powerpoint 1 Flashcards

1
Q

first trimester week range

A

1-13 weeks

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2
Q

what is gestational age?

A

age from LMP so conception + 14 days

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3
Q

what is fetal age?

A

age from date of conception

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4
Q

Naegele’s Rule equation

A

LNMP + 7 days – 3 months + 1 year
Estimated Delivery Date (EDD)

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5
Q

when does nausea start(weeks)

A

6-12 weeks

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6
Q

when does fetal heart tones start(week)

A

11 weeks

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7
Q

when does quickening start (week)

A

15-18 weeks

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8
Q

Which trimester ultrasound in more accurate for dating

A

1st trimester

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9
Q

when would you see a gestational sac

A

5 weeks

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10
Q

when would you visualize yolk sac

A

5-6 weeks

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11
Q

when would you see early embryonic pole with cardiac activity

A

6 weeks

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12
Q

Suggested Protocol

A
  1. Survey uterus and determine fetal number.
  2. Observe fetal cardiac activity
  3. Determine fetal position(s) and placental location(s).
  4. Check cervix and lower uterine segment.
  5. Survey for uterine or adnexal masses.
  6. Assess amniotic fluid.
  7. Perform anatomy survey of each fetus.
  8. Perform biometric measurements of each fetus.
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13
Q

3 different fetal lie

A

longitudinal, oblique, transverse

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14
Q

4 different fetal presentation

A
  1. Cephalic
  2. Breech
    * Complete
    * Incomplete
    * Frank
  3. Oblique
    * Where is the fetal head?
  4. Transverse
    * Head to the right or left?
    Fetal Presentation
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15
Q

different types of breech positions

A

complete
incomplete
frank

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16
Q

what is prolapsed cord?

A

cord comes into vaginal canal before baby

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17
Q

1st OB lab at gvltec

A
  1. Determine fetal position/lie and placental location.
  2. Observe (visual check) fetal cardiac activity
  3. Check cervix and lower uterine segment (LUS).
    The LUS with a measurement of the cervix should be the first
    image you take.
  4. Perform biometric measurements of each fetus.
    Obtain in the following order: BPD, HC, AC, and FL.
    You should be able to complete these twice!
  5. Perform anatomy survey of the fetus with remaining time.
    GTC OB Lab
    Protocol for DMS 165
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18
Q

What is Cervical Incompetence

A

Spontaneous, painless
dilatation of the cervix

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19
Q

normal cervical length

A

greater than 3cm

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20
Q

acronym for incompetent cervixes

A

Trust
Your
Vaginal
Ultrasound

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21
Q

what is funneling

A

amniotic sac going into birth canal

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22
Q

What is Biparietal Diameter (BPD)

A

Diameter of the fetus’ head from one parietal bone to the other.

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23
Q

where is the Head
Circumference (HC) took from

A

Taken at the same level as the BPD

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24
Q

intracranial landmarks for head measurements

A
  1. Falx cerebri anteriorlyand posteriorly and
    perpendicular to sound. (horizontal on the screen)
  2. Cavum septi pellucidi anteriorly in the midline
  3. Choroid plexus of the lateral ventricle-(not always seen).
  4. Thalami imaged equidistant from the
    lateral walls of the calvarium
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25
Q

anterior vs posterior based on thalami

A

thalami is heart shaped and the humps are anterior, the point posterior

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26
Q

how to measure BPD

A

outer parietal bone on closest side to inside of parietal bone on far side

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27
Q

Cerebellum like 2 snowballs and peduncles rectangular

A

just image to see

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28
Q

Abdominal circumference
made from a transverse
axial image of the fetal
abdomen at the level of
the liver

A

just know that it is done at liver

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29
Q

Major landmarks for abdominal circumference…..

A
  • Umbilical portion of the
    left portal vein
  • Fetal stomach
  • Fetal spine (9 o’clock or 3
    o’clock)
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30
Q

how to measure Outer Binocular Distance

A

Calipers are placed on the
(outer) canthi of each eye.

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31
Q

symmetric vs asymmetric Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)

A

Symmetric IUGR Causes-
* Usually a result of a first trimester insult.
* Low genetic growth potential, intrauterine
infection, severe maternal malnutrition, fetal alcohol syndrome, chromosomal anomaly, or severe congenital anomaly

Asymmetric IUGR-
* Usually caused by placental insufficiency.
* Result of maternal diseases such as: diabetes, chronic HTN, cardiac or renal disease, placental abruption, multiple pregnancy, smoking, poor weight gain, drug usage, or uterine anomaly.
Maternal Factors for IUGR

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32
Q

Macrosomia

A
  • Large for gestational age
  • Birth weight of 4000g or more
  • Commonly associated with maternal diabetes
  • Morbidity related to birth trauma, asphyxia, and prolonged pregnancy
    Macrosomia
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33
Q

Where is the lateral ventricle measured

A

transverse axial plane of the fetal head ( just superior to the BPD measurement)

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34
Q

what is the transventricular plane

A

where the lateral ventricle image is took

35
Q

Normal lateral ventricular
measurement is …………

36
Q

lateral ventricular is measured from outside or inside walls

37
Q

dangling choroid sign is when ventricle is enlarged and choroid looks like it dangles

38
Q

just the way the lateral ventricular looks at different gestational ages

39
Q

how to find lateral ventricle

A

about a finger length behind thalami in the center of posterior hemisphere

40
Q

Where is choroids located

A

in the roof of each ventricle. best seen when falx is vertical on screen

look for cyst in them

41
Q

A fluid-filled cavity in the
anterior portion of the fetal
head.
* Usually visible around 16
weeks gestation.
-Not visible in late gestation or
neonatal life from fusion of
the two membranes making
up the walls of the CSP.
* Must be imaged during 2nd
trimester scan.
* Anterior horns of the lateral
ventricle are separated by it

A

Cavum Septum Pellucidum

42
Q

How to measure the cerebellum

A

at the widest point including echogenic line

43
Q

Measurement should be taken
at the most narrow part of the
cerebellum, from the vermis to
the inner skull table of the
occipital bone

A

Cisterna Magna measurement

44
Q

Normal cisterna magna
measure ………..

45
Q

abnormal cerebellum/ CM- banana shaped cerebellum SEEN WITH SPINA BIFIDA

46
Q

what is micronathia

A

recessed chin

47
Q

what is frontal bossing

A

thick skin on forehead

48
Q

Imaging Protocol of Fetal Spine
* Sagittal, transverse, and coronal images
* Cervical (C1-C7)
* Thoracic (T1-T12)
* Lumbar (L1-L5)
* Sacrum (S1-S5)

A

when baby is in prone position!

49
Q

spine body is considered anterior process and lamina posterior process when ultrasound

50
Q
  • Heart (4 Chambers)
  • 2 Ventricles
  • 2 Atria
  • Septa
  • Best when baby is in a supine
    position!
    Anatomy Refresher
51
Q

Position of the heart

A

Heart on the left, apex to the
left, left atrium closest to the
spine, right ventricle closest
to sternum

52
Q

The four-chamber view checklist
includes the following.
* Right ventricle (lies directly behind
the sternum).
* Interventricular septum
* Left ventricle
* Two atrioventricular valves (tricuspid
and mitral valve).
* Right atrium.
* Inter-atrial septum and foramen
ovale (septum primum(top flap)/septum
secundum(bottom flap of Atrial))
* Left atrium and pulmonary veins (PV)
(the most posterior cardiac
chamber). Must see at least one PV
* Descending aorta (posteriorly,
between the left atrium and the fetal
spine).

53
Q

Term used for the normal position of the heart and abdominal organs

A

Situs solitus

54
Q

Term used when the chest and abdominal organs are placed in a mirror image of the normal position.

A

Situs inversus

55
Q

Term used when the apex of the heart and the stomach are not on the same side.
* Usually the stomach is positioned correctly and the apex of the heart is placed on the right, instead of the left.
* This anomaly is more likely to have CHD than the other two anomalies mentioned above (about 95% or greater).

A

Situs ambiguous

56
Q

Axis
* Levorotated (turned towards the left) 45 degrees +/- 20 degrees
Position
* Heart should be positioned in the anterior aspect of the chest.

57
Q

The heart should fill _________ of the fetal thorax

58
Q

The ____________ ventricle should make up
the apex of the heart and should be
“bullet shaped”

59
Q

Right ventricle should
have ___________- band.

60
Q

___________– valve should be
closer to the apex of the
heart than the mitral valve

61
Q

A _______________ is defined as a hole in the ventricular septum
of the heart that divides the right and left ventricular chambers

A

ventricular septal defect (VSD)

62
Q

pulmonary artery comes off which ventricle and branches into how many branches

A

right ventricle and 2 branches

63
Q

3 Vessel View (3VV) looks for which 3 things

A

Used to evaluate the
pulmonary artery (Pa),
Ascending aorta (Ao),
and superior vena cava
(SVC).

image

64
Q

3 Vessel/Tracheal View (3VT)

A

Structures visualized in
this image are the
ductal arch (Da), aortic
arch (AA), SVC and
trachea (Tr)

looking for a V

image

65
Q

which takes oxygenated blood to baby umbilical vein or artery

A

umbilical vein

66
Q

Pulmonary veins should be
seen coming into the _____________
atrium
* You should see at least one
of these.

67
Q

name of septum that divides left and right ventricle

A

interventricular
septum (IVS)

68
Q

LVOT Imaging Checklist

A

The five-chamber view checklist
includes the following:
* Presence of a large vessel with
aortic characteristics (no
bifurcation) originating from the
morphologic left ventricle.
* Regular continuity of the anterior
wall of the aorta with the inter-
ventricular septum (membranous
part).
* The leaflets of the aortic valve
must be shown only in
the diastolic phase (aortic valve
closed).
* Normal size of ascending aorta
(similar to pulmonary artery).

69
Q

RVOT Imaging Checklist

A

The right axis view (RVOT) checklist
includes the following.
* Presence of a large vessel with
pulmonary characteristics
(bifurcation: the main pulmonary
artery splits into left and right
pulmonary artery) originating from
the morphologic right ventricle.
* The pulmonary valve leaflets must be
shown only in the diastolic phase
(pulmonary valve closed).
* Normal size of the main pulmonary
artery (usually slightly larger than the
aortic artery).
* Regular great vessel (aorta-
pulmonary) crossing.
* Normal course of ductus arteriosus
(right short axis view) that connects
the pulmonary artery to the
descending aorta.

70
Q

to evaluate the Genitourinary System the spine should be at __________-

A

6 or 12 oclock

71
Q

Placenta grading 0

A

No visible calcification within the placenta
(most common in first trimester

72
Q

Placenta grading 1

A

Small intraplacental calcifications

(May appear as early as 14 weeks and is most common until 34 weeks)

73
Q

Placenta grading 2

A

Calcification of the basilar plate with comma
like echogenicities extending into the
placenta from indentations of the chorionic
plate

(Usually does not appear until after 30 weeks)

74
Q

Placenta grading 3

A

Extensive basal echogenicities and the
curvilinear echogenicities extending
from the chorionic plate reach the basal
plate

(Not usually seen until after 35 weeks and then only in 30% of term placentas)

75
Q

placenta dimensions

A

2.0 to 2.5 cm is average thickness
* > 3.3 cm for anterior placentas is too thick
* > 4.0 cm for posterior placentas is too thick

76
Q

2 ways of measuring amniotic fluid

A

single deepest
vertical pocket (SDV) or 4 quadrants (AFI).

77
Q

amniotic fluid volumes for SDV

A

Using SDV pocket
* Normal= > 2cm
* Oligohydramnios= < 2cm
* Polyhydramnios= > 8cm

78
Q

amniotic fluid volumes for AFi

A

Using 4-quadrant AFI
* Normal= 8-22cm
* Oligohydramnios= <5cm
* Polyhydramnios= >22cm

79
Q

which trisomy

ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN (AFP) (🡫)
hCG (🡩)
Unconjugated estriol (🡫)

A

trisomy 21

80
Q

which Trisomy
ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN (AFP)(🡫)
hCG (🡫)
Unconjugated estriol (🡫)

A

trisomy 18

81
Q

what does an high ALPHA-FETOPROTEIN (AFP) test mean

A

something isn’t contained like it should such as intestines

82
Q

If you see ribs what part of spine are you in?

83
Q

If you see iliac wing which part of spine are you in?