PPQs Flashcards

1
Q

optimal dose of fluoride in drinking water

A

1ppm = 1mg/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2 foods/drinks other than fluoridated water that are good sources of fluoride & have not have fluoride added by manufacturer

A

fluoridated milk
fluoridated salt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

4 methods of topical fluoride application for an 8 year old

A
  1. fluoride varnish 22,600ppm 2x yearly
  2. fluoride toothpaste 1500ppm
  3. fluoride tablets 1mg fluoride daily
  4. fluoride mouthwash 225ppm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how does topical fluoride help prevent cavities

A

F slows down development of decay by stopping demineralisation of dentine, it makes enamel more resistant to attack from plaque bacteria, speeds up remineralisation & can stop bacterial metabolism at high concentrations to produce less acid. the fluoride that enters the tooth produces fluorapatite which makes the tooth stronger once remineralisation occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what daily dose of fluoride tablet would you give a 4 year old at high risk of caries who lives in an area with <0.3mm fluoride in water suply

A

0.5mg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

rationale for use of antibiotics for perio caused by cancer

A

perio is a side effect of cancer treatment and when ptx undergoing cancer tx become immunocompromised they may require antibiotic prophylaxis to ensure that any bacteria present in the mouth that is causing the perio does not upset the ptx systemically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what problems limit the usefulness of antibiotics in tx of perio in cancer ptx

A
  • antibiotics may be inactivated or degraded by non target organisms
  • biofilm may resist antibiotics
  • allergic reactions may occur
  • antibiotic resistance can occur
  • super infection can result where broad spectrum antibiotics are not suitable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is it appropriate to prescribe a systemic antibiotic (5)

A
  • ptx colonised with A.actinomycetemcomitans need systemic antibiotics as local delivery will not kill or inhibit bacteria
  • when ptx presents with periodontal abscess of ANUG where systemic symptoms occur
  • indication for use when there is ongoing disease despite mechanical therapy and good OH
  • if ptx medically compromised
  • if aggressive periodontitis & severe recurrent cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

advantages of systemic antibiotics

A
  • delivered via serum to tissues & reaches reservoirs such as tonsils & tongue
  • less costly than time required for tx
  • must be accompanied by mechanical therapy to reduce bacterial load & disrupt biofilm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

types of systemic antibiotics

A
  1. amoxicillin 500mg & metronidazole 400mg
  2. metronidazole alone
  3. azithromycin
  4. doxycycline
  5. tetracycline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

3 reasons for carrying out obturation of prepared root canal

A
  1. inhibits bacterial growth
  2. can be easily removed
  3. seals the canals laterally & apically
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

describe steps involved in obturating root canal in upper central incisor

A
  • apply dental dam & disinfect access area
  • remove provisional restoration using sterile round bur
  • irrigate using sodium hypochlorite to remove CaOH medicament; starting with size 10 or 15 introduce files sequentially to confirm access to working length & prepared apical stop
  • dry canal with narrow bore aspiration & correct size and length of matching paper points in locking tweezers
  • select master gutta percha point which will fill canal at working length & give tug back
  • mix root canal sealer (AH+) & coat walls of apical part of root canal thinly using master point itself
  • coat tip of master point with sealer & reinsert slowly to working length held in sterile locking tweezers & seat point firmly to the apical stop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

cold lateral compaction

A
  • take size A finger spreader, set a silicone stop at 1-2mm from CWL and place into canal alongside master point for 20secs
  • coat an extra fine ‘A’ accessory point with sealer, gently remove finger spreader by rotating & immediately insert A point into space left by sealer
  • repeat until 3-4 A points have been used or use B spreaders & points if coronal area still wide
  • use a heated plugger to remove excess gutta percha within pulp chamber
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

which part of the root canal filling is the most important in ensuring long term success

A

good coronal seal is most important for ensuring higher success rate & preventing infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is meant by Watt & Macgregor’s biometric guidelines

A

biometric guide is one of the methods of designing complete dentures
uses remnant of the lingual gingival margin in the buccolingual placement of prosthetic teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when applying biometric guides what anatomical feature is used as fixed reference point

A

positional relation to the central incisors which are about 8-10mm anterior to the incisive papilla
the biometric guide gives you information about the location of the maxillary canines - a perpendicular drawn posterior to the centre of the incisive papilla to the sagittal plane that passes through the canines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

average horizontal bone loss for the fixed reference point in the following maxillary tooth positions

A

central incisors - 6.3mm
canine - 8.5mm
premolar - 10mm
molar - 12.8mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

minimum data set that should be recorded onto occlusal record block

A

OVD - distance between jaws with teeth in occlusion
centre line - centre of ptx mouth symmetrical with face
occlusal plane - central occlusal plane indicates where incisal level of tooth will be
high lip line
canine line - line extended from inner canthus of eye
arch form - width:lip support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

give history, symptoms & presentation of periodontal abscess

A

localised acute exacerbation of pre existing pocket (chronic perio) caused by trauma to pocket epithelium, or obstruction of pocket entrance
symptoms - pain on biting/constant pain, swelling, discharge release causing halitosis
O/E - swelling adjacent to periodontal pocket, tooth may be TTP, suppuration (discharge through sinus or pocket), tooth mobility, more likely to have pain on lateral movement, more likely to have generalised horizontal bone loss
tx - drainage via incision or via pocket with instrumentation to dilate, gentle sub gingival debridement, hot saline mouthwash, XLA of teeth with poor prognosis, antibiotic use if systemic involvement
follow up - HPT, surgery if required & maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

history, symptoms & presentation of periapical abscess

A

can be chronic / acute but both due to inflammatory reaction to pulpal infection where there is localised collection of pus around apex of non-vital tooth as a result of necrosis
chronic characteristics - gradual onset, little or not discomfort, intermittent discharge of pus through associated sinus tract
chronic radiography - sign of osseous destruction i.e. radiolucency at apex
acute characteristics - rapid onset, spontaneous pain, extreme tenderness to pressure, pus formation, swelling of associated tissues, systemic signs of malaise, fever, lymphadenopathy
acute radiography - may be no signs
tooth can be mobile, TTP vertically, non vital tooth, loss of lamina dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

history, symptoms & presentation of occlusal trauma

A

causes tooth mobility which is progressively increasing & associated symptoms, radiographic evidence of increased PDL width; in combination with plaque induced inflammation this may exacerbate loss of attachment
tx - control of plaque induced inflammation, correction of occlusal relations, splinting required when:
- mobility is due to advanced LoA
- mobility causing discomfort or difficulty when chewing
- when teeth need stabilised for debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

history, symptoms & presentation of periapical periodontitis

A

symptomatic / asymptomatic
symptomatic:
- represents inflammation of apical periodontium that extends beyond root canals
- causes resorption of alveolar bone & LoA
- painful response to biting, palpation, percussion
- can be accompanied by radiographic changes i.e. periapical radiolucency
- severe TTP indicative of degenerating pulp & RCT required
asymptomatic:

  • inflammation & destruction of periapical periodontium of pulpal origin
  • apical migration of junctional epithelium
  • appears as apical radiolucency & does not present clinical symptoms i.e. TTP or palpation
    risk factors = plaque accumulation, diabetes, stress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

history, symptoms & presentation of chronic gingivitis

A

inflammation confined to gingival tissue characterised by redness & swelling of marginal gingival tissue
swelling leads to formation of gingival pocket which manifests as increase in probing depth where epithelium lining of pocket is friable & easily traumatised
there is altered microbial colonisation, increased flow of GCF, influx of neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes & plasma cell infiltrate
proliferation & ulceration of junctional epithelium, dilated vessels, vascular proliferation, increased collagen loss & very few plasma cells present
chronic can be localised (<30%) or generalised (>30%)
symptoms = bleeding, swollen, red gingivae, false pocketing with no LoA
risk factors = pregnancy, leukaemia, puberty related, poor OH
tx = OH, HPT if required for removal of plaque / calculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

branches of maxillary nerve & where they pass through

A

trigeminal nerve has 3 branches:
1. ophthalmic - exits through superior orbital fissure
2. maxillary - exits through foramen rotunda
3. mandibular - exits through foramen ovale
maxillary nerve then has branches from the pterygopalatine fossa - zygomatic through zygomatic foramen, nasopalatine through sphenopalatine foramen, posterior superior alveolar nerve, greater & lesser palatine nerve, pharyngeal nerve
maxillary nerve also has branches from infraorbital canal - middle superior alveolar, anterior superior alveolar, infraorbital nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

recommended alcohol limit for males & females

A

no more than 14 units per week spread evenly over 3 or more days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what acts regulate alcohol in scotland

A
  1. licensing (scotland) act 2005
  2. alcohol (scotland) act 2010
  3. criminal justice and licensing (scotland) act 2010
  4. air weapons and licensing (scotland) act 2015
  5. local government (scotland) act 1973
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what has reduced alcohol consumption in scotland (5)

A
  • changing scotland’s relationship with alcohol; framework for action plan
  • minimum pricing per unit alcohol
  • ban on multi buy drink promotions
  • increased investment in alcohol treatment & care services with available access
  • introduction of scottish lower drink drive limit of 22mg of alcohol / 100ml
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

chair side interventions that can be used to help someone with an alcohol problem

A

5A’s - brief intervention;
- Ask ptx about alcohol consumption
- Advise ptx
- Assess ptx
- Assist ptx on getting help
- Arrange follow up for ptx
2A’s & 1R;
- ask ptx about alcohol
- advise your ptx on alcohol
- refer to stop alcohol services
ABIs - alcohol brief interventions which are opportunistic & effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

4 different types of candidosis

A
  1. pseudomembranous; thrush
  2. erythematous; denture induced stomatitis, atrophic HIV related & candida leukoplakia
  3. hyperplastic - candida leukoplakia
  4. angular chelitis - poor OH, dry mouth, anaemia, immunocompromised, over closed denture from reduced OVD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how to treat each candidosis infection

A

pseudomembranous -
- nystatin oral 1ml 4x daily for 7 days
- chlorhexidine 3ml rinse for 7 days
- fluconazole 50mg daily for 7 days
- miconazole oromucosal gel pea sized amount after food 4x daily
- itraconazole 10-20mg OD for 14 days
erythematous -
- if steroid related rinse with mouth wash after using inhaler / spacer device
- if denture induced ensure thorough hygiene instructions given with milton for 20mins or chlorhexidine, advise removing denture at night
- drug tx = fluconazole capsules 50mg for 7 days or miconazole oromucosal gel pea sized amount to fitting surface of upper denture after food 4x daily
hyperplastic -
- confirm diagnosis through microbiology & histopathology
- systemic antifungals i.e. fluconazole 50mg OD or itraconazole 10-20mg OD
- iron, folate or B12 may be required if deficient
angular chelitis -
- chlorhexidine mouthwash 3ml per rinse for 7 days
- miconazole cream (2%) apply to angle of mouth 2x daily; use for 10 days after lesions have stopped
- sodium fusidate ointment 2% apply to angles of mouth 4x daily
- miconazole 2% & hydrocortisone 1% cream applied to angles of mouth 2x daily
ensure miconazole is not prescribed for those on warfarin or statins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

mechanism of antifungal medication

A

azoles mechanism of action is the inhibition of the cytochrome P450 dependent enzymes (particularly 14a-demethylase) which is involved in the biosynthesis of ergosterol which is required for fungal cell membrane structure & function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is azole resistance

A

candida species C.krusei & C.glabrata are naturally resistant to fluconazole & some strains of C.abicans have formed sensitivity & resistance to fluconazole systemic tx
this is why it may be important to carry out sensitivity & subtyping to ensure what candida species is causing the candidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what features should be present on maxillary & mandibular master imps

A

maxillary features:
coverage of tuberosity, hamular notch, extension anterior to vibrating line for post dam, functional depth & width of sulcus to create good peripheral seal & ensure hard palate & residual ridge are functional for primary support
mandibular features:
coverage of pear shaped pad & buccal shelf, retromolar pad & extension into lingual pouch should occur, functional width & depth of sulcus, ensure area of primary support of buccal shelf & retromolar pad
general features:
ensure denture bearing areas covered, good functional sulcus, good surface detail with no airblows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what indicates posterior border of maxillary denture

A
  • post dam should sit 1-2mm anterior of vibrating line between junction of hard & soft palate
  • should be at level of hamular notch to produce a good posterior seal which is located between distal surface of tuberosity & hamular process of medial pterygoid plate of maxilla
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what impression materials are used for primary & master imps

A

primary:
1. impression compound - non elastic material which records poorer surface detail, not cheap, can be messy but good for primary due to high mucocompressive viscosity
2. alginate - elastic material that flows into undercuts & records adequate surface detail for primary imps
master:
1. silicone - dimensionally stable & can be made into variety of consistencies which means it accurately records surface detail
2. polyether/impregum - dimensionally stable & accurate recording of surface detail
3. alginate - elastic so will flow into undercuts if present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is parkinson’s disease

A

a disabling progressive disease process thought to be caused by degeneration of dopaminergic neurones in basal ganglia (substantia nigra) or brain but reason for this degeneration is unclear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

4 cardinal signs of parkinsons

A
  1. postural instability; impaired gait & falls, impaired use of upper limbs
  2. resting tremor
  3. bradykinesia; slow movement & slow initiation of movement
  4. rigidity; increased motor tone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

features noticed in ptx with parkinsons

A

mask like face, slow speech & difficult swallowing, impaired dexterity, abnormal posture & difficulty walking (shuffling gait), memory problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

dental relevance of parkinsons

A

difficulty accepting treatment; tremor of body at rest, often facial remorse reduces purposeful movement e.g. mouth opening, lack of control of oral muscles
dry mouth common due to anti-cholinergic effects of drug treatment (benztropine)
increased risk of drug interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

signs that a ptx who can’t communicate is in pain

A

general - fidgeting, pacing, repetitive motions, refusal to eat or cooperate, crying, groaning
facial - frowning, grimacing, teeth clenching, biting, rubbing area that is sore
behavioural - aggressive, depression, isolation, sleep disturbances, withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

difference in ptx with parkinsons & ptx with cerebral palsy in regards to tremors

A

parkinsons presents as intention tremors & tremor at rest; intention tremor is present when tremor amplitude increases during visually guided movements towards target at the termination of movement
ataxia cerebral palsy typically presents with action intentional tremors which is especially apparent when carrying out precise movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is chlorhexidine & its mechanism of action

A

Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic and disinfectant that helps reduce the number of bacteria in mouth / skin
mechanism of action - Chlorhexidine is a cationic surfactant synthetic biguanide with broad-spectrum antibacterial and less pronounced antifungal activity. It disrupts microbial cell membranes and coagulates cytoplasmic proteins & has a residual activity of several hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what factors influence use of chlorhexidine

A
  • contains bisbiguanides which is the gold standard for active use against gram +/- bacteria, fungi, yeasts & viruses
  • no known bacterial resistance or superinfection reported with use
  • has 12hr substantively
  • good safety record, available without prescription
  • requires little to no skill or motivation to use
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

dosage of chlorhexidine

A

chlorhexidine mouth rinse 0.2%
10ml x2 daily for 1 min after breakfast & before bed for 1-2wks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is substantivity of chlorhexidine

A

usually 12hrs but depends on:
- absorption to oral surfaces
- maintenance of antimicrobial activity
- slow neutralisation of antimicrobial activity
- other drugs
- certain food & drinks
- sodium lauryl sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

indications for using chlorhexidine

A
  • short term for specific problems such as candidosis (pseudomembranous / erythematous)
  • to clean dentures causing denture stomatitis
  • post oral or perio surgery
  • in disabled ptx where good OH is not easy to maintain
  • immunocompromised ptx can benefit from use to prevent oral infections spreading to systemic infection
  • tx of ANUG
  • management of aphthous ulcers
  • irrigant during RCT
  • management of mucositis in cancer ptx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

side effects associated with use of chlorhexidine

A

anaphylaxis, hypersensitivity, mucosal irritation, parotid gland swelling, reversible brown staining of teeth / comp restorations, taste distrubance, tongue discolouration, burning of gums if not diluted properly
can potentially impair fibroblasts & normal periodontal healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

incidence v prevalence

A

incidence:
no of new disease cases developing over a specific period of time in a defined population, incidence rate = no of new cases of a disease in a period / no of individuals in the population at risk, incidence estimates are obtained from longitudinal studies
prevalence:
number of disease cases in a population in a given time, prevalence = no of affected individuals / total no of persons in population, prevalence estimates are obtained from cross sectional studies or derived from registers which can relate to attributes to absence or presence of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is SIMD & what is it used for

A

scottish index of multiple deprivation which is an area based index which uses a range of data to decide which neighbourhoods are most deprived by ranking data zones in order of deprivation from most to least deprived, with 1 being most deprived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the 7 factors of deprivation

A
  1. employment status
  2. income
  3. health & health care services
  4. geographic access to services
  5. crime
  6. housing, living & working conditions
  7. education, skills, training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what does the ARAB acronym stand for

A

A - active component - induces a force by introducing displacement forces
R - retention - resistance to displacement forces
A - anchorage - resistance to unwanted tooth movement, newton’s 3rd law: for every action there is an equal & opposite reaction
B - baseplate - to provide anchorage, connector for retentive components, cohesion, adhesion & stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

write a prescription to correct an anterior crossbite

A

Aim - please construct a URA to correct an anterior crossbite on patient’s 12
A - Z spring (double cantilever spring) on 12; 0.5mm HSSW
R - 16, 14, 24, 26 Adam’s clasps; 0.7mm HSSW
A - yes
B - self cure PMMA posterior bite plane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

write a prescription to correct a posterior crossbite

A

Aim - please construct a URA to expand the upper arch
A - midline palatal screw
R - 16, 14, 24, 26; Adam’s clasps; 0.7mm HSSW
A- reciprocal anchorage
B - self cure PMMA - posterior bite plane; most incorporate all posterior teeth to prevent unwanted tooth eruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how often should an active component be activated

A

anterior - 1 activation per month
posterior - 1 activation per week
should only be 1-2 teeth moving 1mm pr month for bone remodelling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what components of a URA can be used for retention (4)

A
  1. adam’s clasps - 4s & 6s 0.7mm HSSW (0.6mm in deciduous teeth)
  2. southend clasps - 1s & 2s 0.7 HSSW
  3. labial bows - 0.7mm HSSW
  4. c clasps - 0.7mm HSSW
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what in anchorage

A

anchorage is resistance to unwanted tooth movement described by newton’s 3rd law -
for every action there is an equal & opposite reaction
used to ensure only 1-2 teeth are moved at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what can thumb sucking cause in the skeletal pattern

A

proclination on upper anteriors & retro-clination of lower anteriors with localised anterior open bite (AOB) or incomplete open bite (OB); it can also narrow the upper arch with a unilateral posterior crossbite
sucking effects will also be superimposed on existing skeletal patterns & incisor relationships & can cause lisping while talking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

2 types of haemorrhage that can occur post XLA

A
  1. immediate post op period:
    - reactionary & rebound bleeding which occurs within 48hrs of XLA
    - caused by vessels opening up as the vasoconstriction effects of LA wears off, sutures become loose / lost, or ptx traumatising socket with finger / tongue / toothbrush / food
  2. secondary bleeding
    - often due to infections commonly occurring 3-7 days post XLA
    - usually a mild ooze but can cause major bleed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

how do you stop bleeding after an XLA

A
  • apply firm pressure by biting on damp gauze packs / using finger
  • LA reapplied with vasoconstrictor
  • surgical oxidised cellulose / gelatin sponge inserted to act as framework for clot formation
  • whitehead’s varnish pack containing iodoform, gum benzoin etc ribbon gauze soaked in WHVP sutured into socket will require removal
  • bone wax
  • thrombin liquid & powder in socket
  • fibrin foam into socket
  • suture socket with interrupted / horizontal mattress suture
  • ligation of vessels & diathermy may be used
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

nerves affected by an IBD

A

inferior alveolar nerve
lingual nerve
some fibres of incisive & mental branches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

how to know if anaesthesia has worked

A
  • numbness of lip & chin on same side of IDB
  • numbness of lingual gingivae & 2/3s of tongue
  • check teeth on that side & tooth being XLA by walking probe down long axis of tooth & checking it ptx can feel it
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is xerostomia

A

consistent dryness in the mouth which generally develops when flow of saliva decreases to around 1/2 the normal unstimulated rate - 0.3ml/min
very common & often seen as side effect to polypharmacy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what medications are likely to cause xerostomia

A

tricyclics anti depressants - amitriptyline & nortriptyline
anti psychotics - phenothiazine
benzodiazepines - diazepam, lorazepam
anti-cholinergic - atropine
beta blockers - atenolol, propanolol
antihistamines - cetirizine, loratadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

non drug causes of xerostomia

A

medical tx - radiotherapy of head & neck, chemotherapy, removal of salivary glands
medical conditions - sjogren’s, undiagnosed diabetes, HIV, AIDS, alzheimer’s, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis, stroke
nerve damage
severe dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

how do you treat xerostomia

A
  1. stimulate salivary glands
    - chew sugar free gum / sweets
  2. substitute saliva
    - oral lubricants
    - biotene system which is a salivary LPE enzyme system that helps to maintain oral environment
  3. treat / modify underlying causative disease / problems causing it in the 1st place e.g. diagnose & treat diabetes
  4. drug use
    - pilocarpine used for tx following irrigation for head & neck cancer & for dry mouth in sjogren’s; only effective in ptx who has residual salivary gland function
  5. management techniques
    - suck on ice cubes & frequent sips of water
    - avoid mouthwash containing alcohol
    - avoid dry hard food
    - avoid alcohol / caffeine
    - avoid sweet / sugary food
    - moisten food when eating with water & sauces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

draw and label posselt’s envelope

A

working clockwise
T, R , RCP, ICP, E, Pr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is the border position in posselt’s envelope & why is it important

A
  • centric relation (retruded arc) which is a dynamic relationship between maxilla & mandible is not in a static position
  • said to occur when condyles are in their most superior position in the articular fossa & is determined by anatomy of TMJ
  • it is a border movement and is reproducible over a period of treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

describe areas on posselt’s envelope

A

T - maximal mandibular opening with full anterior - inferior translation of condylar heads
R - maximal mandibular opening with the condylar heads in reproducible retruded position but no anterior-inferior condylar translation. the arc R-RCP has its centre of rotation passing through the condylar heads (terminal hinge axis). in edentulous ptx the point at which prosthetic tooth contact is made along this arc (OVD) is determined by dentist as RCP
RCP - retruded contact position
ICP - intercuspal position
RCP-ICP = path is termed a slide, has the potential for horizontal, vertical & lateral components; lateral element cannot be seen in the sagittal plane
E - edge to edge position of incisors
Pr - maximum protrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what 2 records are required for mounting casts

A
  1. jaw reg
  2. occlusal rims - setting upper teeth in wax rim and setting lowers to upper in RCP
    note - tooth shade & mould should also be recorded
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

4 radiographic signs a tooth has become non vital

A
  1. furcation bone loss
  2. external and / or internal resorption
  3. radiolucencies
  4. periapical periodontitis - widening of PDL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is included on a trauma stamp (8)

A
  1. sinus/tender in sulcus
  2. colour
  3. TTP
  4. mobility
  5. EPT
  6. ethyl chloride thermal testing
  7. percussion note
  8. radiographs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

tx of ED#

A

tx:
- bond fragment to tooth or place composite bandage
- take 2 periapical x ray to rule out root fracture or luxation
- sensibility testing & evaluate tooth maturity
- place definitive restoration
follow up at 6-8wks & 1yr:
- x ray checked for width & length of root canal development, compare tooth with contralateral
- check for internal & external inflammatory resorption & periapical pathologies
prognosis:
- 5% risk of pulp necrosis in 10yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

tx of EDP#

A

evaluation:
- size of pulp exposure
- time since injury
- associated PDL injuries
tx:
<24hrs = pulp cap:
- LA & dental dam ->clean area with water, disinfect with NaOH, apply CaOH (dycal) or MTA white to pulp exposure -> restore with CR
- dam not required if associated luxation injuries
- review 6-8wks, then 1yr

> 24hrs = partial (Cvek) pulpotomy:
- LA & dental dam -> clean with H2O then NaOH, remove 2mm of pulp with high speed rough diamond bur (if no bleeding or cannot arrest bleeding proceed to full coronal pulpotomy), place saline coated (ferric sulfate?) CW pellet over exposure until haemostasis achieved, apply CaOH then vitrebond then restore with CR

full coronal pulpotomy:
- begin with partial then assess haemostasis, remove all of coronal pulp if hyperaemic or necrotic, place CaOH in pulp chamber, seal with GIC lining & quality coronal restoration

follow up 6-8wks, 1yr. aim to preserve pulp vitality and avoid full extirpation unless tooth is clearly non vital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

symptoms of trauma

A

pain
oedema
bruising
changes in bite
missing part of tooth
inability to close mouth
tooth discolouration
lacerations in mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

different types of waste disposal streams

A

BLACK - non infected household waste i.e. paper towels, food containers, put in wheelie bin to be lifted by council
ORANGE bag - low risk waste; dressings, swabs, disposables i.e. PPE, other items that have been in contact with ptx. bags filled to manufacture line, securely sealed with ratchet tag / swan tie then lifted by specialist services for heat disinfection (HDS)
ORANGE bin - low risk waste i.e. broken glass, blood & contaminated liquids inc bags & tubes, filled to line, label completes & source identified on bin, picked up for HDS
YELLOW stream - high risk i.e. recognisable body parts e.g. teeth without amalgam fillings, medicines & anaesthetics, used / unsure sharps or drug vials, contaminated metal parts or surgical instruments, highly infectious waste such as infectious blood, containers filled to line, labelled & picked up for incineration
RED stream - for amalgam, amalgam capsule, teeth with amalgam etc, filled to line, label completed, picked up as it requires specialist waste reprocessing so chemicals can be recovered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

4 key aspects of waste transfer note

A
  1. description of waste
  2. origin source of where waste has come from
  3. quantity
  4. transport & destination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how long should a waste consignment transfer note be kept for

A

min 3 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

regulations that control waste disposal

A
  1. special waste (amendment) regulations 2004
  2. health & safety at work act 1974
  3. COSHH 2002
  4. environmental protection act 1990
  5. health & safety executive HSE
  6. scottish environmental protection agency SEPA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

types of dementia

A
  1. alzhiemer’s; reduction in size of cortex, severe in hippocampus, presence of plaques which are deposits of protein fragments of beta-amyloid that build up in spaces between nerve cells & tangles
  2. vascular - caused by reduced blood flow to brain which damages & eventually kills brain cells
  3. dementia with lewy bodies - deposits of abnormal protein (lewy bodies) inside brain cells
  4. frontotemporal - frontal lobe has associated ubiquitous clumps of protein linked with TDP-43 found on it
    rarer forms = parkinson’s, HIV, corticobasal degeneration, MS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what legislation protects against dementia

A
  1. human rights act 2000
  2. disability discrimination act 2005
  3. equality act 2010
  4. adults with incapacity act (scotland)
  5. mental capacity act (england & wales)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

who is involved in multi disciplinary team care for dementia

A

GP
dentist
consultant neurologist
dementia nurse
macmillan nurse
physio
carers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

symptoms of early, middle & late stage dementia

A

EARLY - misattributed to stress, bereavement or normal ageing:
- loss of short term memory
- confusion, poor judgement, unwilling to make decisions
- anxiety, agitation, distress over perceived changes
- inability to manage everyday tasks
- communication problems; decline in ability or interest in talking, reading etc
MIDDLE - increased obvious symptoms
- more support required inc reminders to eat, wash, dress, use bathroom
- increasingly forgetful & will fail to recognise people
- distress, aggression, anger, mood changes
- risk of wandering & getting lost
- behave inappropriately
- experience hallucinations, throw back memories
LATE - progressive symptoms
- inability to recognise familiar faces, objects, surroundings
- increasing physical frailty, start to shuffle / walk unsteady
- difficulty eating & sometimes swallowing, weight loss, gradual loss of speech, associated incontinence
- progressive & irreversible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

how would you reduce a tooth for a MCC

A
  1. occlusal reduction:
    - retain some morphology but reduce cusps & marginal ridges
    - take into consideration relative thickness of metal & porcelain
    - use diamond tapered fissure bur or round/rugby ball diamond bur
  2. separation:
    - use long tapered diamond bur to separate from adjacent tooth
  3. buccal reduction:
    prepare in 2 planes:
    i) using diamond tapered shoulder bur for 1st reduction plane
    ii) use the same for 2nd reduction plane but keep handpiece following incline of cusp
    - avoid buccal pulp horns
    - interproximal margin should follow gingival contour
  4. palatal / lingual reduction:
    - completed in 1 plane for premolars & molars
    - follow palatal contour for canines & incisors
    - both should use diamond chamfer bur
  5. shoulder & chamfer finish:
    - use both burs to finish shoulder margins or corresponding sides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

measurements for reductions for MCC

A

non functional cusps = 2mm
functional cusps = 2.5mm
incisal = 2mm
buccal shoulder / heavy chamfer = 1.2-1.3mm (2 plane)
palatal chamfer margin = 0.5mm (1 plane)
between 10-20o taper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

ideal properties of IM for offsite laboratory construction of a crown

A
  • silicone (addition cured silicone putty) is placed over crown prep as it is dimensionally stable, has variety of consistencies, resistant to tear & records very accurate surface detail
  • alginate impression can be then placed which is cheaper to use & is elastic so can flow into undercuts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is the index of suspicion for child abuse/neglect

A
  • delay in seeking help & delayed presentation of injuries
  • story vague, lacking in detail, vary with telling person to person
  • account not compatible with injury
  • parents mood is abnormal
  • parental behaviour gives cause for concern i.e. refusal to allow proper tx or hospital admission, unprovoked aggression towards staff, explanation inconsistent with injuries
  • child appearance & interaction with parent is abnormal
  • history of previous injury
  • suspicious injuries / facial bruising
  • history of violence within family
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what to do if you suspect child abuse

A

OBSERVE - child’s behaviour & injuries
RECORD - always record conversations & findings in ptx notes
COMMUNICATE - with child & parents; ask how they got injuries, does it math description, reason for delayed presentation
REFER for assessment - if still concerned contact child protection for advice, follow up in writing & speak with health visitor, GP, school etc to investigate further, continue with referral to social services
duty of care to share concern about risk to a child’s wellbeing with child’s named person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

how do we manage dental neglect

A

3 stages -
1. preventative dental team management; single unit approach = raise concerns with parents, offer support, set targets, keep records & monitor progress
2. preventative multiagency management =
- lease with other professionals to see if concerns are shared i.e. health visitor, GP
- child may be subject to common assessment framework (CAF)
- check if child is subject to child protection plans
- agree joint plan of action, review at agreed intervals
- letter to health visitor of children u5 who fail appointments & failed to respond to letter from practice
3. child protection referral -
- in complex or deteriorating situations
- follow local guidelines
- referral to social services if required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

4 types on inherited bleeding disorders

A
  1. von willebrand’s - deficiency and/or defect of blood factor (von willebrand’s factor) that promotes platelet adhesion
  2. haemophilia A - factor VIII deficiency, 25% cases
  3. haemophilia B - factor IX deficiency (Christmas factor), 5% cases
  4. rarer forms - 10%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is platelet dysfunction

A

may be due to a problem in the platelets themselves or to an external factor that alters the function of normal platelets
can be inherited or acquired with both increasing the risk of excessive & spontaneous bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is thrombocytopenia

A

condition characterised by abnormally low levels of thrombocytes (platelets) in the blood
diagnosed when below the normal limit of 150x10 to the 9/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what 3 blood tests can confirm bleeding disorders

A

FBC - haematology
coagulation screen - prothrombin time PT, partial thromboplastin time PTT, activated partial thromboplastin time APTT, APTT ratio, INR
thrombophilia & haemophilia factor screen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what blood test is required for warfarin patients regularly

A

INR screen to determine how long it takes for your blood to clot as warfarin affects Vit K dependent clotting factors 2, 7, 9, 10
INR = 1 indicates level of coagulation equivalent to an average person not on warfarin but >1 indicates longer clotting time and so longer bleeding time
INR < 4 = allow for tx to occur without interrupting anti coag medication; safest between 1.5-2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what types of injections can be given to people suffering from bleeding disorders

A

regular injections of the clotting factor they are missing
- haemophilia A; berlate P injection which is recombinant factor VIII // DDAVP
- haemophilia B; benefix injection which is recombinant Christmas factor
-vWD; desmopressin (DDAVP)
- thrombocytopenia; platelet transfusions, INR
- rare conditions; FFP intravenously to replace all factors if recombinant factors are not available
dental injections - all injections can be used except lingual infiltration & IDB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are the risk factors for oral cancer

A
  • tobacco use
  • alcohol use
  • prolonged sun exposure
  • HPV
  • gender
  • age
  • poor OH
  • poor diet & nutrition
  • weakened immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what is a biofilm

A

a biofilm comprises of an aggregate of microorganisms whose cells adhere to one another & embed in a surface
the adherent cells become embedded within a self produced matrix of extracellular polymetric substances which allows adherence to a surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what is a niche

A

an ecological niche is the role & position a species has in its environment, how it meets its needs for food & shelter, how it survives & reproduces
a species niche includes all of its interactions with the biotic & abiotic factors of its environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what are the stages of colonisation in a biofilm

A
  1. adhesion
  2. colonisation
  3. accumulation
  4. complex community
  5. dispersal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

give examples of 2 types of biofilms

A
  1. streptococcus spp = produce linking film i.e. strep mutans in caries development
  2. actinomyces spp = cause coaggregation & reconditioning of the film i.e. actinomyces actimomycetemcomitans A.a in perio
    or candida albicans in candidiasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what factors are involved in the adherence of bacteria

A

microbial adhesion:
- fimbrillar adhesins which are virulence factors used to help invade membrane vesicles of host cells by binding to cellular inetgrins
- LPS (cell wall component of outer membrane) of gram - bacteria with potential structural diversity to mediate specific adherence
- lipotechoic acid = cell wall components of gram + bacteria that may be involved in non specific / specific adherence
- protein fimbriae are filamentous proteins on surface of bacterial cells that may behave as adhesins for specific adherence
- lectins are any proteins that bind to a carbohydrate
- cell wall proteins
host receptors = glycolipid, glycoproteins, integrins, collagen, heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what 3 factors are required for successful colonisation

A

requires adherence, substrate & liveable environment i.e.
1. host - mucosa surface, pellicle, acid rich police proteins, minerals, lectins
2. saliva - mechanical washing, bactericidal enzymes, buffering, secretor IgA
3. bacterial - adhesins, LTA, protease, virulence factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is the aim of suturing

A
  • approximate & reposition tissues
  • compress blood vessels
  • cover bone
  • prevent wound breakdown
  • achieve haemostasis
  • encourage healing by primary intention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

4 different types of sutures

A
  1. resorbable
    a) monofilament i.e. monocryl
    b) multifilament i.e. vicryl rapide;
    holds tissue edges together temporarily, vicryl breakdown via absorption of water into filaments causing polymer to degrade
  2. non resorbable
    a) monofilament i.e. prolene
    b) multifilament i.e. mersilk - black silk
    if extended retention periods are required use these but must be removed post op, usually for closure of OAF or in exposure of canine teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

4 different types of flap design

A

triangular
rectangular
semilunar
envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

general oral surgery principle that should be adhered to when carrying out flap surgery

A
  • create maximal access with minimal trauma as bigger flaps heal just as quick as smaller ones
  • wide based incision should be used for circulation
  • use scalpel in 1 firm continuous stroke
  • no sharp angles
  • minimise trauma to dental papilla
  • flap reflection should be down to bone and done cleanly
  • no crushing of tissues
  • keep tissues moist
  • ensure flap margins & sutures lie on sound bone
  • make sure sounds are not closed during tension
  • aim for healing by primary intention to minimise scarring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what hand piece is used to cut bone and why

A

straight electrical hand piece with saline cooled bur:
round or fissure tungsten carbide burs
air drive hand piece may lead to surgical emphysema embolism to form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what are the long term effects on permanent teeth after trauma

A
  1. discolouration - immediate may indicate vitality and intermediate change over wks can indicates non-vitality
  2. delayed exfoliation of primary tooth - may not resorb normally after trauma so XLA necessary or permanent successor will erupt ectopically
  3. enamel defects (44% cases) -
    - hypomineralisation; yellow/white spots, normal thickness of enamel, tx = mask with composite, localised removal & restore with composite, external bleaching
    - hypoplasia; yellow/brown spots, less than normal enamel thickness, tx = repair with composite / porcelain veneers when gingival level is stabilised at 16yrs
  4. abnormal root morphology -
    - crown/root dilacerations; requires surgical exposure & ortho
    - delayed eruption; premature loss of primary teeth may result in delayed eruption of up to 1yr due to thickened mucosa, take radiographs if >6mths, surgical exposure & ortho may be required
  5. ectopic tooth positions
  6. arrest in tooth formation (RCT/XLA)
  7. complete failure of permanent tooth to form
  8. odontome formation (surgical removal)
  9. underdeveloped tooth germ; may sequester spontaneously or require removal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

nursing caries pattern of decay

A
  • usually affects all of the maxillary teeth as smooth surface caries around the gingival margin
  • lower incisors are protected by tongue but mandibular canines can be infected
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

advice for parents whose child is suffering from nursing caries

A
  • ensure they’re using F- toothpaste suitable for age group i.e. 1000ppm < 3 and 1500ppm <10 high risk
  • ensure free flow spout from 6mths with no sugar in cup
  • don’t give bottle at night, only before brushing
  • keep to meal times and don’t let child sip on sugar all day
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

normal pattern of decay in permanent dentition

A

1st & 2nd molar pits & fissures susceptible & usually first
interproximal areas where there are tight contacts between teeth
normally not smooth surface unless extremely bad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is a post & core

A

core gains interradicular support for definitive coronal restorations such as a crown
post then retains the core holding onto the coronal restoration; however, this will weaken the tooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what types of posts are available

A
  • manufactured; preformed or prefabricated / custom made
  • material; cast metal (type IV gold / Au), steel, zirconia, carbon / glass fibre
  • shape; parallel sided, tapered
  • surface; non threaded passive, serrated, smooth, cement retained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is the difference between parallel & tapered posts

A

parallel sides -> avoid wedging, greater retention than tapered, less likely to cause root fracture as load is not dispersed horizontally; transfers down long axis
tapered posts -> high strength & stiffness, conservative, less retentive than parallel or threaded posts, should be used in small circular canals & avoid in flares canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what length & width should a post be

A

length:
at least equal to crown height
2/3 of root length
4-5mm root filling should be left apically so apical foramen is sealed
never extend past a bend in the root
should reach alveolar crest height
width:
no more than 1/3 of root width at narrowest point
1mm of remaining circumferential coronal dentine
should fit for AL preparation & anti-rotational design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is the function of a baseplate

A

used to provide anchorage, connector for retentive components, cohesion, adhesion & stability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what forces can displace a URA (5)

A
  1. gravity
  2. mastication
  3. tongue
  4. talking / vibrations
  5. active components
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what is the formula for force in a wire

A

force is proportional to deflection x radius4/length3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what are the instructions for fitting a URA for the first time (10)

A
  1. check it is correct appliance for ptx
  2. check it is correct design & matches prescription
  3. check for any sharp / protruding areas on polishing & fitting surface which could cause trauma
  4. check integrity of wire work i.e. areas of damage (dark spot where the chromium layer is damaged which can lead to corrosion/fracture) or areas of work hardening (darkness caused by bending back & forth)
  5. try in ptx mouth
  6. check for signs of blanching, damage & trauma to soft tissues
  7. check occlusion: 1. flyover of posterior retention; high flyover can cause metal fatigue & wire fracture, undercut area moving so it won’t engage & causes gum stripping. 2. arrowheads. 3. check anterior retention
  8. active components should be in passive state so this is when they can be activated to allow 1mm of movement/ month
  9. demonstrate to ptx correct insertion & removal & get them to demonstrate back
  10. book review in 4-6wks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

difficulties ptx must have with URA (4)

A
  1. likely to impinge on speech so get them to read aloud with device in
  2. will feel big & bulky so reassure they will get used to it quickly
  3. once activated will feel mild discomfort so indicates appliance is working & can take analgesia if needs be at start
  4. likely to have excess salivation (will pass in 24hrs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

instructions to give ptx when they receive their appliance (6)

A
  1. wear 24/7 including meal times
  2. take out & clean with soft brush after every meal
  3. store in safe container if taking part in active / contact sports
  4. non compliance will significantly lengthen tx
  5. avoid hard & sticky food, caution with hot food & drink
  6. give emergency contact details if components fail
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

how would you monitor progress & what would you do at subsequent visits for URA

A
  • check wear on acrylic
  • reactivate appliance
  • monitor through overjet measurement; ensuring space between UR3 & UR4 are reducing & ensuring OJ has not changed
  • check overbite reduction
  • check MR in case anchorage is slipping
  • if compliance is good, tx should only take 6-9mths
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

how are ghost images formed and what would cause them

A

produced as the x ray tube start position directs the bra posteriorly towards then opposite TMJ region and then moved behind ptx head, when the image of the premolar is being created the beam is coming from a more posterior point on opposite side & ghost products such as earrings are usually more anterior due to this
ghost images that occur are always higher due to vertical beam angulation of 8o and be horizontally magnified & usually further forwards due to change in anterior-posterior position
ghost images can occur when there is horizontal distortion if ptx is in incorrect position relative to focal plane
typical ghost images = earrings, metal restoration, soft tissue calcification, soft palate, hyoid bone, denture & fixed appliance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

indications for an OPT

A

when you require a full view of dentition & surrounding structures inc TMJ & condyles; it will show:
- fractures & elevation of trauma
- 3rd molar & relationship to ID canal on lowers
- bone loss in generalised perio disease
- large lesions that wouldn’t be seen on occlusal, bitewings or periapical
- retained/unerupted teeth & development of dentition
- developmental & acquired anomalies
- TMJ evaluation
- inability to tolerate intra oral radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

define a stroke

A

a stroke is an acute neurological defecit resulting from cerebrovascular disease and lasting more than 24hrs or causing earlier death due to hypoxia of brain tissue; 2 types:
1. no local cerebral flow; infarction of tissue or haemorrhage into brain tissue
2. temporary ischaemia; TIA (transient ischaemic attack)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what are the dental considerations with a stroke (6)

A
  1. impaired mobility & dexterity; reduced attendance, importance of OH & techniques for getting into mouth
  2. communication difficulties; dysphonia & dysarthria issues, cognitive difficulties
  3. risk of cardiac emergencies; MI & further stroke are at increased risk
  4. loss of protective reflexes; aspiration risk, techniques for managing saliva
  5. loss of sensory information; difficulty in adapting to new oral environment i.e. denture
  6. stroke pain; CNS generated pain perception may be enhanced
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

risk factors of stroke occurring

A

hypertension - DBP >110mmHg x15 risk compared to 80mmHg, sustained BP of 140/90 or above
smoking
frequent & heavy alcohol consumption
ischaemic heart disease
atrial fibrillation
diabetes mellitus
previous strokes
prolonged stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

methods to reduce stroke (5)

A
  1. reduce risk factors; smoking, stress & alcohol reduced, diabetes & hypertension controlled
  2. anti platelet action - decreases platelet aggregation & inhibits thrombus formation effective in arterial circulation e.g. aspirin, clopidogrel, dipyridamole
  3. anti coag action - suppressing synthesis or function of various clotting factors and prevent formation of blood clots in veins & arteries; if at emboli risk such as AF, left ventricular thrombus given warfarin / heparin
  4. carotid endarterectomy - used when there is severe stenosis & previous TIAs under age of 85
  5. neurosurgery - aneurysm clips or AV malformation correction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

tx available for stroke

A

ACUTE PHASE:
1. limit damage:
- calcium channel blockers for survivable ischaemia
- thrombolysis within 3hrs to improve blood flow & O2
- achieve normal glycaemia levels
2. reduce future risk:
- remove haematoma if possible
- give 300mg aspiring daily & anticoagulants if required
CHRONIC PHASE
1. rehabilitation:
- immobility support
- speech and language therapy
- occupational therapy
2. reduce future risk with medication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

where is an IDB inserted

A

needle injected at junction of buccal fat pad in pterygomandibular, lateral to pterygomandibular raphe and medial to coronoid notch of the ramus of the mandible, 1cm above occlusal plane of molars
position of needle is approached from opposite premolar region and advanced until you reach bone then retract 1cm; aspirate & begin slow administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what happens if LA inserted into parotid gland

A

facial palsy as LA injected (too posteriorly) into facial nerve which runs through parotid
causes eye on affected side to shut similar to stroke symptoms & cannot move eyebrows as temporal branch affected
to manage - reassure, cover eye with pad until blink reflex returns to normal, book review

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

list common psychiatric disorders

A
  1. neuroses (person contact is retained with reality) - anxiety states, phobic, OCD, hypochondria, depressive
  2. psychoses (persons contact is lost with reality) - manic depression, schizophrenia, korsakoff’s psychosis
  3. mood disorders - dementia, depressive, dysthymia, bipolar, cyclothymia
  4. eating disorders
  5. personality disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

difficulties in treating patients with psychiatric disorders

A
  1. anxiety - denture intolerance, oral somatostatin, parafunction, TMD issues, oral dysesthesias (dry, burning, facial pain but no cause)
  2. psychoses - may be hyperactive / aggressive, delusional, hallucinations, poor concentration, poor insight, reckless behaviour
  3. mood disorders - reduced interest & motivation, poor concentration, appetite disturbance, unreasonable self approach
  4. eating disorders - xerostomia, recurrent ulcers, infections, bleeding, dental erosion
    general - poor attenders, local dental care facility may not be able to provide specialist care, may not accept care due to anxiety so need sedation / GA, problems with capacity & consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what meds given to psychiatric ptx cause xerostomia

A

antipsychotics - phenothiazine, butryrophenones, thiozanthenes
sedatives - benzodiazepines
anti depressants - selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) i.e. prozac, monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) i.e. phenelzine, tricyclic antidepressants i.e. amitriptyline

134
Q

describe mental health (scotland) act 2003

A

concerned purely with management and treatment of psychiatric disorders
- acknowledges person has mental disorder
- medical tx is available which could stop condition progressing or help treat some symptoms
- if tx not provided there would be significant risk for ptx / others
- ensures compulsory powers may be necessary especially if persons mental problem prevents them from making decisions about medical tx
it also deals with detention limits

135
Q

describe mental capacity act (england & wales) 2005

A

aims to -
empower & protect people who may not be able to make decisions for themselves
- enables people to plan ahead incase they are unable to make decisions for themselves in the future
- states that over 16 you have capacity to consent

136
Q

5 main principles of adults with incapacity act (scotland) 2000

A
  1. must benefit patient
  2. be the least restrictive option
  3. take into account the wishes of the patients and those involved
  4. consultation with relevant others i.e. carer, guardian
  5. encourage the person to use exercise residual capacity
137
Q

explain residual capacity

A

identification if there are any decisions which the patient can make for themselves
in so far as it is reasonable or practicable to do so, encourage adult to exercise whatever skills they have concerning property, financial affairs or personal welfare as the case may be and to develop such new skills

138
Q

what powers do certain proxy groups have with regards to dental treatment

A

power of attorney
1. continuing power of attorney - cannot consent to dental tx
2. welfare power of attorney - can consent for dental tx
3. combined power of attorney - can consent for dental tx
guardianship orders
1. welfare guardian - can consent for dental tx
2. financial guardian - cannot consent for dental tx

139
Q

what constitutes as having ‘incapacity’

A

AMCUR
inability to
act on decision
make decision
communicate decision
understand decision
retain memory of decision

140
Q

what are the 3 main types of study trials and explain each

A
  1. randomised control trial - gold standard for comparing the effectiveness of one treatment to another, they provide the strangers evidence on effectiveness of tx in clinical trials
  2. cohort studies - individuals in this study are observed over a period of time to measure frequency of occurrence of disease, amount of people exposed to risk factor and people not exposed to the risk factor
  3. case control studies - retrospective study which compares individuals with disease (cases) and those without disease (control) then assess risk factors through past histories & exposure to suspected harmful agents compared; less robust than cohort study but can be used as preliminary investigations of hypothesis followed by cohort
141
Q

what are confidence intervals & P values & how do they relate to the null hypothesis

A

CI - range of values the absolute risk difference will take in the population
- 95/100; the CL will contain the true population ARD so it wouldn’t overlap 0 which means there is sufficient evidence
- a narrow CL is better as the larger the sample the narrower the CL
p values :
- used in stats to help determine significance of your results
- p value <0.05 means you reject the null hypothesis & your results are statistically significant

142
Q

what dosage of fluoride tablets are given to children

A

6mths - 3yrs = 0.25mg / day
3-6yrs = 0.5mg/ day
6+yrs = 1mg / day

143
Q

fluoride toothpaste dosage amounts

A

eruption of 1st tooth - 3yrs = 1000ppm
4-16yrs = 1450-1500ppm
high risk u10yrs = 1500ppm
high risk 10-16yrs = 2800ppm
high risk 16+yrs = 5000ppm

144
Q

what is the fluoride dose of mouthwash

A

225ppm

145
Q

what is the dose of fluoride varnish

A

22,600ppm

146
Q

what is a toxic, lethal and certainly lethal dose of fluoride

A

toxic dose = >1mg/kg bodyweight
potentially lethal dose = 5mg/kg
certainly lethal = 32-64mg/kg

147
Q

what are the symptoms of fluoride toxicity

A

nausea, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, vomiting

148
Q

how do you treat fluoride toxicity

A
  1. <5mg/kg give calcium orally; milk, observe for a few hrs
  2. 5-15mg/kg give calcium orally; milk, calcium gluconate, calcium lactate & admit to hospital
  3. > 15mg/kg take to hospital straight away for IV calcium gluconate & cardiac monitoring
149
Q

name 6 types of disability

A
  1. physical - spina bifida, cerebral palsy, arthritis
  2. intellectual - down’s, autism
  3. mental - schizophrenia, dementia, Alzheimer’s
  4. sensory - visually / hearing impaired
  5. emotional - anxiety, depression, bipolar
  6. social - illegal drug use, alcohol abuse, obesity, homelessness, poverty
150
Q

definitions for handicap, disabled & impairment

A

handicap - disadvantage for given individual, resulting from impairment / disability that limits or prevents fulfilment of a role that is normal for that individual
disability - a restriction / lack (resulting in impairment) of ability to perform an activity in a manner or within the range considered normal for a human being; it is concerned with the performance of activities
impairment - any loss of abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function; it is concerned with abnormalities in structure or functioning of the body or its parts

151
Q

how to adapt the surgery & what legislation controls this for disabled people

A

legislation - humans rights act 2000, disability discrimination act 2005, the equality act 2010
adaptations - designated parking close to premises, appropriate sign posting with sensory impairments, ground floor level access, area for wheelchair access, hearing loop in place, handrails for support on step & ramps, wide doors & corridors for wheelchairs, unisex disabled toilet facilities with hoist available, wide clutter free corridors, wheelchair turning circle within surgery layout

152
Q

what is cystic fibrosis

A

inherited autosomal recessive disorder on CFTR gene on chromosome 7 that causes an inherited defect in cell chloride channels which produces excess sticky mucous affecting the lungs & pancreas

153
Q

physical appearance of cystic fibrosis

A

lung congestion & persistent chest infections (staphylococci & pseudomonas), malabsorption by pancreas, failure to thrive, smaller than average, finger clubbing, barrel chested

154
Q

what are the symptoms of cystic fibrosis

A

troublesome cough, repeated chest infections, prolonged diarrhoea, poor weight gain, liver dysfunction, prone to osteoporosis, diabetes symptoms, reduced fertility in males

155
Q

treatment available for cystic fibrosis

A
  • physio; help remove mucous secretions from lungs
  • medication; respiratory: bronchodilators to open airways, antibiotics to reduce chest infection frequency, steroids to reduce airway inflammation, DNase to breakdown mucous & digestive system; pancreatic enzyme replacement, nutritional supplements
  • exercise; necessary to keep lung functional optimal & build physical bulk & strength
  • transplantation; not a cure but can be used in end stage lung disease, 70% survival up to 2yrs, longest survival 12yrs
156
Q

dental aspect of cystic fibrosis (6)

A
  1. delayed dental development
  2. enamel opacities
  3. increased calculus
  4. cannot have GA due to pulmonary involvement
  5. increased bleeding if liver is impaired
  6. tetracycline staining
157
Q

masseter muscle

A

origin = zygomatic arch
insertion = lateral surface of angle of mandible
action = elevates mandible
testing = clench teeth together
nerve supply = masseteric branch of mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

158
Q

temporalis muscle

A

origin = floor of temporal fossa
insertion = coronoid process & anterior border of ramus
action = elevates & retracts mandible
testing = clench teeth together & palpate
nerve supply = deep temporal nerve branches of mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

159
Q

lateral pterygoid muscle

A

origin = lateral surface of lateral pterygoid plate
insertion = anterior border of condyle and intra articular disc via 2 independent heads:
1. inferior belly of lateral pterygoid attaches to the head of the condyle
2. superior belly inserts into the intra articular disc
action = protrudes & laterally deviates the mandible & inferior head functions with the mandibular depressors during opening
testing = cannot test through intra/extra oral exam but can examine response to resisted movement
nerve supply = nerve to lateral pterygoid branch of mandibular division of trigeminal

160
Q

medial pterygoid muscle

A

origin = deep head to medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate & superficial head to tuberosity of maxilla
insertion = medial surface of angle of mandible
action = elevates & assists in protrusion of mandible
testing = cannot test through IO/EO exam
nerve supply = nerve to medial pterygoid of mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

161
Q

what are the types of endodontic lesions with periodontal involvement

A
  1. primary endodontic - non vital tooth, local periodontitis only present
  2. endodontic lesion with periodontal involvement - if suppurating primary endodontic disease remains untreated it may become secondarily involved with periodontal breakdown:
    - plaque forms at gingival margin on sinus tract & leads to plaque induced perio in that area
    - when plaque / calculus is detected the tx & prognosis of tooth are different than those teeth involved with only primary endo as both perio & endo tx required
    - chronic drainage via gingival sulcus will result in root surface being contaminated by plaque & epithelial down growth where endo therapy will not result in complete regeneration of attachment
162
Q

what is dentine hypersensitivity

A

dental pain sharp in character & of short duration, arising from exposed dentine surfaces in response to a stimuli i.e. thermal, tactile, osmotic, chemical, electrical and which cannot be ascribed to any other dental disease. porous enamel / exposed dentine facilitates fluid flow within dentinal tubules to activate A-delta nerve fibres known as the hydrodynamic theory which elicits responses felt by ptx

163
Q

describe reversible pulpitis

A

inflammation that should resolve following appropriate management of aetiology i.e. no RCT
causes - exposed dentine (hypersensitivity), caries, deep restorations
radiography - no significant changes in periapical region of suspected tooth
symptoms - discomfort is experience when a stimulus is applied lasting only a few seconds, pain not spontaneous, pain to cold; lasts a short time, no change in blood flow, hydrodynamic expression; microleakage from a-delta fibres

164
Q

describe chronic periodontitis

A

characterised by destruction of junctional epithelium & CT attachment of tooth together with bone destruction & formation of periodontal pockets, the disease progresses slowly & amount of bone loss tends to reflect the age of the patient over time. generalised affects >30% of teeth

165
Q

describe localised periodontitis

A

same as chronic but affects <30%

166
Q

describe aggressive periodontitis

A

severe condition usually found in younger cohort which may be associated with a family history of aggressive perio; disease progression is rapid with severe destruction of CT attachment & bone considering age of ptx, plaque levels may be inconsistent with level of disease seen

167
Q

what are periodontal lesions with endodontic involvement

A
  1. primary periodontal - generalised periodontitis present, minimally unrestored tooth, usually non vital, combined perio-endo lesion occurs when ptx has not only clinical LoA but also necrotic or partially necrotic pulp
  2. perio lesion with endo involvement - apical progression of perio pocket may continue until apical tissues involved so pulp can become necrotic as a result of infection entering via lateral canals or apical foramen. this results in plaque colonisation of external root surfaces which has limited effect on a normal healthy pulp but pulp necrosis may occur when the perio disease has extended to involved the apical foramen. if blood supply circulating through the apex is intact, the pulp has good prospects of survival; pulpal changes resulting from perio disease are more likely to occur when apical foramen is involved & in these cases, bacteria originating from the perio pocket are the most likely source of root canal infection
168
Q

what is occlusal trauma

A

does not cause perio, causes tooth mobility which is progressively increasing, tooth mobility with associated symptoms & radiographic evidence of an increased PDL width; in combination with plaque induced inflammation this may exacerbate LoA; tx:
- control plaque induced inflammation
- correction of occlusal relations
- splinting of teeth when; mobility is due to advanced LoA, when mobiltiy causing discomfort / difficulty when chewing, when teeth need stabilised for debridement

169
Q

what is a true combined endo & perio lesion

A

usually formed when an endo lesion progresses coronally & joins with an infected periodontal pocket progressing apically meaning the tooth will be non vital & periodontitis will likely be detected in other areas of mouth with clear periapical & alveolar bone loss; it is the coalescence of independently rising endo & perio lesions on the same tooth

170
Q

describe a periodontal abscess

A

localised acute exacerbation of pre-existing pocket (chronic perio) caused by trauma to pocket epithelium or obstruction to pocket entrance
symptoms - pain on biting / constant pain
o/e - swelling adjacent to periodontal pocket, tooth may be TTP, suppuration - discharge through sinus / pocket, more likely to have pain on lateral movement, more likely to have generalised horizontal bone loss
tx - drainage via incision or via pocket with instrumentation to dilate, gentle sub-gingival debridement, hot saline mouthwash, XLA of teeth with poor prognosis, antibiotic use if systemic involvement & may prevent rapid destruction of attachment (amoxicillin / metronidazole)
follow up - HPT, surgery if required, maintenance

171
Q

describe periapical periodontitis

A

can be symptomatic / asymptomatic:
SYMPTOMATIC:
- represents inflammation usually of apical periodontium that extends beyond root canals, can cause resorption & LoA
- may be painful response to biting, palpation or percussion
- may be accompanied by radiographic changes such as periapical radiolucency
- severe pain to percussion is indicative of degenerating pulp & RCT required
ASYMPTOMATIC:
- inflammation & destruction of apical periodontium of pulpal origin
apical migration of junction epithelium
- appears as apical radiolucency & does not present with clinical symptoms; no pain on percussion / palpation
risk factors = plaque accumulation, diabetes, stress

172
Q

how do you classify severity of bone loss seen on radiographs

A
  1. mild = <30% root length i.e. coronal 1/3
  2. moderate = 30-50% root length i.e. mid 1/3
  3. severe = >50% root length i.e. apical 1/3
173
Q

suppurating pocket mid buccal of 46, tooth is non vital & there is no other attachment loss throughout dentition, what is the diagnosis

A

primary endodontic lesion with 2ndary perio involvement;
suppurating primary endo disease remains untreated, plaque forms at gingival margin of sinus tract and leads to plaque induced perio in this area

174
Q

what features of anatomy determine where pus from the pocket is coming from

A

sinus tract - you can place gutta percha cone 25-30mm and pass it into sinus tract which allows it to follow to the point of origin of the endodontic lesion

175
Q

if grade II mobility getting increasingly worse with no LoA, ptx has signs of generalised tooth loss attributed to attrition & radiograph shows widening of PDL what is the diagnosis

A

occlusal trauma as it does not cause periodontitis, it causes tooth mobility which is progressively increasing, associated symptoms & radiographic evidence of increased PDL width which in combination with plaque induced inflammation may exacerbate LoA

176
Q

how would you manage ptx with occlusal trauma

A

tx -
control plaque induced inflammation
correction of occlusal relations
splinting of teeth when:
- mobility is due to advanced LoA
- when mobility is causing discomfort / difficulty when chewing
- when teeth need stabilised for debridement

177
Q

50yr old ptx presents with lightly restored dentition & on examination the BPE is 4 in all quadrants; what is the diagnosis & what further investigations should be made

A

generalised chronic gingivitis:
- plaque & gingivitis charting
- OHI
- removal of supragingival plaque, calculus & staining
- removal of sub-gingival plaque & calculus
- correction of restoration margins
- full periodontal 6PPC of all teeth
- RSD where necessary
- take radiographs of affected areas
- re-evaluation

178
Q

ptx comes into surgery with pain which keeps them awake at night & pain is persistent; what is the diagnosis & how would you manage the pain

A

symptomatic irreversible pulpitis; pulpectomy then RCT / XLA required, antibiotics / analgesics usually have no effect

179
Q

what 2 things are required for accurately mounting study casts on an articulator

A
  1. jaw reg
  2. occlusal rims - setting upper teeth to wax rim & set lower to uppers in RCP
180
Q

what is the relevance of FWS in complete denture construction

A

FWS = RVD-OVD which is ideally around 2-4mm
if FWS is negative / reduced due to increase in OVD it will cause the dentures to click
if teeth contact during speech there is not enough inter-occlusal space which means the OVD needs reduced to give more FWS

181
Q

what is the main way to reduce HAIs

A

using standard infection control precautions (SICPs) are the basic infection prevention & control measures necessary to reduce the risk of transmission of infectious agents from both recognised & unrecognised sources of infection

182
Q

name all 10 SICPs

A
  1. patient placement / assessment for infection risk
  2. hand hygiene
  3. respiratory & cough hygiene
  4. PPE
  5. safe management of care equipment
  6. safe management of care environment
  7. safe management of linen
  8. safe management of blood & bodily fluid spillages
  9. safe disposal of waste inc sharps
  10. occupational safety; prevention & exposure management inc sharps
183
Q

name solution used to clean a blood spillage

A

actichlor plus (sodium hypochlorite) - 10,000ppm for 3-5mins

184
Q

what is the chain of infection

A
  1. infectious agent (bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites)
  2. reservoir (dirty surfaces & equipment, people, animals)
  3. portal of exit (open wounds, skin, aerosols, splatter of fluids)
  4. mode of transmission (contact, ingestion, inhalation)
  5. portal of entry (broken skin/incisions, mucous membranes)
  6. susceptible host (elderly, immunocompromised more likely)
185
Q

how is the chain of infection broken for contaminated forceps

A

chain is broken at the reservoir where there dirty contaminated forceps
should break the chain by cleaning, disinfecting & sterilising instrument prior to use

186
Q

what is the highest level of evidence study

A

cochrane reviews which are systematic assessments of all the relevant randomised controlled trials (RCTs) which give the highest level of evidence

187
Q

what are the advantages of a cochrane review

A
  1. randomisation reduces bias & and be double blind studies
  2. gold standard for comparing the effectiveness of one treatment to another
  3. control group comparability to no treatment
188
Q

how can you confirm if results are statistically significant with regards to confidence intervals & p values

A
  1. when confidence limit does not overlap 1 - statistically significant
  2. if P value is less than 0.05 - statistically significant
189
Q

what is relative risk

A

it is the ratio of incidence in exposed groups to incidence rates in non exposed groups
it is the measurement of proportionate increase in disease rates of exposed groups
it makes allowance for frequency of disease amongst people not exposed to harmful agents

190
Q

what other types of studies other than cochrane review & RCT

A
  1. cohort studies - prospective studies which recruit groups of people who have no manifested the disease at time of recruitment & assess risk factors, individuals in this study are observed over a period of time to measure frequency of occurrence of disease among people exposed to risk factors & people not exposed to risk factor
  2. case control study - a retrospective study which compares individuals with disease (cases) to those without disease (controls) and then you trace back to assess risk factor through past histories & exposure to suspected harmful agents compared, these are less robust than cohort studies but they may be used for preliminary investigations of hypothesis followed by cohort if possible, controls should be random sample of population from which cases are selected
191
Q

suggest a study & example, give 4 features

A

randomised double blind placebo controlled study to investigate dimethyl fumarate (tecfidera) on annual relapserate, progression of disability & MRI findings in RRMS ptx. features:
1. randomised double blind reducing bias of results which meant ptx were unaware of which treatment they were receiving & were randomly selected into the 2 groups
2. compares one tx over placebo to investigate it there is any statistically significant results from use of tecfidera
3. randomisation of these studies facilitates statistical analysis
4. follow up over 2 years which will give increased results for analysing
5. rely on volunteers and would want large volunteer group who haven’t’ been on any prior DMDs
to carry out one of the key features:
making a key eligibility criterion to ensure there is a large volunteer group who have RRMS but haven’t been on previous DMDs =
- age group 18-55
- diagnosis of RRMS by McDonald Criteria
- baselines score of 0-5 on expanded disability status scale (EDSS)
- no previous DMD tx for RRMS
- radiographic evidence of relapse in last year

192
Q

what are the normal dental & occlusal features you would expect to find in a 10yr old

A

dental -
teeth erupted, absence of crowding / spacing, good alignment, incisors of average inclination, Cs & Ds may be mobile or exfoliated, may have midline diastema with distally tipped central & lateral incisors as normal development feature due to position of upper Es relative to 3s roots = ugly duckling stage, canines palpable buccally, tooth wear on deciduous teeth
occlusal -
incisors class I = normal to have OJ & OB, molars tend to be slight class II due to relatively large size of lower Es, there should be no cross bite

193
Q

clinical features present in primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  • painful swelling of mandible
  • renal stones
  • bone pain elsewhere
  • polydipsia / polyuria
  • peptic ulceration pain
194
Q

radiographic features present in primary hyperparathyroidism (4)

A
  1. generalised osteoporosis
  2. loss of lamina dura
  3. sub-periosteal resorption in fingers & resorption in terminal phalanges
  4. multiple bone cysts
195
Q

what abnormal biochemical results would you expect from primary hyperparathyroidism (5)

A
  1. calcium raised
  2. phosphate & alkaline phosphatase may be raised
  3. hypercalciuria (calcium in urine)
  4. parathyroid hormone (PTH) raised
  5. vit D levels reduced
196
Q

what are the main complications of primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  1. irreversible renal damage
  2. pathological features
197
Q

what treatment is indicated for primary hyperparathyroidism

A
  1. parathyroidectomy
  2. vit D supplementation
198
Q

during routine tx, ptx develops chest pain which is central & crushing & radiates to arm
a) what is the most likely diagnosis
b) what should you do

A

a) possibly myocardial infarction
b) priority is to transfer ptx to hospital as an emergency, give 300mg crushed aspirin, reassure ptx & loosen any tight clothing, call ambulance, initiate BLS using 100% oxygen at 15L/min, use of defibrillator until ambulance arrives if in cardiac arrest begins

199
Q

ratio of compressions to ventilations in BLS & how long for

A

30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths using bag valve mask
until ambulance arrives while using both CPR & defib if ptx has shockable rhythm ( ventricular fibrillation & pulseless ventricular tachycardia)

200
Q

emergency drugs essential for every dental practice (5)

A
  1. adrenaline IM injections (1:1000, 1mg/ml)
  2. aspirin dispersible (300mg)
  3. glucagon IM injection (1mg)
  4. glyceryl trinitrate GTN spray (400ug/dose)
  5. midazolam IM injection (5mg/ml, 2ml ampoules)
201
Q

pieces of equipment essential for every dental practice (5)

A
  1. oxygen cylinder with bag valve mask
  2. single use sterile needles
  3. automated external defib (AED)
  4. portable powered suction machine with appropriate suction tips & tubing
  5. oro-pharyngeal airways adjuvants for adults & children
202
Q

what 4 factors cause tooth mobility

A
  1. dental trauma
  2. periodontitis causing LoA
  3. malocclusions
  4. inflammation of tissues supporting teeth e.g. periapical abscess
203
Q

when would you intervene with tooth mobility

A

splint teeth when:
- mobility due to advanced LoA
- mobility is causing discomfort / difficulty chewing
- teeth need stabilised for debridement
when trauma has occurred & requires stabilisation & correct of occlusal relations to prevent pain / loss of tooth etc
when tooth has periapical pathologies & possible pulpal involvement it may require RCT/XLA

204
Q

if ptx has moderate advanced perio with successful HPT, would the mobility increase or decrease and why

A

mobility can increase after successful HPT as all calculus deposits that may have been giving tooth some support would now be removed
also due to advanced perio there would already be evidence of tooth mobility with obvious radiographic bone loss which cannot be replenished even after HPT

205
Q

ptx has mobile lower incisors which are annoying / causing discomfort, ptx refuses XLA & there is horizontal bone loss on radiograph, what would you advise

A
  • best option due to horizontal bone loss present would be XLA with immediate partial denture fitted then possibility of bridge after 6mths once XLA sockets have healed
  • it ptx is adamant they won’t have teeth removed then carry out HPT steps & possibly splint teeth to prevent discomfort & difficulty eating but over time this will fail & if oral hygiene is not kept up to standard the bone loss will progress & eventually teeth would fall out on their own
  • ptx needs to be made aware that they don’t want to end up in pain & is any periapical / periodontal pathologies arise then it wouldn’t be beneficial to RCT & would need XLA
206
Q

aims for retracting a flap

A
  • wide based incision for circulation
  • use of scalpel in 1 firm continuous stroke with no sharp angles
  • adequate sized flap as large flaps heal just as quickly as smaller ones
  • flap reflection should be down to bone & done cleanly to minimise trauma to dental papilla
  • should be no crushing of tissues & keep tissues moist
  • ensure flap margins & sutures will lie on bone
  • make sure wounds are not closed under tension
  • aim for healing by primary intention to minimise scarring
207
Q

what factors influence design of flap

A
  1. type of surgery being carried out i.e. retrieval of # roots, surgical XLA, apical lesions, periradicular surgery, OAC/OAF, apex removal
  2. proximity of important structures such as nerves & muscles - lingual nerve can be damaged during surgical removal of lower 3rd molars
  3. area of mouth - design can be influenced if area of aesthetics, if there is a narrow ridge bone augmentation may be required so wide flap designs should be utilised
208
Q

what instruments are used to remove bone

A

use of electric straight handpiece with a saline cooled bur:
- round or fissure tungsten carbide bur should be used
- air driven hand piece may lead to surgical emphysema so use electric

209
Q

how do you carry out debridement prior to suturing (3)

A
  1. physical debridement - bone file / handpieces used to remove sharp bony edges, Mitchell’s trimmer / Victoria curette used to remove soft tissue debris
  2. irrigation - sterile saline / water put into socket & under flap to flush out any debris
  3. suction - aspirate under flap to remove debris, check socket for retained apices etc
210
Q

ptx has suspected bleeding disorder; what 3 blood tests would you ask for

A
  1. FBC - haematology
  2. coagulation screen - prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT), activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), APTT ratio, INR, fibrinogen
  3. thrombophilia & haemophilia factor screen
211
Q

name a disorder of platelet numbers

A

thrombocytopenia - condition characterised by abnormally low levels of thrombocytes (platelets) in blood; diagnosed when below normal lower limit of 150x10 to 9/L

212
Q

what LA technique can be used on ptx with bleeding disorders

A

all techniques except lingual infiltrations & IDB

213
Q

what are the ideal INR values for oral surgery

A

INR = 1 ; level of coagulation equivalent to an average person not on warfarin but INR > 1 indicates long clotting time and so longer bleeding time. these should be checked 72hrs prior to oral surgery
INR < 4 = allows for tx to occur without interrupting anti coag medicine, safest between 1.5-2.5

214
Q

LA technique for warfarin ptx

A

infiltrations (except lingual), intraligamentary or mental nerve blocks are best used
if no alternative & IDB needs to be used, the injection should be administered slowly using aspirating technique

215
Q

2 safety features of amalgam containers

A
  1. rigid waste bin containers with suppressant & screw top lids to prevent mercury vapour from seeping into atmosphere
  2. clearly labelled with amalgam & have a red lid & white body to easily differentiate from other bin types for waste which are usually yellow bodied
216
Q

what is the licence regarding disposal of amalgam & how long should it be kept

A

the consignment note which should be kept for at least 3 years

217
Q

3 forms of candida

A
  1. pseudomembranous i.e. thrush
  2. erythematous i.e. atrophic (HIV related), denture related, candida leucoplakia
  3. hyperplastic i.e. angular cheilitis
218
Q

main antifungal medications used

A
  1. systemic oral azoles - fluconazole, miconazole, itraconazole
  2. topical polyenes & echinocandins - nystatin (polyene), caspofungin (echinocandin) these are active & resistance is rare
219
Q

mode of action of anti fungals

A

Azole mode of action (Fluconazole, Miconazole):
— Azoles mechanism of action is the inhibition of cytochrome P450- dependent enzymes (particularly 14ademethylase) which is involved in the biosynthesis of ergosterol, which is required for fungal cell membrane
structure and function.
— Ensure that Miconazole is not prescribes for patients
taking warfarin or statins
- Polyene mode of action (Nystatin):
— These interact with fungal membrane sterols physiochemically. They bind to ergosterol in the fungal cell
membrane which weakens it, causing leakage of
potassium and sodium ions which may contribute to
fungal cell death.
- Echinocandin (Caspofungin):
— New class of antifungal drugs that inhibit the synthesis
of glucan in the cell wall, via non-competitive inhibition
of the enzyme 1,3-Beta-glucan synthase which the
yeast requires to survive

220
Q

2 mechanisms that make candida resistant

A
  1. azole resistance:
    - decreased drug conc; The development of active efflux pumps results in decreased drug concentrations at the site of action. Efflux pumps encoded in candida species
    become overexpressed and upregulated especially MDR1 in azole resistant candida albicans
    - target site alteration; It had been found that mutations in ERG11
    which encodes the target enzyme lanosterol
    C12-alpha-demethylase prevents binding of
    azoles to the enzymatic site.
  2. polyene resistance - Polyene resistant candida isolates have relatively low
    ergosterol content which is thought to be due to a
    defect in the ERG3 gene involved in ergosterol
    biosynthesis
  3. enchocandin resistance - In candida sp, secondary resistance is associated with
    point mutations in the Fks1 gene of the beta-1,3-Dglucan synthase complex
221
Q

name another species of candida rather than albicans & how they differ

A

candida glabrata
This is a non-dimorphic species of yeast as no mating is
observed compared to C. albicans which is dimorphic
— Highly opportunistic pathogen in the urogenital tract
and bloodstream of immunocompromised patients
where as C. albicans is part of the normal human gut
flora.
— Nystatin is the first line treatment for C. Glabrata
infections whereas fluconazole is generally used in C.
albicans infections

222
Q

before prescribing f- mouthrinse what should you check

A
  • age of child as they must be 6+
  • check if they are on any other fluoride supplements
  • ensure ptx has ability to spit & not swallow
223
Q

difference in conventional vs post & crown

A

Conventional:
— Used when there is sufficient tooth crown tissue left to
place a conventional crown on top
— Much stronger type of crown as no preparation is
required of the root canals for a post
- Post and core:
— Used when there is significant loss of crown tooth
tissue so a core is used t gain intraradicular support for
a definitive coronal restoration such as retention for a
crown and the post then retains the core holding onto
the coronal restoration
— Root canal preparations for a post will weaken the
tooth

224
Q

function of post

A

will retain core by holding on to coronal restoration

225
Q

2 materials for core & post

A

post - metals (gold, SS, brass, titanium), ceramics (alumina or zirconia), fibre (glass, quartz, carbon)
core - composite, amalgam, GI

226
Q

3 ways to detemine post lengths

A
  1. customs posts - cast directly from pattern fabricated in a patient’s mouth as an impression of the pot hole & wax up of post in lab occurs
  2. post placement - 4-5mm of root filling should be left apically which should be known from CWL and post takes up rest of canal
  3. sufficient alveolar bone support - at least 1/2 of post length must go into root, maximum of 1;1 post length / crown height ratio
227
Q

problems associated with posts that are inserted into canals that are too wide or too narrow

A

narrow - risk of perforation dur to thin / tapering & narrow roots
wide - requires further prep which weakens tooth
general issues - perforations, core fractures, root fractures or cracks, post fracture, post removal required which is difficult as significant pressure has to be applied

228
Q

general health effects of smoking (6)

A

Narrows the arteries and increases atherosclerosis
- Increased risk of stroke
- Increased chest infections, COPD, bronchitis, emphysema and
lung cancer
- Increased stomach ulcers and stomach cancer
- Increased risk of CHD and heart attacks
- Can cause macular degeneration and peripheral vascular
disease

229
Q

oral health effects of smoking

A

Increased risk of oral cancer (2-4x higher risk)
- Increase in periodontal disease, alveolar bone loss, attachment
loss and pocket formation
- Increased risk of dry socket after dental extractions
- Bad breath (halitosis) and xerostomia
- Staining of teeth and restorations
- Black hair tongue and nicotine stomatitis

230
Q

health promotion approaches in scotland that have reduced smoking

A
  • Age of purchase increasing from 16 to 18
  • Plain packaging of tobacco with health warnings on the packet
    which are no longer visibly on sale
  • Vending machines stopped selling cigarettes
  • Public smoking ban in 2006
231
Q

approaches to smoking cessation that can be used in dental practice

A
  • 5As (brief cessation):
    — Ask your patient
    — Advise your patient
    — Assess your patient
    — Assist your patient
    — Arrange a follow up for your patient
  • Alternative model - Ask advice and refer (2As and 1R):
    — Ask your patient about smoking
    — Advise your patient about smoking
    — Refer to stop smoking services which varies locally with
    group therapy or one-to-one
  • ABC (brief);
    — Ask your patient about smoking
    — Brief advice to quit given to your patient
    — Cessation support for those who want to quit
  • SCAPE 30 second approach (very brief):
    — Smoking Cessation Action in Primary carE
232
Q

crown prep for MCC incisors - incisal surface, labial surface & palatal surface

A

Incisal surface:
i. What is the margin design and reductions?
- 1.5-2mm reduction to accommodate porcelain and metal
b. Labial surface:
i. What is the margin design and reductions?
- 1-1.5mm reduction extending into gingival sulcus
- Labial shoulder used
ii. What are the benefits of the margin design?
- Rounds the angles and allows for resistance and retention for
the crown
- Technique preserves tooth surface which avoids weakening
the tooth structure and damaging the pulp
c. Palatal surface:
i. What is the margin design and reduction?
- 1-1.5mm reduction following contour of incisor tooth
- Palatal chamfer used (palatal chamfer for all ceramic crown)
ii. What are the benefits of the margin design?
- Rounds the angles and allows for resistance and retention for
the crown
- Technique preserves tooth surface which avoids weakening
the tooth structure and daring the pulp.
- It also keep marginal integrity to accommodate a robust
margin with close adaption to minimise microleakage

233
Q

properties of impression material suitable for crown prep

A
  • Sectional impression technique:
    — Addition cured silicone putty (president):
    i. Can be disinfected and kept by the patient or
    clinic and can be re-used which is very
    beneficial if the crown is ever lost or broken.
    ii. Resistant to tearing when removing from
    undercut areas.
    — Alginate:
    i. Cheaper to use but cannot be kept or reused
    ii. Elastic material so flows into undercuts
    iii. Usually used for diagnostic wax-ups
    — Softened modelling wax:
    i. Easy to adjust and smooth and is cheap to use
    ii. It is unsuitable for deep undercuts as it distorts
    and cannot be reduced
234
Q

what types of custom tray & spacer used in full dentures

A
  • Alginate use for special trays should have 3mm spacer
  • Silicone/polyether use for special trays should have 2mm for
    upper and 0.5-1mm spacers for lowers
  • Upper trays should have stops to the space prescribed in the
    canine and post dam regions which will allow accurate
    correction of the posterior borders of the tray and will
    perform space for the impression material.
  • Lower trays should have stops to the space prescribed on the
    retro-molar pad and on the ridge in the canine areas. This will
    allow preformed space for the impression material
235
Q

what IM is used for full denture primary imps & why

A
  • Usually alginate is used as it is an elastic materials so flows into
    undercut areas. It gives an accurate record of surface detail for
    impressions and is cheap and easy to use.
236
Q

what IM is not used for full denture primary imps & why

A

Silicone is dimensionally stable and is hydrophobic so can
cause small defects and blows. It is generally only used for
master impressions and not for the production of special trays
as it is very messy and technique sensitive

237
Q

what 2 areas of primary support are on the maxilla

A

hard palate & residual ridge

238
Q

area of support on mandibular arch & what muscle lies adjacent to it

A
  • Retro-molar pad
  • Muscles that lie next to it are:
    — Laterally buccinator
    — Posteriorly temporalis tendon
    — Medically superior constrictor and the
    pterygomandibular raphe
239
Q

what part of mandible may interfere with maxillary impression within tuberosity regions during lateral excursion when taking a functional impression

A

It can interfere with the location of the occlusal plane and
reduce the space available for the denture in the retro-molar
pad region.

240
Q

6 links in chain of infection

A
  • Infectious agent
  • Reservoirs
  • Portal of exit
  • Means of transmission
  • Portal of entry
  • Susceptible host
241
Q

2 ways to break chain of infection

A

Break at portal of exit:
— Ensuring hand hygiene is always performed
— PPE is worn
— Respiratory etiquette
— Control of aerosols and splatter
- Break at mode of transmission:
— Ensuring hand hygiene is always performed
— PPE is worm
— Food safety
— Isolation of personals affected
— Cleaning, disinfection and sterilisation

242
Q

how to determine if impression is suitable

A
  • There should be a good peripheral seal
  • Should have adequate surface detail recorded
  • Complete reproduction of prepared margins without voids
    present
  • No air blows present or distortion
  • No tears when removing if there are undercuts present
243
Q

4 potential faults & why in impression

A
  • Impression becomes distorted:
    — not dimensionally accurate or stable
    — Alginate too stiff so the impression has lumpy
    appearance
    — Alginate tearing away from the tray
  • Insufficient depth in the lingual, labial or buccal sulcus:
    — due to lack of Impression material
    — Using low pressure to seat the tray
    — Material is too cold and can’t flow
  • Incomplete reproduction of preparation margins:
    — Insufficient retraction used
    — Blood and saliva present around the presentation
    which should have been cleaned
    — Working time exceeded, flowability becomes impaired
  • Void on the margins:
    — Blood and saliva contamination around preparation
    — Improper syringe technique
    — Working time exceeded, flowability becomes impaired
    — Air bubble in elastomer syringe
    — Tray not seated properly
244
Q

how to decontaminate impression

A
  • Rinse under the tap to remove gross debris and saliva
  • Place in perform for 10 minutes then re-rinse and place in bag
    covered in a wet paper towel to prevent the impression from
    drying out
  • Fill out lab prescription ensuring it has been ticked that it has
    been disinfected and send to lab
  • Perform contains:
    — Potassium periximono sulphate
    — Sodium benzate
    — Tartanic acid
    — An ionic surfactants
    — Non-ionic surfactants
    — Soap and phosphanate
245
Q

what is hanau’s quint (5 factors affecting occlusal balanced articulation)

A
  • The saggital condylar guidance angle
  • The inclination of the occlusal plane
  • Compensating curves
  • The cusp height
  • The Incisal guidance angle
246
Q

name ideal features of CaOH & why it is a good medicament

A
  • It has bactericidal and bacteriostatic properties
  • It has a high pH making it alkaline which:
    — stimulates fibroblasts for reparative dentine formation
    — Stimulates recalcification of demineralised dentine by
    stimulating pulpal cells
    — Neutralises low pH from acidic restorative materials
  • They adhere directly to the dentine rather than the restorative
    material
  • It is thin which means it won’t reduce the strength of the
    restorative material
  • It won’t dissolve in biological liquids
247
Q

3 reasons to obturate

A
  1. inhibits bacterial growth
  2. can be easily removed
  3. seals canals laterally & apically
248
Q

ideal properties of sealer

A
  • Exhibits tackiness to provide good adhesion
  • Establishes a hermetic seal
  • Radiopacity
  • No shrinkage on setting
  • Non-staining
  • Bacteriostatic
  • Slow setting
  • Insoluble in tissue fluids
  • Tissue tolerant
  • Soluble on re-treatment
  • Easily mixed
249
Q

constituents of GP

A
  • 20% gutta percha
  • 65% zinc oxide
  • 10% radio-pacifiers
  • 5% plasticisers
250
Q

problems associated with tooth whitening

A
  • Sensitivity:
    — Common in 60% of patients
    — Worse initially then resolves over 2-3 days post
    bleaching
  • Wears off-relapse:
    — Oxidised chromosomes gradually reduce with time
    — Retreatment required every 1-3 years
  • Cytotoxicity/multiagency:
    — High concentration of hydrogen peroxide causes
    problems
    — No evidence for 10% carbamine peroxide
  • Gingival irritation:
    — Related to concentration used – worse with higher
    concentrations
    — Must check tray extension is correct
  • Problems with binding to teeth:
    — Residual oxygen from the peroxide remains within the
    enamel structure initially but gradually dissipates over
    a short time
    — Restorative procedures should be delayed for at least
    24 hours-1 week post bleaching
251
Q

predisposing factors for experiencing sensitivity when tooth whitening

A
  • Pre-existing sensitivity
  • High concentration of bleaching agent used
  • Frequency of use
  • Bleaching method – less likely at home than in office
  • Gingival recession
252
Q

what is capacity & what acts cover capacity in england & scotland

A
  • Capacity means the ability to use and understand information
    to make an informed decision, and communicate any decision
    made.
  • A person lacks capacity if their mind is impaired or disturbed in
    some way and this mans the person is unable to make a
    decision at that point in Time
    1. adults with incapacity act (scotland) 2000
    2. mental capacity act (england & wales) 2005
253
Q

signs of parkinson’s

A
  • Bradykinesia – slow movement
  • Rigidity
  • Resting tremor
  • Postural instability
  • Gradual symptom progression
  • Mask like face
254
Q

how does parkinson’s differ from cerebral palsy

A
  • Parkinson’s typically presents with intention tremors and
    Parkinsonism tremor at rest:
    — Intention tremor is present when tremor amplitude
    increases during visually guided movements towards a
    target at the termination of movement
  • Ataxia Cerebral palsy typically presents with action intentional
    tremors which is especially apparent when carrying out precise
    movements.
255
Q

causes of dry mouth

A

Medications and polypharmacy:
— Tricyclics antidepressants – amitriptyline
— Anti-psychotics – phenothiazine
— Benzodiazepines – diazepam
— Anti-cholinergic – atropine
— Beta blockers – atenolol
— Antihistamines – cetirizine
- Medical treatments:
— Radiotherapy and chemotherapy
- Medical conditions:
— Parkinson’s disease
— Rheumatoid arthritis
— Undiagnosed diabetes
— Sjorgen’s syndrome
— Neurological disorders
— Cystic fibrosis

256
Q

tx for dry mouth

A
  • Stimulation of salivary glands:
    — With chewing sugar free gum/sweets
  • Supplementation or provide a substitute for saliva:
    — Oral lubricants
  • Management:
    — Taking frequent sips of water
    — Moisten food when eating with water or sauces
    — Avoid mouthwashes that contain alcohol
    — Suck on ice chips/cubes
    — Avoid dry hard food
    — Avoid drinks containing alcohol or caffeine
257
Q

name positioning faults & what would occur on radiograph

A
  • Speed of beam through the teeth and image receptor through
    the beam must be synchronised to produce an accurate image
  • Patients canine behind the canine guide line which means it is
    closer to the x-ray source than the machine expects. This
    causes the speed of the beam to be slower through the teeth
    as it is closer to the rotation centre. If not compensated, the
    image receptor will be too fast and the image will be
    magnified horizontally.
  • Patients canine in front of the canine guide line means it is
    further from the x-ray source than the machine expects. This
    causes the speed of the beam to be faster through the teeth
    as it is further from the rotation centre. If not compensated
    the image receptor will be too slow and the image of teeth will
    be reduced in width horizontally.
258
Q

causes of unerupted central incisor

A
  1. supernumerary tooth
  2. dilaceration caused by trauma
259
Q

how to treat unerupted tooth

A
  • Surgical exposure
  • Removal of supernumerary if there is one present
  • Binding using gold chain
  • Orthodontic traction used if over age of 9
  • Fixed appliance use
  • Bonded retainer
260
Q

5 main ortho principles

A
  • Improve function:
    — Anterior cross bite or anterior open bite CNS make it
    difficult to incise food
  • To facilitate other dental treatment:
    — Rearrange spaces in hypodontia cases prior to bridges
    or implants
  • Improve appearance and aesthetics
  • Improve dental health as the teeth become more easy to clean
  • Reduce risk of trauma
261
Q

types of radiographs taken for children

A
  • Bitewings:
    — For small proximal cavities, monitoring, occult caries,
    furcation pathology and restoration margin integrity
  • OPT:
    — For poor cooperating children and when caries is more
    than minimal
    — Delayed development cases
  • Maxillary occlusal:
    — trauma cases
  • Periapicals:
    — Trauma, periapical pathologies, fracture etc.
262
Q

order of paediatric treatment

A
  • Restoration sequences:
    — Fluoride varnish
    — Fissure sealants
    — Preventative restorations (GI)
    — Simple fillings e.g. shallow cervical cavities
    — Restorations requiring LA but not into the pulp
    — Pulpotomy (upper arch first)
    — Extractions under LA or GA
  • Preventative programme:
    — Radiographs
    — Tooth brushing instruction
    — Strength of fluoride in toothpaste advice
    — Fluoride varnish
    — Fluoride supplementation
    — Diet advice
    — Fissure sealants
    — Sugar free medication
263
Q

why carry out HPT before surgical procedures

A
  • The aim of HPT is to:
    — Arrest the disease process
    — Regenerate lost tissue
    — Maintain periodontal health long term
    — Prevent extractions
    — Preservation of functional dentition for life
  • HPT allows evaluation of the patients motivation and plaque
    control while improving soft tissue consistent for easier
    surgical management.
  • Some Deep pockets that may be present can heal after HPT
    meaning surgical intervention may not be required.
  • It is essential to carry out HPT prior to surgical procedures to
    ensure that the patient can maintain good oral hygiene as any
    surgical or restorative treatments carried out before HPT
    would have a greater risk of failure when oral hygiene is poor
264
Q

why should perio surgery be carried out

A
  • The indications for periodontal surgery are:
    — At re-evaluation at least 4-6 weeks after completion of
    non-surgical phase is there is pockets of 5mm or
    greater that exist in the presence of excellent oral
    hygiene.
  • The aims of periodontal surgery are:
    — To arrest the disease by gaining access to complete
    root surface debridement and to regenerate lost
    periodontal tissues.
265
Q

what is the review period post perio surgery

A
  • Re-evaluation at 4-6 as you don’t want to be probing tissues
    that are in the process of healing and repairing
  • Sutures may be required to be removed after 1 week
266
Q

what should GDP check when reviewing ptx with previous surgical RSD

A
  • Poor oral hygiene with persistent inflammation:
    — Supportive care or repeat cause related therapies
  • Good oral hygiene with inflammation resolved:
    — Supportive care and proceed with treatment plan
  • Good oral hygiene with persistent deep pockets with bleeding
    on probing:
    — Surgical access or repeat SRP, then re-evaluate
267
Q

what is dry socket called

A

localised / alveolar osteitis
it is inflammation affecting the lamina dura which causes dry socket; this is when the blood clot at the site of XLA has failed to develop / dislodges / dissolves before the wound has fully healed; usually isn’t associated with infection

268
Q

who does dry socket more commonly affect

A

Affects 2-3% of all extractions
- 20-35% of lower 8 extractions
- Predisposing factors:
— Molars are more common – risk is increased from
anterior to posterior
— Mandible is more common than maxilla
— Smoking increases risk due to reduced blood supply
— More common in females than in males
— Oral contraceptive pill can increase risk
— Excessive trauma during extraction procedure
— Excessive mouth rinsing post extraction which washes
the clot away
— Family history of previous dry sockets

269
Q

signs & symptoms of dry socket

A
  • Signs:
    — Often begins 3-4days after extraction and can take 7-14
    days to resolve
    — No blood clot present in the extraction socket
  • Symptoms:
    — Moderate to severe dull aching pain
    — Pain that keeps the patient awake at night
    — Pain that throbs and can radiate to the patients ear
    — Exposed bone is sensitive and is the source of pain
    — Characteristic smell/bad odour (halitosis) with patient
    complaining of bad taste
270
Q

how do we manage a dry socket

A
  • Supportive:
    — Reassurance and use systemic preemptive analgesia
    — Give the patient information on dry sockets
  • Can give LA block to relive severe pain
  • Irrigate the socket with warm saline to wash put food and
    debris
  • Curettage/debridement:
    — Encourage bleeding and new clot formation
  • Use whiteshead varnish pack (WHVP) or Alvogyl:
    — WHVP is ribbon gauze socked in WHVP often sutured
    into the pocket which will need removed
    — Alvogyl is a mixture of LA and antiseptic (ensure patient
    doesn’t have an iodine allergy)
  • Advise patient on analgesia and hot salty mouthwashes or
    chlorhexidine use
271
Q

why do we remove air from process of ultrasonic washing

A

Degassing must occur, if we leave added oxygen/air in
the water this inhibits cavitation and a different bubble
is formed with less intensity
— Without degassing the cleaner would be less effective

272
Q

how often should degassing occur

A

Always run an air purge (degassing) cycle after filling the
ultrasonic in the morning to remove air and oxygen from
water before cleaning

273
Q

sterilised v sterile

A

Sterilised:
— When something has went through a process of
becoming free from bacteria and all other living
microorganisms.
- Sterile:
— An object that is free from all microorganisms

274
Q

peri operative XLA complications

A

Difficulty of access due to:
— Trismus – limited mouth opening
— Reduced aperture of the mouth
— Crowded and malpositioned teeth
- Abnormal resistance:
— Thick cortical bone
— Shape/form of roots – divergent/hooked roots
— Number of roots
— Hypercementosis
— Ankylosis
- Fractures:
— Teeth fractures of crown and/or root
— Alveolar/tuberosity
— Jaw fractures
— Alveolar plate
- Root problems:
— Fused
— Convergent/divergent roots
— Extra roots
— Morphology of the roots different
— Hypercementosis
— Ankylosis
- Involvement of the maxillary antrum:
— Oro-antral fistula/communication (OAC/OAF)
— Loss of root into antrum
— Fractured tuberosity
- Loss of tooth
- Soft tissue damage
- Damage to nerves and vessels:
— Crushing injuries
— Cutting/shredding injuries
— Transaction
— Damage from surgery or damage from LA
- Haemorrhage:
— Due to damage of veins (bleeding), arteries (spurting,
haemorrhaging), arterioles (spurting/pulsating bleed)
- Dislocation of TMJ
- Damage to adjacent teeth and restorations:
— Hitting opposing teeth with forceps
— Cracking/fracturing or moving adjacent teeth with
elevators
— Cracking/fracturing/removing restorations, crown,
bridges on adjacent teeth
- Extractions of permanent tooth germ:
— When removing deciduous molars there can be
damage or extraction of the developing permanent
premolars
- Wrong tooth extracted

275
Q

describe position of mental nerve & tissues that supply it

A
  • The mental foramen is located on the anterior surface of the
    mandible. It transmits the terminal branches of the interior
    alveolar nerve and mental artery.
  • It is located roughly between the 1st and 2nd premolars on the
    mandible
  • It provides sensory innervation to the buccal soft tissue
    anterior to the mental foramen, lip and the chin and the
    anterior teeth on that side of the arch
276
Q

3 types of surgical flap and what they are used for

A
  1. triangular 3 sided flap for retained single roots
  2. envelope 2 sided flap for retained 2 rooted teeth
  3. semilunar 1 sided flap used for periapical involvement
277
Q

4 different types of diabetes

A

Types 1 diabetes mellitus:
— Results from the pancreas’s failure to produce enough
insulin due to the loss of insulin producing beta cells of
the islets of Langerhans which leads to insulin
deficiency.
— Most commonly associated with juvenile onset
- Type 2 diabetes mellitus:
— Condition that begins with insulin resistance where the
pancreatic cells fail to respond to insulin properly.
— Most commonly associated with excessive body weight
and insufficient exercise
- Gestational diabetes:
— Occurs in pregnant women due who develop high
blood sugar levels during pregnancy
- Diabetes insipidus:
— Is a condition characterised by large amounts of dilute
urine and thrust due to lack of the hormone
vasopressin (ADH) which dan be caused due to damage
to the hypothalamus, pituitary gland or genetics.

278
Q

how do you test for diabetes

A

Blood glucose levels:
— Normal 3.5-5.5mmol/l; diabetic 4-7mmol/l before
meals
— Normal less than 8mmol/l; 5-9mmol 2 hours after
meals
- Urine testing
- HbA1c 3 monthly:
— Adults with diabetes target is below 4rmmol/l

279
Q

who is involved in multi disciplinary team for cancer tx

A

Oncologist Surgeon/consultant
- Radiotherapist (radiation oncologist)
- Chemotherapist (medical oncologist)
- Clinical nurse specialist
- Radiologist
- Others as indicated by the cancer type (gynaecologist;
urologist)
- GDP
- Maxillofacial surgeon (oral cancer)

280
Q

side effects of radiotherapy

A

General tiredness
- Burns – clothing/shaving/sunlight issues
— May leave permanent pigmentation and telangiectasia
(spider veins)
- Hair loss in the treatment area
- Dry mouth/taste loss if head and neck radiotherapy
- Menopause induction in premenopausal women if in
pelvic/abdominal area
- Risk of osteoradionecrosis if head and neck involvement

281
Q

side effects of chemotherapy

A
  • Rapidly diving cells are killed:
    — Hair loss
    — Oral ulceration
    — Bone marrow suppression – reduction in WBC and
    platelets
  • Damage to DNA of remaining cells:
    — Risk of lager cancers
    — Damage to fertility
    — Induction of menopause
  • Drug specific effects:
    — Taste loss/drug mouth
    — Nephrotoxicity can occur
282
Q

what is gypsum

A
  • Gypsum plaster is calcium sulfate dihydrate which is used to
    cast a positive replica of an oral cavity.
  • Type 1 plaster/impression plaster is used in making primary
    impressions of edentulous oral cavity in complete denture
    fabrication.
  • Type III dental stone is an alpha form of calcium sulfate
    hemihydrate which is used to make master casts
283
Q

describe hanau’s quint

A
  • It is the inter relationship of 5 factors in order to maintain a
    balanced occlusion:
    — The saggital condylar guidance angle
    — The inclination of the occlusal plane
    — Compensating curves
    — The cusp height
    — The incisal guidance angle
284
Q

measurements required for setting teeth

A

Centre line, occlusal plane/central incisor plan, residual ridge
contour, canine line and occlusal vertical dimension

285
Q

what anatomical areas are required for retention, support & relief

A

Retention:
— Mandible – retro-mylohyoid space
— Maxilla – tuberosity, peripheral seal
- Support:
— Mandible - Retro-molar pad, residual ridge, buccal shelf
— Maxilla – hard palate and residual ridge
- Relief:
— Bony prominences (tori), high frenal attachments

286
Q

name 3 materials used for crowns

A

All metal restorations:
— Precious gold or platinum
— Non precious nickel, titanium and chromium
- Metal-ceramic Restorations:
— Porcelain fused to metal

287
Q

what is the purpose of a post

A

A post retains the core holding onto the coronal restoration.
Where the core gains intraradicular support for a definitive
coronal restoration such as retention for a crown

288
Q

3 types of post which can be used

A

Manufacture:
— Preformed/prefabricated or custom made
- Material:
— Cast metal (Type IV gold/Au), steel, zirconia,
carbon/glass fibre
- Shape – parallel sided or tapered:
— Parallel sided
— Non threaded passive
— Cement retained

289
Q

what is the name given to the residual collar of dentine required before placing a post

A

Ferrule (dentine collar) which is an encirclement of 1-2mm of
vertical axial tooth structure within walls of the crown which is
present to prevent tooth fracture.

290
Q

how much GP should be left in the canal space when placing a post

A

4-5mm of root filling should be left apocalyptic so that the
apical foramen is sealed

291
Q

what is the key purpose of post placement

A

Posts are used to retain the core holding into the coronal
restoration
- When more than ½ of a tooth’s original crown portion has been
lost, a post is needed to assist with anchoring the core to the
tooth

292
Q

describe the width of taper for the type of crown given in MCC

A

Non functional cusps = 2mm reduction
- Functional cusps = 2.5mm reduction
- Incisal = 2mm reduction
- Shoulder/heavy chamfer = 1.2-1.3mm reduction
- Between a 10-20o taper

293
Q

name 2 forms of bone loss that can be seen on a radiograph

A
  • Horizontal:
    — Most common pattern which occurs when the path of
    inflammation is to the alveolar crest which is
    perpendicular to the tooth surface
  • Vertical:
    — Less common pattern which occurs when the pathway
    of inflammation travels directly into the PDL spaces
    and occurs intra-dentally.
294
Q

name 3 characteristics of a ghost image

A
  • They will present higher due to vertical beam angulation of 8o
  • Be horizontally magnified
  • Usually further forward due to change in Antero-posterior position
295
Q

give 3 ways the dose to ptx is reduced by normal radiography techniques

A
  • Use of rectangular collimating combined with a beam-aiming
    device and film holder which reduces x-ray dose by 30%
  • Reducing the area irradiated, and therefore volume irradiated
    will also reduce the number of scattered photons produced as
    well as reducing patients dose.
  • High tube kVp which produces higher energy photons meaning
    the photoelectric interactions and the contrast between
    different tissues is reduced, meaning the dose absorbed by the
    patient also reduces.
296
Q

compton effect v photoelectric effect

A

compton:
— X-Ray photon Interacts with loosely bound outer shell
electrons. The photon energy considerably greater
than the electron binding energy.
— The electron is ejected taking some of the photon
energy as kinetic energy causing a recoil electron. This
gives off an atom that is positively charged.
— Following the collision the photon has lower energy so
is called a scatter photon as it undergoes a change in
direction:
i. Forward direction – high energy
ii. Backward direction – low energy

photoelectric:
— X-ray photon interacts with inner shell electron
generally the k shell which has the highest energy. This
photon has energy higher than the binding energy of
the electron which makes the x-ray photon disappear.
— The Difference in energy between the 2 levels is
emitted as light and heat.
— Most of the photon energy used to overcome binding
energy of the electron remainder gives electron kinetic
energy meaning the electron is ejected as a
photoelectron. It results in complete absorption of
photon energy meaning the photon does not reach the
film and preventing any interaction with active
component of the image receptor – images appear
white if all photos are involved; grey is some are
involved

297
Q

what metal is used to absorb the jets generated during x ray production

A
  • Lead is used to prevent leakage >7.5uSvh-1
  • Lead film is for photoelectric absorption which absorbs scatter
    x-rays to prevent image degradation and its 2nd function is to
    absorb some of the primary beam.
298
Q

name another metal used in x ray production

A
  • Zinc is used to prevent leakage >7.5uSvh-1 in shielding
  • Aluminium and zinc used for the final spectrum of X-ray
    energy filtration.
299
Q

to remove retained roots of 44 what type of surgical flap should be used

A

Triangular (3-sided) L shaped:
— When removing a single root tooth retained root a
triangular (l-shaped) 3-sided flap design should be
utilised which will extend from the mesial aspect of the
canine to the distal aspect of the 2nd premolar
— Advantages:
i. It ensures there is an adequate blood supply,
satisfactory visualisation, very good stability
and reapproximation
ii. It is easily modified with a small releasing
incision or additional vertical incision or when
lengthening is required with a horizontal
incision.
— Disadvantages:
i. Limited access to long roots and tension is
created when the flap is held with a retractor
which can cause defects in the attached
gingivae

300
Q

what is EADT & EAT

A

Extra-alveolar dry time (EADT):
— The EADT is critical to survival of the PDL as the longer
the EADT the more damage to the PDL which increases
the amount of resorption that can be expected.
— It is the time it takes from avulsion to placement in a
storage medium
— <30 mins better survival
— >30 mins risk of alveolar/ligament death
- Extra-alveolar time (EAT):
— This is the total extra-alveolar time from avulsion to
reimplantation which is an important indicator of
potential damage to the PDL
— Reports have found that teeth forming radiographically
normal PDLs after being stored in milk for 2 hours prior
to reimplantation

301
Q

name 4 potential storage mediums for an avulsed tooth

A
  • Saliva (or in buccal sulcus)
  • Milk
  • Saline/water
  • Blood
302
Q

give 2 points of information you would give to someone about an avulsion

A
  • Ensure that the person holds the tooth by the crown of the
    tooth and not the root and run it under cold water for no more
    than 10seconds to clear any debris then reminder into the
    patients mouth and bite on tissue
  • If they cannot reimplantation the tooth place it in a storage
    medium such as Saliva, milk, saline.water) and seek immediate
    dental advice ASAP
303
Q

what form of splint is used for subluxation & what is the minimum time the splint should be in place for

A

flexible splint for 2 weeks

304
Q

fluoride regime for high risk 4 year olds

A
  • High risk children under 10 – 1500ppm of fluoride toothpaste
  • Fluoride tablet supplementation – 0.5mg/day
  • Fluoride varnish at least 2x yearly – 22,600ppm
305
Q

what is the thickness of shimstock & articulating paper

A
  • Shimstock - 8um in thickness used with mosquito forceps
  • Articulating – 20um used with millers forceps
306
Q

how does CHX act upon cells and explain

A
  • Chlorhexidine is an antiseptic that has both bacteriostatic and
    bactericidal properties against bacteria, viruses and fungi.
  • Chlorhexidine has a dicatonic action:
    — Positively charged chlorhexidine molecule reacts with
    the negatively charged clean surface of micro grains s
    and damages the microbial cell envelope
    — When there is a low concentration of the bacterial
    membrane there will be increased permeability
    — When there is high concentration of the bacteria’s
    membrane there will be precipitation of the cytoplasm
    and resultant cell death which also inhibits absorption
    from the gut
307
Q

common side effects of phenytoin

A
  • Headaches, nausea, vomiting, constipation. Dizziness,
    drowsiness trouble sleeping, nervousness
  • Gingival hyperplasia and bleeding gums
308
Q

name 2 drugs that can cause similar side effects to phenytoin

A
  • Calcium channel blockers – amlodipine and nifedipine
  • Immunosuppressants – cyclosporine
309
Q

how can gingival hyperplasia be managed

A
  • Plaque control, OHI, sub and super gingival scaling Regularly
  • Medical management where the consultant leading the
    treatment of the condition can possibly reduce the dose of the
    drug or use another drug which doesn’t have the side effect of
    gingival hyperplasia
310
Q

antibiotic tx for ANUG

A

metronidazole 400mg TID for 3 days for adults
metronidazole 200-250mg TID for 12-18yr olds
amoxicillin 500mg TID for 3 days if metronidazole is inappropriate

311
Q

when would you give antibiotic for ANUG

A

only if it hasn’t gone away in a few days or if there is lymphadenopathy or systemic involvement

312
Q

what is the periodontal phenomenon experienced by smokers when trying to quit

A
  • Smoking increases periodontal disease by 2-6x fold.
  • It increases rates of alveolar bone loss, attachment loss and
    pocket formation but this may not be evident to the smoker as
    the smoking masks the signs of gingivitis usually associated
    with periodontitis which means the gums bleed less due to
    vasoconstriction properties of nicotine.
  • This means when patients stop smoking their gums will then bleed
  • Periodontal pathogens found in smokers are:
    — Tannerella forsythia
    — Prevotella intermedia
    — Treponema denticola
313
Q

2 drugs to be wary of when carrying out XLA

A
  1. warfarin
  2. clopidogrel
314
Q

4 types of porosity that can be generated in the production of a URA or full denture

A
  • Granular porosity:
    — Granular effect on the denture surface due to low
    powder liquid ratio.
  • Contraction porosity:
    — Appears as irregular voids throughout and on the
    surface of denture due to insufficient material and/or
    insufficient pressure
  • Gaseous porosity:
    — Shows fine uniform bubbles particularly in thicker
    regions
  • Localised porosity:
    — Improper mixing of components or early packing
315
Q

surgery used to repair cleft lip & palate

A
  1. orthognathic surgery
  2. rhinoplasty
  3. velopharyngeal surgery
316
Q

how are x rays produced

A
  • X-rays are produced when fast-moving electrons are brought
    rapidly to a stop
  • An electron is a negatively charged particle in an atom which
    conceptually sites itself in the orbits around the nucleus as
    stated by the Bohr model.
  • Process:
    — Source of the x-ray from the x-ray machine and the
    object is the teeth and jaws with the interaction of xrays with matter
    — Image receptor will be digital or film
    — Processing is the conversion of latent image to
    permanent visible image by computer technology or by
    chemical processing means
317
Q

what is validation of decon equipment

A
  • We consider validation of decontamination equipment when
    we review if the practice is safe. This related to regulation15
    (premises and equipment) and regulation 12 (safe care and
    treatment).
  • Maintain and servicing decontamination equipment
    appropriately is essential to ensure that equipment performs
    to an optimum standard. This should be done in accordance
    with the manufacturers instructions.
318
Q

what is the glycocalyx

A
  • This is known as a pericellular matrix, which is glycoproteins
    and glycolipids covering that provides a protected surrounding
    around the cell membranes of some bacteria, epithelial and
    other cells.
  • This allows the bacteria to evade the immune system cells
    more easily and can incorporate into biofilms.
  • Bacteria such as staphylococci sp., streptococcus sp., and
    pseudomonas sp
319
Q

how do we prevent strep mutans causing caries

A
  • Reduce carbohydrates in saliva by changing diet habits
  • Increase tooth resistance to acid attack by addition of fluoride
  • Reduce tooth susceptibility by fissure sealants
  • Reduce or eliminate carcinogenic micro-organisms by
    mechanical removal of the biofilm
  • Possibility of the use of inhibitors, probiotics, vaccinations and
    immunisation in the future
320
Q

what is the structure of glucose

A

C6H12O6

321
Q

dentinogenesis

A

— Is the formation of dentine performed by odontoblasts
which begins at the late bell stage of tooth
development
— The different stages of dentine formation after
differentiation of the cell results in different types of
dentine:
i. Mantle dentine, primary dentine, secondary
dentine and tertiary dentine

322
Q

amelogenesis

A

— This is the formation of enamel and begins when the
crown is forming during the advanced bell stage of
tooth development after dentinogenesis.
— Although dentine must be present for enamel to be
formed, ameloblasts must also be present for
dentinogenesis to continue.
— Message are sent from newly differentiated
odontoblasts to the inner enamel epithelium (IEE)
causing the epithelial fella to further differentiate into
active secretory ameloblasts.
— Stages:
i. Pre-secretory stage
ii. Secretory stage
iii. Maturation stage

323
Q

3 stages of forming a clot

A
  1. vasoconstriction
  2. platelet aggregation forming platelet plug
  3. formation of fibrin clot
324
Q

NOACs

A

rivaroxaban, Apixaban and Dabigatran:
i. All new oral anticoagulants
ii. Factor X inhibitors that inhibits conversion of
prothrombin to thrombin stopping the
producing of the fibrin clot
iii. Short-life – effect rapidly lost
iv. If it is a short course for DVT – postpone dental
treatment until stopped especially extractions
v. Dental drug interactions:
1. safe with all except macrolides such as
erythromycin and clarithromycin
2. safe with antifungals – topical and
fluconazole
3. safe with LA
4. safe with antivirals
5. NSAID will prolong action and inhibit
platelets – AVOID

325
Q

organisms involved in caries

A
  • Streptococcus mutans
  • Lactobacilli acidophilus
  • Actinomycetes viscosus
  • Nocardia sp.
326
Q

what are the virulence factors involved in carious bacteria

A
  • Streptococcus mutans
  • Lactobacilli acidophilus
  • Actinomycetes viscosus
  • Nocardia sp.
327
Q

what organisms are involved in periodontal disease

A
  • Porphyromonas gingivalis
  • Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans
  • Prevotella intermedia
  • Bacteroides Forsythus
328
Q

virulence factors involved in periodontal disease

A
  • Porphyromonas gingivalis:
    — Host cell adherence and invasion – fimbriae
    — Elaboration with proteases – collagenase, fibrinolysinl
    phospholipase A and ohosphotases
    — Endotoxins (LPS)
    — Capsular polysaccharide and outer membrane vesicles
    — Tissue toxic metabolic by products – hydrogen
    sulphide, ammonia and fatty acids
  • Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomatins:
    — Leukotoxins, cytotoxins, LPS, Fc binding proteins,
    membrane vesicles, glycoproteins matrix and fimbriae
    — It invaded host immune system through phase
    variation, subverting the host cell and immunity
329
Q

why do biofilms not allow antibiotics to penetrate them

A
  • Biofilms can produce a penetration barrier of LPS which
    prevents antimicrobials and antibiotics from penetrating.
  • Biofilms also require mechanical disruption do alone
    medications will not work to remove them fully
330
Q

describe innate immunity

A

recognises & responds to pathogens in similar way to adaptive but does not provide long lasting immunity to host:
— Recruits immune cells to sites of infection through the
production of chemical factors, including cytokines
— Activation of the complement cascade to identify
bacteria. Activate cells and promote clearance of
antibody complexes or apoptosis cells
— Identification and removal of foreign substances preset
in organs, tissues, blood and lymph specialised by WBC
subtypes such as macrophages
— Activation of the adaptive immune system through a
process known as antigen presentation
— It also acts as a physical and chemical barrier to
infectious agents

331
Q

what is the process that leads to inflammation

A
  1. vasodilation; leads to increased blood flow causing redness & warmth (rubor & calor)
  2. increased permeability; leads to exudation of protein rich fluid into extravascular space causing swelling (tumour)
  3. loss of fluid from vessels leads to concentration of red cells resulting in decreased velocity & stasis of blood flow
  4. leukocyte rolling, adhesion & migration leads to accumulation of inflammatory cells