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Oncology > PQS > Flashcards

PQS Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common bladder cancer in dogs?
A. Transient cell carcinoma (TCC)
B. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
C. Adenocarcinoma (AC)
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
E. Fibroma

A

Transient cell carcinoma (TCC)

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2
Q

For which condition was the first AUV tyrosine kinase inhibitor tablet registered?
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in cats
B. Mast cell tumour in dogs
C. Transitional cell carcinoma of urine bladder in cats
D. Osteosarcoma in dogs
E. Adenocarcinoma of the thyroid gland in digs

A

Mast cell tumour in dogs

Mastocytoma in dogs!

(c-KIT mutation affecting tyrosine
kinase receptors…)

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3
Q

For which tumour is photodynamic therapy (PDT) recommened?
A. Grade II mast cell tumour of the breast
B. Limb osteocarcoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma of the ear or nose in cats (SCC)
D. Supferficial infiltrative lipoma
E. Lymphoma lymoh node (T-cell origin only)

A

Squamous cell carcinoma of the ear or nose in cats (SCC)

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4
Q

What is NOT true of the blood lab of a leukemia patient?
A. We often experience anaemia
B. In acute causes, blasts may appear
C. In each case, the white blood cell count rises
D. The diagnosis will require analysis in most cases
E. Not all cases develop monoclonal gammopathy

A

In each case, the white blood cell count rises

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5
Q

Which of the following is NOT suitable for the treatment of TCC in dogs?
A. Systemic carboplatin + piroxicam orally
B. Systemic mitoxantrone + piroxicam orally
C. Intravesical cysplatin + piroxicam orally
D. Piroxicam monotherapy orally
E. Systemic Vincristine + Piroxicam orally

A

Systemic Vincristine + Piroxicam orally

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6
Q

Immunohistochemistry is characterized by …
A. Haematoxylin-eosin alone is sufficient for diagnosis without staining
B. It is used in tumours that haven`t been operated in once
C. Your problem may be that the same antigen is expressed by another cell type in the tumour
D. Antibodies whose antigen does not occur in healthy cells
E. DNA amplification technique

A

our problem may be that the same antigen is expressed by another cell type in the tumour

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7
Q

Cat FISS Statue 3:
A. It is larger than 2 cm, grows for 4 weeks, is still there 1 month after vaccination
B. It is larger than 2 cm, grows for 4 weeks, is still there 3 months after vaccination
C. It is larger than 3 cm, grows for 4 weeks, is still there 3 months after vaccination
D. It is larger than 2 cm, grows for 8 weeks, is still there 3 months after vaccination
E. It is larger than 4 cm, grows for 2 weeks, is still there 3 months after vaccination

A

It is larger than 2 cm, grows for 4 weeks, is still there 3 months after vaccination

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8
Q

What is the Vet oncologists right attitude?

A

All of the above

(Informs in ab objective, informative way, empathetic, up to date with knowledge)

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9
Q

What is typical for metastasis?
A. Selective
B. Random process
C. Non-selective
D. Non-random

A

Selective

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10
Q

Which statement is true about breast cancer in cats?
A. Cats lack the abdominal II breast cancer
B. Breast cancer in cats is 85% malignant
C. When a malignancy is detected, there is usually already a lung metastasis
D. To avoid excessive tension, the removal of the milking on both sides is performed in 2 steps
E. Radical surgical excision does not cause significantly survival time compared to regional excision

A

Breast cancer in cats is 85% malignant

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11
Q

Which of the following tumours is inherited?
A. Kidney lobe of West highland white terriers
B. Renal cystadenocarcinoma and nodular dermatofibrosis in German shepherds
C. Urinary squamous cell carcinoma in Scottish Terriers
D. Breast cancer in British Shorthair cats
E. Kidney lymphoma in British Shorthair cats

A

Renal cystadenocarcinoma and nodular dermatofibrosis in German shepherds

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12
Q

Which statement is true for histological examinations?
A. Surgical anaesthesia is always required for sampling
B. It always gives a definitive and definite diagnosis
C. Immunohistochemistry is not recommended because it is expensive
D. There is no need for a veterinary pathologist to evaluate it, and human colleagues are also reliable
E. It is recommended to perform it during all tumour surgeries

A

It always gives a definitive and definite diagnosis

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13
Q

What are non-inflammatory and non-neoplastic skin nodules and/or skin swellings?
A. Lick granuloma
B. Keratoacanthoma
C. Epidermal cyst
D. Carcinoma
E. Sebaceous gland hyperplasia

A

Sebaceous gland hyperplasia

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14
Q

Spleen hemangiosarcoma is characterized by:
A. Each
B. It is usually a very aggressive tumour with a poor prognosis
C. It is usually not recommended to sample it through the abdominal wall
D. It often makes metastases to the right atrium
E. DIC can cause it

A

Each

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15
Q

For which tumour type was the first AUV antitumor DNA vaccine developed?
A. Mast cell tumour of dogs
B. Oral melanoma in dogs
C. Transitional cell carcinoma of urine bladder in dogs
D. Mammary gland adenoma in dogs
E. Dogs have spleen hemangiosarcoma

A

Oral melanoma in dogs

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16
Q

which is NOT a negative prognostic factor for canine lymphoma?
A. Hyperpigmentation of abdominal wall skin
B. Hypercalcaemia
C. b substage
D. Stage V
E. T-cell immunophenotype

A

T-cell immunophenotype

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17
Q

Which statement is true for cytological examinations?
A. It always gives a definitive diagnosis, so there is no need for histology after performing it
B. Expensive and time consuming (compared to histological examinations)
C. It is an inexpensive, fast and mostly informative diagnostic method for surgical planning
D. Sampling usually requires surgical conditions
E. Sampling cannot be performed without the simultaneous use of imaging tests

A

It is an inexpensive, fast and mostly informative diagnostic method for surgical planning

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18
Q

Sarcomas are NOT characterized by:
A. They are mainly spread hematogenically
B. They are infiltrative
C. They recur frequently locally
D. They have a well-defined boundary, a capsule
E. They are difficult to diagnose

A

They are difficult to diagnose

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19
Q

In the case of a 1.5 cm diameter single breast tumour in cat, which solution is definitely wrong?
A. Regional mastectomy¨
B. Mammectomy
C. Unilateral radical mastectomy
D. Focal removal
E. Bilateral radical mastectomy

A

Focal removal

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20
Q

Which of the follwing is true for prostate carcinoma?
A. Prostare calcification can only be carcinoma in intact males
B. It does not transmit metastases to vertebrae
C. It is malignant, locally invasive and quickly forms metastases
D. Prostatectomy is the first choice in its treatment
E. Systemic carboplatin should not be used in its treatment

A

It is malignant, locally invasive and quickly forms metastases

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21
Q

The most common intestinal cancer in cats:
A. Adenocarcinoma
B. Lymphoma
C. GIST
D. Leiomyosarcoma
E. Adenoma

A

Lymphoma

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22
Q

It is characteristic of chronic lymphoid leukemia:
A. Mainly the population of mature lymphocytes grows in the blood
B. Poor prognosis, survival a few months
C. Each
D. It requires very aggressive chemotherapy
E. None of them

A

Mainly the population of mature lymphocytes grows in the blood

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23
Q

Which is the wrong statement?
A. Microscopic tumour foci are sure to remain with marginal excision and malignant, aggressive tumours
B. Sharp preparation is recommended instead of blunt
C. Preoperative chemo. radiotherapy is contraindicated
D. For Grade II mastocytoma, the minimum recommended intact wound margin is 2 cm
E. In inguinal regional mastectomy, the regional lymph node is always removed

A

Preoperative chemo. radiotherapy is contraindicated

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24
Q

Which statement is incorrect?
A. Osteosarcoma is most common in large and giant bodies
B. Osteosarcoma is the most common in the metaphysis of long tubular bones
C. Soft tissue fibrosarcoma does not fuse bone tissue because it cannot break through the fascia and bone tissue
D. Synovial sarcoma is an aggressive, metastatic tumour, requiring radical removal and chemotherapy
E. In dogs, the proportion of tumours of the humerus is about 5% of all bone tumours

A

Soft tissue fibrosarcoma does not fuse bone tissue because it cannot break through the fascia and bone tissue

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25
Q

In case of insulinoma, which drugs may be good for the treatment of hypoglycaemia?
A. Prednisolone
B. Diazoxide
C. Each
D. Streptozotocin
E. Ocreotide

A

Each

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26
Q

What is NOT true for oral melanomas?
A. Extremely aggressive
B. They are never amelanotic
C. They often form a lung metastasis
D. They require radical therapy
E. They are more common in dogs than in cats

A

They are never amelanotic

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27
Q

What is NOT true of metronomic protocols?
A. Low drug dose
B. Oral administration
C. Daily drug dosing
D. Duration of therapy is short (a few weeks)
E. Medication is administered by the owner

A

Duration of therapy is short (a few weeks)

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28
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the technical solution of FISS-surgery?
A. An intact surgical wound of 1 cm and a depth of 0.3 cm is sufficient to excise the tumour
B. In case of bone involvement, en-block resection is recommened
C. Maintaining a minimum of 5 cm intact surgical margin at side and 2 facial layers depth
D. Photodynamic therapy is recommended during surgery
E. Rotational plastic surgery may be required

A

An intact surgical wound of 1 cm and a depth of 0.3 cm is sufficient to excise the tumour

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29
Q

Choose the false statement!
A. The incidence of skin tumours is several times higher in dogs and cats
B. In dogs approx. the population is 150.4/100,000 characterized by the incidence of skin tumours
C. The incidence of skin tumours in the cat population is 51.7/100,000
D. In dogs, skin cancer is the second most common type of tumour and about 20-30% of it is malignant
E. In cats, about 20% of tumours are skin tumours and 69-82% are benign

A

In cats, about 20% of tumours are skin tumours and 69-82% are benign

(20% of tumours are skin tumours and 69-82% are malignant)

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30
Q

Which statement is NOT true about the technical solution of FISS surgery?
A. It is sufficient to excise the tumour to an intact surgical edge of 1 cm and a depth of 0.3 cm
B. En-bloc resection is recommended
C. Maintaining a minimum of 5cm intact surgical target and 2 facial layer of depths
D. Photodynamic treatment recommended during surgery
E. Rotational plastic surgery may be required

A

It is sufficient to excise the tumour to an intact surgical edge of 1 cm and a depth of 0.3 cm

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31
Q

Which is the correct statement?
A. Bone cancer is much more common in cats than in dogs
B. In bone tumours, pain only occurs if there is a pathological fracture
C. For bone biopsy, it is sufficient to take a sample from one side of the compact to avoid scattering
D. Radius. after radical surgery, chemotherapy is unnecessary
E. The “limb sparing” technique occurs primarily in the distal radius (ulna) localization of osteosarcomas

A

The “limb sparing” technique occurs primarily in the distal radius (ulna) localization of osteosarcomas

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32
Q

Which form is most common in canine lymphoma?
A. Alimentary
B. Cutan
C. Mediastinal
D. Multicentric
E. Eye form

A

Multicentric

(80%)

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33
Q

Which statements is false? Proper use of intravenous cytostatic …
A. Preliminary laboratory tests are required
B. In all cases, a IV cannulation should be used
C. Vomiting is recommened
D. No attention should be paid to the prevention of contamination
E. The owner should be informed of the expected side effects

A

No attention should be paid to the prevention of contamination

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34
Q

Which statement is false? In case of cytostatic IV, the right use is…
A. No need to pay attention for contamination
B. Need lab examination before use
C. Antiemetics is suggested
D. Have to use IV cannulation always
E. The owner must be informed with the expected side effects

A

No need to pay attention for contamination

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35
Q

Aspects of biopsy for oral tumours:
A. Always take more and relatively large sampled because secondary inflammation can mask the lesion
B. It is advisable to take the sample from the skin
C. They usually do not spread
D. Each
E. None of them

A

Always take more and relatively large sampled because secondary inflammation can mask the lesion

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36
Q

What is the least good treatment option for trigonal transient cell carcinoma (TCC)?
A. Intravenous chemotherapy
B. Surgical excision
C. Topical chemotherapy
D. Selective COX 2 inhibitor treatment
E. each

A

Surgical excision

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37
Q

It is NOT true for paranal adenocarcinoma:
A. In the case of toceranib phosphate (Palladia) is well-functioning chemotherapy treatment.
B. It is often associated with hypercalcaemia as paraneoplastic phenomenon
C. Tumour with high metastatic rate
D. Hormone dependent
E. Edem aof the hind limb is common

A

Hormone dependent

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38
Q

What is the dose of piroxicam for TCC or prostate cancer?
A. 3 mg/KG BID po.
B. 0.3 mg/kg BID po
C. 3 mg/kg SID po
D. 0.3 mg/kg SID po
E. 0.3 mg/kg TID po

A

0.3 mg/kg SID po

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39
Q

Which skin tumour does NOT require any treatment other than surgical removal? (medication, chemotherpay or radiation therapy)
A. Grade II melanoma
B. Grade II mast cell tumour (MCT)
C. Grade I basal cell tumour
D. Grade III fibrosarcoma
E. Grade III squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

A

Grade I basal cell tumour

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40
Q

What is the purpose of radiation therapy?
A. Removal of the tumour
B. Reducing the size and extent of the tumour and killing cancer cells
C. Prevention of metastasis
D. Treatment of intestinal tumours
E. Induction of surgical therapy

A

Reducing the size and extent of the tumour and killing cancer cells

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41
Q

Which is the correct statement?
A. Stage and “grade” are the same concepts
B. In lymph node biopsy, the chin is preferably preffered praescapularis
C. Intracapsular tumour removal is meaningless in all cases
D. Radiotherapy does not affect wound healing
E. Marginal excision and cytoreductive surgery can also be used malignancies if necessary, supplemented with chemo - or radiation therapy

A

Marginal excision and cytoreductive surgery can also be used malignancies if necessary, supplemented with chemo - or radiation therapy

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42
Q

Which drug does not affect tumour growth?
A. Cyclosporine
B. Oclacitinib
C. Azathioprine
D. Diphenylhydramine
E. Cortisone

A

Cortisone

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43
Q

Which is the correct statement?
A. The X-ray on recording, the presence of the Codman triangle can only occur in a bone tumour
B. In dogs, total hemimandibulectomy cannot be performed due to instability of the remaining mandibular hald and aesthetic outcome
C. Long-tubular bone tumours never require a biopsy before a radical surgery can be made to make and accurate diagnosis
D. The goal of the multimodal approach is to retain the limb in the bone tumours
E. In malignant bone tumours and synovial sarcoma, metastasis search is essential for planning

A

In malignant bone tumours and synovial sarcoma, metastasis search is essential for planning

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44
Q

Which of the following is NOT a chemotherapeutic side effect?
A. Myelosuppression
B. Vomiting
C. Diarrhoea
D. Otitis media
E. Alopecia

A

Otitis media

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45
Q

Which statement is incorrect? After removal of the tumour:
A. The wound is “washed” with an antibiotic-containing solution
B. Isolation, gloves and instrument replacement is warranted
C. Layered wound closure is important
D. If possible, monofilament surgical suturing materials are used
E. Drainage should only be used with great care

A

The wound is “washed” with an antibiotic-containing solution

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46
Q

Which of the following diseases has the most favorable prognosis?
A. FeLV-associated mediastinal lymphoma in cats
B. FeLV-associated acute lymphoblastic leukemia in cats
C. Epitheliotroph T-cell lymphoma (mycosis fungoides)
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in dogs
E. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in dogs

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in dogs

(responds to chemo)

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47
Q

Which disease should be treated with chemotherapy in the first place?
A. Breast cancer
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Melanoma
E. Fibrosarcoma

A

Lymphoma

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48
Q

Which skin tumour is typical of the boxer dog breed?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
B. Reactive cutaneous histiocytosis
C. Melanoma
D. (skin) lymphoma
E. Mast cell tumour (MCT)

A

Mast cell tumour (MCT)

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49
Q

What is the proper order?
A. Promotion, initiation, progression
B. Initiation, promotion, progression
C. Progression, initiation, promotion
D. Promotion, progression, initiation
E. Progression, initiation, promotion

A

Initiation, promotion, progression

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50
Q

Which drug is NOT a member of the CHOP (COPA) protocol?
A. Vincristine
B. Doxorubicin
C. Carboplatin
D. Prednisolone
E. Cyclophosphamide

A

Carboplatin

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51
Q

What tests should i do if my patient has prostate cancer?
A. Abdominal US
B. Chest RTG
C. Cytology
D. Pelvic and vertebral X-ray
E. Each

A

Each

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52
Q

What is NOT characteristic of hepatocellular carcinoma?
A. Usually a lobe is affecting the so-called “massive” form of liver tumours
B. In its case, ALT increases to a greater extent than AST
C. It has a better prognosis with surgery and chemotherapy
D. In its case, AST increases to a greater extent than ALT
E. It can also be sampled through the abdominal wall

A

In its case, AST increases to a greater extent than ALT

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53
Q

It is true for haemangiosarcoma
A. Surgical therapy alone is sufficient
B. It is a tumour of high metastatic rate
C. Survival of more than one year is also expected on spleen rupture
D. A common occurrence is in the left ventricle
E. The prognosis of the skin shape is worse than that of the heart shape

A

It is a tumour of high metastatic rate

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54
Q

Which statement is incorrect?
A. In the radical surgery resolution of tumours of long tubular bones, high amputation is usually warranted
B. Osteosarcoma is a type of tumour with a metastatic tendency
C. 90% of bone tumours in malignant dogs
D. Chondrosarcoma is less metastatic than osteosarcoma
E. Bone tumours are 1.5 times more common in bitches

A

Bone tumours are 1.5 times more common in bitches

(More frequently in males 1.3:1)

55
Q

For which tumour is palliative analgesia NOT required?
A. Osteosarcoma
B. Inflammatory carcinoma
C. Ulcerative carcinoma
D. Condition after radical tumour removal surgery
E. It may be potentially necessary in all cases, so the question cannot be answered clearly

A

It may be potentially necessary in all cases, so the question cannot be answered clearly

56
Q

What is NOT true of stage classification?
A. A higher stage is associated with a longer expected survival
B. Additional test are also required to perform this
C. It gives the degree of progression of the tumour in the body
D. It varies by animal species and tumour type
E. It is recommended for all malignant patients

A

A higher stage is associated with a longer expected survival

57
Q

How do we NOT sample your transient cell carcinoma (TCC)?
A. With urethral catheter
B. With free collection of urine
C. With bladder puncture through the abdominal wall
D. During cystoscopy
E. None of them

A

With bladder puncture through the abdominal wall
=cystocentesis

(should never puncture!)

58
Q

Which statement is false? It causes an increase in the number of cases of oncology patients in pet practice:
A. Reduction in infectious disease mortality
B. Increase in life expectancy
C. Parasite invasion due to global warming
D. Development of diagnostic methods
E. Increased ownership

A

Parasite invasion due to global warming

59
Q

What is the most common type of lymphoma in dogs?
A. Mediastinal lymphoma
B. Multicentric lymphoma
C. Epitheliotropic lymphoma
D. Hepatosplenic lymphoma
E. Gastrointestinal lymphoma

A

Multicentric lymphoma

60
Q

What are the differences in abdominal ultrasound in lymphoma?
A. Hepato-splenomegaly
B. Abdominal enlargement of the abdomen
C. Kidney size increases, cortical part thickens
D. Intestinal wall thickening
E. Each

A

Each

61
Q

Criteria for surgical treatment of sarcomas:
A. Maintaining a minimum of 3 cm intact surgical wind and 1 fascia layer depth
B. Biopsy site except en-block
C. The amputation should be performed as high as possible
D. Marking tissue boundaries for the pathologist
E. Each

A

each

(Note : for STS 3cm 1 layer deep,
but for FISS 5cm 2 layers)

62
Q

Which steroid formulation would you choose to stabilize a lymphoma dog?
A. Bethametason (Diprophos) IM
B. Dexmethasone IV once daily
C. Medrol in top doses per orally
D. Solu-medrol IV or prednisolone orally
E. Dexmethasone SQ

A

Solu-medrol IV or prednisolone orally

63
Q

Which of the following type of tumours is contraindicated in surgery?
A. Nephroblastoma
B. Solid benign tumour in the bladder, away from the trigonium
C. Renal lymphoma
D. Unilateral renal carcinoma without metastasis
E. Unilateral RCC

A

Renal lymphoma

64
Q

Lymphoma staging includes:
A. Cytological examination of nycs
B. Immunophenotyping
C. Abdominal US
D. Each
E. Bone marrow sampling

A

Each

65
Q

How can we prevent the development of FISS or make it more manageable?
A. Vaccinate as frequently as possible
B. Vaccines are given in the skin on the last 1/3 of the tail or in the hips
C. Only vaccines that are really needed should be given
D. As far as possible, aluminium-adjuvants should not be used
E. each

A

Each

66
Q

For which tumour type was the first AUV antitumor DNA vaccinated developed?
A. Mast cell tumour of dogs
B. Oral melanoma in dogs
C. Transitional cell carcinoma of urine bladder in dogs
D. Mammary gland adenoma in dogs
E. Dogs have spleen haemangiosarcomas

A

Oral melanoma in dogs

67
Q

in the case of a 1.5 cm diameter single breast tumour in cat, which solution is definitely wrong?
A. Regional mastectomy
B. Mammectomy
C. Unilateral radical mastectomy
D. Focal removal
E. Bilateral radical mastectomy

A

Focal removal

68
Q

How many tumour cells are palpable?
A. 10 on the 20th
B. 10 on the 6th
C. 10 on the 10th
D. 10 on the 30th
E. 10 on the 9th

A

10 on the 9th

69
Q

What is the % of the location of canine osteosarcoma?
A. 10%: apendicular, 90%: truncal
B. 90%: apendicular, 10%: truncal
C. 25%: apendicular, 75%: truncal
D. 50%: apendicular, 50%: truncal
E. 75%: apendicular, 25%: truncal

A

75%: apendicular, 25%: truncal

(25% trunk, 75% legs)

70
Q

Which factor is not part of the decision-making in individualized therapy?
A. Owners compliance
B. Patient`s general health status
C. Available adjuvant therapies
D. Biological behaviour of the tumour
E. The effort to use monotherapy

A

The effort to use monotherapy

71
Q

which is the “cherry eye” in dogs?
A. Melanoma
B. Adenocarcinoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Sarcoma
E. Haemangioma

A

Adenocarcinoma

72
Q

Mention a breed which has generally malignant melanoma:
A. Toy poodle
B. English pointer
C. Russian grey hound
D. Chow-chow
E. Shar-pei

A

toy poodle

(Cocker spaniel, golden retriever, golden setter)

73
Q

Which radiation is non-ionizing?
A. Gammma-radiation
B. Pi-mezon-radiation
C. Neutron-radiaton
D. Proton radiation
E. ??

A

Neutron-radiaton

74
Q

Mention two breed which have generally benign melanomas:
A. Doberman pinscher, minature schnauzer
B. German shepherd, hungarian magyar vizsla
C. Great dane, rottweiler
D. Shih-tzu, pekinese
E. Puli, mudi

A

Doberman pinscher, minature schnauzer

(Also: miniature poodles, cocker spaniel is a question !!)

75
Q

Which statement is true for cats?
A. Cats don`t have caudal abdominal glands
B. Cats mammary tumours are malignant in 85% of the cases
C. Usually at the time of tumour detection, cats have already lung metastasis
D. To avoid the bilateral mastectomy should be done in two steps procedure
E. ??

A

Cats mammary tumours are malignant in 85% of the cases

76
Q

Which statement is true for dogs?
A. Initial effects of ovarian hormones on the mammary glands have an important role in later tumour formation
B. In older animals neutering don`t act against new tumour formation
C. In one step procedure, the neutering should be made after the tumour removla
D. The neutering at high P4 level has a positive impact on prognosis in carcinomas
E. Usually there is no hormone dependency in benign mammary tumour

A

Initial effects of ovarian hormones on the mammary glands have an important role in later tumour formation

77
Q

Which statement if false for feline injection site carcinomas (FISS)?
A. FISS should always be operated with 5cm lateral margins and 2 fascial plane deep
B. The cats injection site sarcomas are one of the most locally invasive tumours
C. Wound dehiscence happens easily at the interscapular region
D. Spinous processes should always be removed at the interscapular region
E. Important to get first a proper diagnosis by excisional biopsy

A

Important to get first a proper diagnosis by excisional biopsy

78
Q

Which is known as a guideline of the chemotherapy treatment:
A. Chemotherapy should start with a high dose (so called initiation) therapy
B. Therapy can be started anytime, we do not need the tolerance of healthy tissues
C. It is recommended to give steroids before chemotherapy
D. Always give just one type of chemo, because it is most effective compared to combinations
E. Safety preparations are not needed for chemotherapy, because these drugs are not harmful

A

Chemotherapy should start with a high dose (so called initiation) therapy

79
Q

The aim is when choosing the imaging method:
A. To make as much profit as possible
B. To use the own imaging modalities, so the patient will not go to another clinic
C. To gain time
D. To calm the owner
E. To gain quickly an early diagnosis with cost effective method that can be repeated

A

To gain quickly an early diagnosis with cost effective method that can be repeated

80
Q

What does tumour tolerance mean?
A. Acquired tolerance, drug doses should be increased
B. Always congenital
C. Occurs in small doses, only
D. Occurs with one administration
E. Does not cause problem in oncology

A

Acquired tolerance, drug doses should be increased

81
Q

Which is NOT the criteria of malignancy in CELLULAR level?
A. Lack of connective tissue capsule
B. Abnormal mitotic figures
C. Dedifferentiated cells
D. Increased number of mitotic figures
E. All of these are the criteria of malignancy on cellular level

A

All of these are the criteria of malignancy on cellular level

82
Q

In which case there is NO more therapy (chemotherapy, radiation therapy etc) after surgical excision of the skin tumour?
A. Melanoma
B. Mast cell tumour (MCT)
C. Basal cell tumour
D.
E.

A

Basal cell tumour

83
Q

Which skin tumour type is the most rarest in boxers?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)
B. Reactive cutan histiocytosis
C. Melanoma
D. (skin) lymphoma
E. Mast cell tumour, mastocytoma (MCT)

A

Reactive cutan histiocytosis

84
Q

Which is right for the metastatic potential of the tumour?
A. Angiogenesis is not needed
B. Tumour cells are constantly mutated and as emboli, it has metastatic potential
C. Metastatic willingness is greater into blood vessels, because there is a basal membrane under endothels
D. Malignant tumours form distant metastasis at first
E. No vascular invasion required for regional invasion

A

No vascular invasion required for regional invasion

85
Q

What is typical for the localisation of melanoma?
A. These tumours are clinically malignant everywhere
B. Truncal melanomas are generally clinically not malignant
C. Oral melanomas are generally clinically not malignant
D. Digital melanomas are generally clinically not malignant
E. Eyelid melanomas are generally malignant in dogs

A

Truncal melanomas are generally clinically not malignant

86
Q

the most important thing in oncological surgery is…
A. The at most radical excision of the tumour mass
B. To achieve a good quality of life when the therapy
C. To achieve the satisfaction of the owner with therapy
D. to achieve a good cosmetic outcome with therapy
E. To excise tumours with surgical margins with which closure without reconstruction is possible

A

The at most radical excision of the tumour mass

87
Q

Which statement is false?
A. Osteosarcoma is most frequent in large and giant sized breeds
B. Osteosarcoma is most common in long tubular bone metaphyseal part
C. Soft tissue fibrosarcoma does not involve bone tissue, because it cannot invade the fascia and bone tissue
D. Synovial sarcomas are aggressive, metastatic, and for the treatment it requires radical removal and chemotherapy

A

Soft tissue fibrosarcoma does not involve bone tissue, because it cannot invade the fascia and bone tissue

88
Q

Osteocarcoma, what is the percentage of metastasis?

A

95%

89
Q

What is true for feline iris melanoma?
A. Cyliar body + sclera site and/or glaucoma refers to malignancy
B. Cyliar body + viterous site and/or glaucoma refers to malignancy
C. Retina + sclera site and/or glaucoma refers to malignancy
D. Cyliar vody + Chorioidea site and/or glaucoma refers to malignancy
E. Cyliar body + scler site without glaucoma refers to benign

A

Cyliar body + sclera site and/or glaucoma refers to malignancy

90
Q

Breeds predisposed to osteocarcoma?

A

Dobermann, Rottweiler, shitzu

91
Q

What does the “specificity of a diagnostic imaging method” mean?
A. The examination is carried out with a special machine
B. Ability to show the typical signs of disease
C. Ability to detect the minimal changes caused by the disease
D. Ability to detect the disease
E. Ability to exclude the disease

A

Ability to show the typical signs of disease

92
Q

Breed predisposed to melanoma?

A

Chow-chow, terrier

chow-chow –> melanoma on the tongue

93
Q

Which is NOT a hallmark of cancer?
A. Evading apoptosis, limitless replicative potential
B. Tissue invasion and metastasis
C. Self-sufficiency to growth signals, insensitivity to anti-growth signals
D. Sustained angiogenesis
E. Food source

A

Food source

94
Q

Which is genetically approved most affected canine breed having osteosarcoma?
A. Dobermann pinscher
B. Miniature schnauzer
C. Yorkshire terrier
D. Rottweiler
E. German shepherd

A

Rottweiler

95
Q

Which statement is true for dogs?
A. The thoracic glands are frequently involved in mammary tumours
B. The direction of lymph drainage of the III MG can be cran. and caud. either
C. The mesenteric lymph nodes need to be checked during staging
D. The main nutritive velles of the caudal tumours is deep epigastric artery
E. There is no lymph communication between the 2 mammary chains is dogs

A

The direction of lymph drainage of the III MG can be cran. and caud. either

96
Q

Which is the non-inflammatory and non-neoplastic skin swelling or skin nodule?
A. Lick granuloma
B. Keratosis
C. Cyst
D. Nevus/hamartoma
E. Sebaceous gland-hyperplasia

A

Sebaceous gland-hyperplasia

97
Q

What is the most common human death cause in the world?
A. Cancer
B. Cardiovascular disease
C. Infections
D. Hunger
E. Trauma

A

Cardiovascular disease

In dogs -> cancer

98
Q

What is typical for melanoma?
A. They always contain melaning
B. They generally don`t contain melaning
C. They contain melanin, but rarely
D. Melanoma cells are typically spindle shaped
E. They can be melanotic or amelanotic, either

A

They can be melanotic or amelanotic, either

99
Q

Which is the most common location of canine truncal osteosarcoma?
A. Pelvis
B. Maxilla
C. Vertebrae
D. Mandibula
E. Ribs

A

Mandibula

100
Q

What does fractioned radiation mean?
A. Multiple, small doses of radiation in a certain time period
B. Reduction of the total dose
C. Lowering of the total dose
D. Distribution of the total dose to the body-surface
E. Recover of missed treatments

A

Multiple, small doses of radiation in a certain time period

101
Q

In human cutaneous melanoma UV light exposure and fair skin are etiological factors. What about dogs?
A. In dogs, too
B. In dogs generally
C. In dogs genetically yes, but clinically rarely
D. In dogs not
E. In dogs genetically not, but clinically yes

A

In dogs genetically yes, but clinically rarely

102
Q

Which statement is true for mast cell tumours?
A. Recurrence rate is 79% after incomplete excision of mast cell tumours
B. All MCTs with incomplete margins need to be reexcised
C. Radiotherapy can be used as a adjuvant treatment after incomplete excision
D. Observation without any adjuvant treatment is a mistake after incomplete surger
E. MCTs are not chemo-sensitive at all

A

All MCTs with incomplete margins need to be reexcised

103
Q

Mention two disease types which can look as bone tumour:
A. Systemic mycosis, bacterial osteomyelitis
B. Trauma
C. Mast cell tumour
D. Bullet
E. Lymphoma

A

Systemic mycosis, bacterial osteomyelitis

104
Q

What is true about feline conjunctival melanoma?
A. sometimes malignant
B. it is benign
C. Practically malignant
D. Always melanotic
E. It can spread to the abdominal lymph nodes

A

Practically malignant

105
Q

What reason leads to incomplete tumour removal most frequently?
A. Missing postoperative histopathology examination
B. Surgical removal without preoperative tumour sampling (FNA/incisional biopsy)
C. Absence of thorough surgical anatomical knowledge
D. Absence of preoperative planning
E. Missing preoperative blood wok up

A

Absence of preoperative planning

106
Q

Evaluate the FNA sampling lymph nodes from a lymphocentrum with a canine oral melanoma
A. It has excellent diagnostic potential for finding metastasis
B. Might overlooks metastasis that may be present in lymph nodes from other lymphocentra
C. it is never usefull
D. It is dangerous to aspirate lymph nodes, as it causes spreading
E. It is a better tool finding metastasis than histopathology

A

Might overlooks metastasis that may be present in lymph nodes from other lymphocentra

107
Q

Choose the false statement:
A. The incidence of skin tumours in dogs is much more higher than in cats
B. In dogs approximately the 1% population is effected by skin tumour(s)
C. In cats approximately the 0.1-0.2% of population is effects by skin tumour(s)
D. In dogs 20-30% og skin tumours (which are the most common type of tumours in dogs) are malignant
E. In cast 20% of tumours are skin tumours and 69-82% of those skin tumours are benign

A

In cast 20% of tumours are skin tumours and 69-82% of those skin tumours are benign

108
Q

What is true for canine conjunctival mast cell tumour?
A. sometimes malignant
B. it is benign
C. Practically malignant
D. Always melanotic
E. It can spread to the abdominal lymph nodes

A

It can spread to the abdominal lymph nodes

109
Q

MRI:
A. Pulmonary metastasis
B. CNS tumour
C. Abdominal metastasis

A

CNs tumour

A. Pulmonary metastasis = CT
B. CNS tumour
C. Abdominal metastasis = us

110
Q

Which is NOT chemotherapeutic?

A

Amox

111
Q

Where is melanoma not malignant?
A. Trunk
B. Footpad
C. Conjunctiva

A

Trunk

112
Q

How many intrapulmonary cell is visible by the x-ray?
A. 10 on the 20th
B. 10 on the 6th
C. 10 on the 100th
D. 10 on the 8th

A

10 on the 8th

113
Q

During first examination what % shows metastasis in dogs with osteosarcoma?
A. 1
B. 30
C. 50
D. 15
E. 80

A

15

114
Q

What does radiotherapy means?
A. Irradiation
B. Medical treatment with higher energy ionizing radiation
C. Irradiation with gamma-radiation
D. Mezon-treatment
E. Proton-radiation

A

Medical treatment with higher energy ionizing radiation

115
Q

What is true for canine conjunctival melanoma?
A. sometimes malignant
B. it is benign
C. Practically malignant
D. Always melanotic
E. It can spread to the abdominal lymph nodes

A

sometimes malignant

116
Q

Which effective drug is not influencing the tumour-growth?
A. Ciklosporin
B. Oclacitinib
C. Azathioprine
D. Diphenydramine
E. Cortizon

A

Cortizon

117
Q

This drug has grate toxic side effects (nephrotoxic, hepatotoxic), therefore we usually use them locally/topically:
A. Vincristine
B. Masitinib
C. Asparaginase
D. Cisplatin
E. Doxorubicin

A

Cisplatin

118
Q

What is typical for the malignant tumours?
A. Increased proliferation
B. Invasiveness
C. Metastasis
D. Increased apoptosis
E. Long survival

A

Metastasis

119
Q

What is NOT typical for the malignant tumours?
A. Increased proliferation
B. Invasiveness
C. Metastasis
D. Increased apoptosis
E. Long survival

A

Long survival

120
Q

Which statement is true for dogs?
A. The prophylactic mastectomy results longer overall survival time in dogs
B. Mammary tumors should be removed with the underlying fascia
C. In multiplex mammary tumors the bigest lump should be sent to histopathology
D. Benign tumors can become malignant when they grow
E. In dogs the multiplex forms of mammary tumors are rare

A

Mammary tumors should be removed with the underlying fascia

121
Q

When would you chose chemotherapy in the second place as a treatment option
A. acute leukaemia
B. myeloma
C. lymphoma
D. spleen haemangiosarcoma

A

Spleen haemangiosarcoma

122
Q

Which statement is false for Soft tissue sarcomas?
A. The surgical dose depends on the grade
B. The surgical dose depends on the size of the tumor
C. The surgical dose can be less with adjuvant radiotherapy
D. AII of them
E. Non of them

A

non of them

123
Q

Which is not chemotherapy agent
A. Carboplatin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Amoxicillin
D. Vinblastin
E. Cyclophosphamide

A

Amoxicillin

124
Q

What are the benefits of hystology instead of cytology? Choose one correct answer:
a. The results will be completed sooner
B. The morfology and the structure can be examined more accurately
C. Sampling is less invasive
D. It can be repeated many times
E. There aren’t any benefits

A

The morfology and the structure can be examined more accurately

125
Q

Cytology smear interpretation based on regional lymph node fine needle aspiration
A. Metastasis: If melanin-containing cells: > 5 cells per smear
B. Metastasis: If melanin-containing cells:> 1 cells per smear
C. Metastasis: If melanin-containing cells: > 100 cells per smear
D. Metastasis: If melanin-containing cells:> 20 cells per smear
E. Metastasis: If melanin-containing cells:> 1 cells per smear

A

Metastasis: If melanin-containing cells: > 5 cells per smear

126
Q

What are the possible side effects of radiotherapy?
a. acute side effects
B. chronic side effects
C. there are no side effects
D. acute and chronic side effects and occasionally secondary tumours
E. acute and chronic side effects

A

acute and chronic side effects

127
Q

Which statement Is false?
A. GR II Mast Cell Tumors need to be removed with 2cm lateral margins with 1 fascia I plane deep.
B Soft Tissue Sarcomas need to be removed with 3cm lateral margins with 1 fascia I plane deep.
C. Feline Injection Site Sarcomas need to be removed with 5cm lateral margins with 1 fascial plane deep.
D. Carcinomas need to be removed with 1-2cm lateral margins with 1 fascial plane deep.
E. Gastrointestinal tumors need to be removed with 4-8cm lateral margins

A

Feline Injection Site Sarcomas need to be removed with 5cm lateral margins with 1 fascial plane deep.

128
Q

Which statement 1s true for squamous cell camonomas (SCC)?
A. Oral secs are tumors of the mucous membrane, they don’t involve bone
B. Most of the time the cause of death is the metastatic disease.
C. With proper surgical margins nasal planum secs have low recurrence rate.
D. FNA is enough for the diagnoses of intraoral tumors
E. Cats never eat voluntarily after mandibulectomy

A

Cats never eat voluntarily after mandibulectomy

129
Q

Which Is the most common tumour type on the eyelid?
A. Adenoma and melanoma
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Mast cell tumour
D. Haemngioma
E. Haemangiosarcoma

A

Adenoma and melanoma

130
Q

What does the “sensitivity of a diagnostic imaging method” mean?
A. Ability to detect the disease.
B. Ability to exclude the disease.
C. Ability to show the typical signs of the disease.
D. Ability to detect the minimal changes caused by the disease.
E. The examination uses a special contrast material.

A

Ability to detect the minimal changes caused by the disease.

131
Q

Which statement is false?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging is able to detect tumours in the central nervous system.
B. Ultrasound and occasionally computer tomography or magnetic resonance imaging are useful methods to detect abdominal tumours.
C. Magnetic resonance imaging is a useful method to detect lung metastasis.
D. Useful imaging methods to detect non central nervous system tumor metastasis are: roentgen, computer tomography, ultrasound and
magnetic resonance Imaging.
E. The imaging method shall be choosen based on its specificity and sensitivity.

A

Magnetic resonance imaging is a useful method to detect lung metastasis.

132
Q

What is the typical location of canine apendicular osteosarcoma?
A. Elbow close, knee far
B. Elbow and knee far
C. Elbow far, knee close
D. Knee and elbow close
E. It is mor frequent on limb than in trunk with each breeds

A

Elbow far, knee close

133
Q

Which statement s false?
A. GR II Mast Cell Tumors need to be removed with 2cm lateral margins with 1 fasciaI plane deep.
B. Soft Tissue Sarcomas need to be removed with 3cm lateral margins with 1 fasciaI plane deep.
C. Feline Injection Site Sarcomas need to be removed with 5cm lateral margins with 1 fascial plane deep.
D. Carcinomas need to be removed with 1-2cm lateral margins with 1 fasciaI plane deep.
E. Gastrointestinal tumors need to be removed with 4-Scm lateral margins

A

Feline Injection Site Sarcomas need to be removed with 5cm lateral margins with 1 fascial plane deep.

134
Q

Which is NOT a major element of therapy resistance?
A. DNA repair
B. Decrease influx
C. Decreased apoptotic potential
D. lncrased efflux, Increased detoxification (cytochrom P450 system)
E. DNA-strand break

A

DNA-strand break

Oncology (2 decks)

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