PPT embryology- test 2 material Flashcards

1
Q

Fetal Age AKA __________

A

(conceptional age)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Menstrual age AKA _________

A

(gestational age)
from 1st day of last period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Refers to the entire products of conception from fertilization onward (the embryo or
fetus and its membranes, placenta)

A

Conceptus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Extends from the last menstrual period until birth (280 days)

A

Gestation period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Also called conceptus, first two weeks following fertilization

A

Pre-Embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

From the third through the eighth week after

A

Embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

11th week (GA) through birth

A

fetus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An infant less than four weeks old

A

Neonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The condition of having a developing embryo or fetus in the body
after the union of the oocyte and spermatozoon.

A

pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Clinical Findings of Pregnancy

A
    • Beta hCG (4 weeks GA), some tests may pick up hCG hormone a
      little earlier
  • Fetal heart tones (10-12 wks GA)
  • Fetal movements (18-20 wks GA)
  • Demonstrations of the fetus on ultrasound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • The head of each sperm (acrosome) releases enzymes that begin to
    break down the outer, jelly-like layer of the egg’s membrane, trying to
    penetrate the egg.
  • Fertilization of the ovum involves penetration of the sperm through
    the corona radiata, zona pellucida, completion of the second meiotic
    division of the secondary oocyte, and formation of the zygote.
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  • Once a single sperm has penetrated, the cell membrane of the egg
    depolarizes its electrical characteristics.
  • This creates a _______________________ that pushes the other sperm far away
    from the egg and ensures that only one sperm fertilizes the egg.
A

cortical reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Fertilization usually occurs in the ___________of the fallopian tube.

A

ampulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how long after cortical reaction will other sperm die?

A

with in 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how long does the fertilization process last?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

More than _______ of all known
spontaneous abortions result
from chromosomal
abnormalities

A

50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

out of 100 exposed ova know how many become:
zygotes
implant and produce hcg
abort promptly and persist

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stages of fertilization and onward

A

fertilization
zygote
cleavage
morula
blastocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how long are eggs and sperm viable for

A

eggs viable for 12-14 hours
sperm for 24-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

formed by union of oocyte and sperm cell

A

zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

period of fairly rapid mitotic divisions of the zygote following fertilization
- 2 cell state at about 24 hours
-4 cell stage at about 48 hours
-8 cell stage at about 72 hours

A

cleavage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

solid ball of cells that are at least 16 cells big or more
zone pellucida outer protective shell like covering

approx 3 days after fertilization

A

morula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

fluid enters the morula (about 100 cells big) and separates the embryonic cells (blastomeres) into two layers which is what stage

A

blastocyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

fluid enters the morula (about 100 cells big) and separates the embryonic cells (blastomeres) into two layers

what is the 2 layers

A

1) outer layer or TROPHOBLAST, consists of large flattened cells which eventually become the chorionic membrane and fetal contribution to the placenta; which will secrete hcg to prompt the corpus luteum to continue secreting progesterone in order to maintain the endometrium

2) inner cell mass- a cluster of small rounded cells that becomes the embryonic disc, amnion, cord, and yolk sac.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how long does the blastocyst remain in endometrial cavity before attaching to wall

A

approx 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how many chromosomes does a zygote have?

A

46- 23 from both parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Early chorionic villi develop and begin to produce ______________________

Described as thread-like vascular projections arising off the chorion

A

human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Embryonic disk lies between the amniotic cavity and the ____________

A

yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

by what week can a gestational sac usually be seen by TV ultrasound

A

4.5 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

By 5 weeks, the chorionic cavity is well developed and contains fluid- sonographically called the ___________________.

A

gestational sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what envelopes the umbilical cord

A

amnion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what connects the yolk sac to the embryo

A

yolk stalk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what happens with the chorionic cavity after the amniotic cavity gets so big?

A

it obliterates it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

is the portion of the endometrium that underlies the implantation site

where embryo implants and placenta grows

A

Decidua basalis:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

includes the remaining endometrium of the uterus and the cervix

A

Decidua parietalis:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

is a thin portion of the endometrium that overlies the conceptus, facing the uterine cavity.

A

Decidua capsularis:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

after fertilization occurs then _________________ starts

A

embryogenesis starts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how long does embryogenesis last

A

from fertilization to the end of 10th week of gestational age (LNMP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

rapid growth can be called

A

differentiation

40
Q

lack of folic acid can contribute to ____________

A

spina bifida

41
Q

Three primordial tissues:

A

Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm

42
Q

During the __________ week (GA), the primary germ layers form along the embryonic disk

43
Q

Gives rise to the functional linings of the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital systems and the associated glands.

44
Q

Forms smooth and striated muscle, bone, and most of the cardiovascular system; is a source of blood cells, bone marrow, and reproductive and excretory organs.

45
Q

Gives rise to skin and the nervous system (central and peripheral), the retina of the eye, and various other structures.

46
Q

The primitive heart tube is forming.

Vasculature begins to develop in the embryonic disc.

A neural groove (future spinal cord forms over the notochord with the brain bulge at one end).

47
Q

Neural crest becomes peripheral nervous system (PNS)
Neural tube becomes central nervous system (CNS)
Somites become spinal vertebrae

48
Q

if the anterior neural pore fails to close than the baby will be born with _______________

A

anencephaly

49
Q

if the posterior neural pore fails to clos then the baby will be born with __________

A

spina bifida

50
Q

ask if we need to know all of this

51
Q

how long is the embryo in week 5

A

4mm(1/8 inch)

it begins to curve into a c shape

52
Q

what happens in week 5 GA

A

the heart begins to beat in a regular rhythm

the neural tube closes

ears begin to form

The first traits of the lungs and liver appear.
Buccopharyngeal membrane ruptures. This is the future mouth.
Cystic diverticulum, which will become the gallbladder, and dorsal pancreatic bud, which will become the pancreas appear.
The rectal and urinary passageways become separated.
Anterior and posterior horns differentiate in the spinal cord
Spleen appears

53
Q

how long is the embryo in week 6 GA

A

8mm (1/4 inch)

54
Q

what happens in week 6 GA

A

*eyes developing,
*nasal pits form,
*brain divides into 5 VESICLES,
*leg buds form, hands form as flat paddles on the arms, and
*rudimentary blood moves through primitive vessels connecting to the yok sac and chorionic membranes

55
Q

how long is the embryo in week 7 GA

A

13mm (1/2 inch)

56
Q

what happens in week 7 GA

A

lungs begin to form
* brain continues to develop
* arms and legs have lengthened w/ foot and hand areas distinguishable
* gonadal ridge begins to be perceptible
* the lymphatic system begins to develop

57
Q

how long is the embryo in week 8 GA

A

18mm (3/4 inch)

58
Q

most common benign form of Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia (GTN) is ______________

A

hydatidiform molar pregnancy

59
Q

2 types of hydatidiform

A

partial and complete

60
Q

image of complete molar

A

image of partial molar

61
Q

An invasive mole is a hydatidiform mole that penetrates the ____________ wall of the uterus .

A

muscular, myometrium

62
Q

_____________ is a malignant form of gestational trophoblastic disease GTD

A

Choriocarcinoma

63
Q

The ______________________ is a subcutaneous fluid-filled space normally seen between 11-14 weeks GA.

The measurement of this space is used as a screening for Trisomy 21 and other neural and chromosomal conditions.

A

nuchal translucency (NT)

64
Q

A good transvaginal, sagittal section of the fetus must be obtained, with the fetus horizontal on the screen. The correct view is a clearly visualized fetal profile.

The fetus should be in a neutral position, with the head in line with the spine, not hyper-extended or flexed.

The minimum fetal crown-rump length should be 45mm and the maximum 84mm.

The optimal gestational age for measurement of fetal nuchal translucency is 11-13 weeks.

The magnification should be such that the fetus occupies at least three-quarters of the image.

A

NT scanning protocol

65
Q

what can increased nuchal translucency thickness indicate

A

trisomy 21

66
Q

what should the Nuchal Translucency NT measurement be?

A

under 3mm because anything greater is concern for aneuploidy

67
Q

Non-Invasive Prenatal Testing (NIPT)

A

A sample of the mother’s blood is taken to evaluate “free fetal” DNA for chromosomal abnormalities.

Mainly used to look for trisomies 13, 18, 21, and sex chromosome abnormalities.

This test is 80-99% accurate depending on the specific abnormality.

Cannot screen for all known chromosome disorders.

Results are usually available in 1-2 weeks

68
Q

Sonographic Appearance of the Gestational Sac- Double Decidual Sac Sign (DDSS)

69
Q

2 sides of the placenta

A

maternal side(decidua basalis)
fetal side (chorion frondosum)

70
Q

The placenta is firmly attached by ________

71
Q

image to study

72
Q

what produces Human Chorionic Gonadotropin- hCG

A

produced by chorionic villi and placenta

73
Q

when does Human Chorionic Gonadotropin- hCG peak?

A

at the 10th gestational week (100,000mIU/mL)

74
Q

what happens to Human Chorionic Gonadotropin- hCG after the 10th week?

A

it declines and levels outa about 18 weeks (5,000 mIU/mL)

75
Q

what are the 2 common hCG tests?

A

qualitative and quantitative

76
Q

difference between qualitative and quantitative hcg

A

qualitative detects hcg in blood

quantitative measures the amount actually present in the blood

77
Q

what level should hCG levels be to see gestational sac TV and TA

A

TV 500-1500 IU/L
TA 1800 IU/L

78
Q

hCG levels double every ______________

79
Q

when is the most accurate time for dating

A

1st trimester

80
Q

when should you include BPD?

A

around 12 week mark

81
Q

3 measurement methods of dating a pregnancy

A

MSD - mean sac diameter
CRL- crown rump length
BPD- bipariteal diameter

82
Q

how to calculate MSD (mean sac diameter)

A

length + width + height / 3 = MSD

83
Q

how to calculated menstrual age from MSD

A

MSD (mm) + 30= menstrual age in days

84
Q

when can a gestational sac be detected

A

TA- 5 weeks
TV- 4.5 weeks

85
Q

what is the yolk sac responsible for

A

Provision of nutrients to the developing embryo

Hematopoiesis

Development of embryonic endoderm (forms primitive gut)

86
Q

diameter of yolk sac should not exceed _______

87
Q

how big in the MSD when you can see yolk sac

A

TA- 20mm
TV- 12mm

88
Q

Cardiac activity should be identified by _____ weeks and as early as _______ weeks

A

6 weeks
5.5 weeks

89
Q

how fast is the heart beat before 6 weeks

A

100-115 bpm

90
Q

how fast is the heart beat after 6 weeks

A

120-160 bpm

91
Q

when should cardiac activity be evident using MSD

A

TA- 25mm
TV- 16mm

92
Q

when will cardiac activity be evident using CRL transvaginally

93
Q

most accurate measurement for dating

A

CRL crown rump length

94
Q

normal pathalogy

95
Q

Thin hyperechoic line between the embryo and the yolk sac

96
Q

Many “screening” examinations are performed at _________ wks for dating and to R/O anomalies