin

Answer 197

d. enterotoxin

Question 198

Which of these infections is least likely to be nosocomial? a. post surgical wound with E. coli b. blood culture with MRSA c. streptococcal meningitis d. candida albicans in the urinary tract

Answer 198

c. streptococcal meningitis

Question 199

True or False: Enterohemorrhagic E. coli infections can be diagnosed by the detection of the Shiga-toxin

Answer 199

True

Question 200

XLD agar serves which purpose when used in the bacterial fecal culture? a. evaluation of general flora and predominant species b. selection of enteric pathogens such as salmonella, aeromonas, and others c. inhibition of normal flora and selection for enteric pathogens d. enrichment for enteric pathogens such as salmonella and others

Answer 200

c. inhibition of normal flora and selection for enteric pathogens

Question 201

Which method involves a staining technique with an endpoint that will be observed as a bright apple green when utilizing specialized microscopy? a. latex agglutination b. immunofluorescent assay c. polymerase chain reaction d. enzyme immunoassay

Answer 201

b. immunofluorrescent assay

Question 202

In the PCR assay, the nucleic acid strand from the known organism is the: a. amplicon b. probe c. hybrid d. extractor

Answer 202

b. probe

Question 203

True or False: Lower respiratory specimens are not appropriate specimens for anaerobic culture.

Answer 203

False

Question 204

True or False: An infection control measure for a patient on contact precautions would include a monitored negative pressure room.

Answer 204

False

Question 205

The most common nosocomial or hospital acquired infections are: a. urinary tract b. pneumonia c. surgical site d. bloodstream

Answer 205

a. urinary tract

Question 206

Which media combination is most appropriate when performing routine plating of lower respiratory cultures. a. blood, chocolate, and BYCE agars b. blood, MacConkey and Thayer Martin agars c. Blood, chocolate and MacConkey agars d. blood, chocolate and anaerobic agars

Answer 206

c. blood, chocolate and MacConkey agars

Question 207

Which preventative measures are appropriate for a patient with an infection that is transmitted by larger airborne droplets that cannot travel more than 3 feet? a. segregation from other patients b. signage for the door c. requiring masks d. negative air pressure rooms e. a and c only f. a, b, and c g. a, b, c, and d h. a and b only

Answer 207

F. a, b, and c

Question 208

Proper disinfection of the site when a blood culture is being collected includes: a. 70% alcohol only b. iodine only c. 70% alcohol then iodine d. iodine then 70% alcohol

Answer 208

c. 70% alcohol then iodine

Question 209

The minimum equipment required by a sentinel lab in the LRN network is: a. class 2 BSC b. class 3 BSC c. class 4 BSC d. splash shield

Answer 209

d. splash shield

Question 210

The gram stain of an organism suspicious for B. anthracis is: a. large bipolar gram negative rods b. small gram negative coccobacilli c. large gram positive rods d. small gram positive rods e. large gram positive cocci

Answer 210

c. large gram positive rods

Question 211

Endocarditis is an example of this type of bacteremia. a. transient b. intermittent c. contaminated d. continuous

Answer 211

d. continuous

Question 212

Nosocomial spread of MRSA infections usually results from this type of contact: a. direct b. airborne c. droplets d. indirect e. vectors

Answer 212

d. indirect

Question 213

Pathogenic organisms elicit the production of these substances, resulting in an immune response: a. antibodies b. antigens c. probes d. enzymes

Answer 213

a. antibodies

Question 214

The Vitek instrument can provide the following information: a. identification of fastidious organisms b. detection of positive blood cultures c. detection of specific bacterial antigens d. antimicrobial susceptibility patterns

Answer 214

d. antimicrobial susceptibility patterns

Question 215

The ability of two complementary nucleic acid strands to bond and form a double stranded molecule is known as: a. extraction b. thermal cycling c. hybridization d. lydroysis

Answer 215

c. hybridization

Question 216

Which of the following methods can be applied using both immunochemical and serological procedures: a. PCR b. ELISA c. Complement fixation d. hybridization

Answer 216

b. ELISA

Question 217

Proper ‘clean catch’ urine sample collection technique should include: a. sterile cotton swabs b. prior cleansing of area c. catheterization d. needle aspiration e. all of the above

Answer 217

b. prior cleansing of area

Question 218

True or False: Haemophilus influenzae is a major cause of epiglottis

Answer 218

True

Question 219

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. Catalase positive

Answer 219

will not rule out

Question 220

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. motile

Answer 220

will rule out

Question 221

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. non motile

Answer 221

will not rule out

Question 222

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. catalase negative

Answer 222

will rule out

Question 223

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. beta hemolysis

Answer 223

will rule out

Question 224

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. small flat colonies

Answer 224

will rule out

Question 225

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. large raised colonies

Answer 225

will not rule out

Question 226

An organism was isolated from a blood culture. The gram stain was suspicious of Bacillus species. As a sentinel lab, indicate which test result will or will not help rule out a diagnosis of B. anthracis. gamma hemolysis

Answer 226

will not rule out

Question 227

If Bacillus anthracis cannot be ruled out by a sentinel lab, the next step is to: a. refer the organism to the state or public health lab for further ID b. notify the CDC c. continue to test the organism with API or Vitek d. notify the physician that B. anthracis has been isolated

Answer 227

a. refer the organism to the state or public health lab for further ID

Question 228

Indicate whether the following blood culture results most likely represent a Pathogen or Contaminant. Growth of coagulase negative Staph in 1 out of 4 bottles

Answer 228

contaminant

Question 229

Indicate whether the following blood culture results most likely represent a Pathogen or Contaminant. growth of bacteroides fragilis in 1 anaerobic bottle

Answer 229

pathogen

Question 230

Indicate whether the following blood culture results most likely represent a Pathogen or Contaminant. growth of staph sureus in 3 out of 4 bottles

Answer 230

pathogen

Question 231

Indicate whether the following blood culture results most likely represent a Pathogen or Contaminant. growth of E. coli, S. epi and Enterococcus in 1/4 bottle

Answer 231

contaminant

Question 232

A serology test is ordered to evaluate the possibility of a recent infection with Aspergilus. The time sensitive specimen/s to collect would be: a. acute serum b. first morning urine c. convalescent serum d. a and c only e. a and b only f. a, b and c

Answer 232

d. a and c only

Question 233

What is the proper transmission precaution that should be followed for: Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lower respiratory tract

Answer 233

airborne precautions

Question 234

What is the proper transmission precaution that should be followed for: meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis

Answer 234

droplet precautions

Question 235

What is the proper transmission precaution that should be followed for: Clostridium difficile

Answer 235

contact precautions

Question 236

What is the proper transmission precaution that should be followed for: Bordetella pertussis (whooping cough)

Answer 236

droplet precautions

Question 237

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents: Bacillus anthracis

Answer 237

Select agent

Question 238

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents: C. perfringens

Answer 238

Not a select agent

Question 239

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents: V. cholera

Answer 239

Not a select agent

Question 240

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents: Ebola virus

Answer 240

Select agent

Question 241

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents: Smallpox virus

Answer 241

Select agent

Question 242

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents: Francisella tularensis

Answer 242

Select agent

Question 243

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents:Yersinia enterocolitica

Answer 243

Not a select agent

Question 244

Indicate which organisms (non vaccine strains) are select agents or are not select agents: Rickettsia rickettsii

Answer 244

Select agent