PPQ Corrections 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Transmembrane proteins carry a signal sequence, which halts translation and directs the ribosome synthesising the protein to dock with the…

A

Endoplasmic Reticulum.

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2
Q

Order of the cell cycle

A

G1-S-G2-M

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3
Q

What is checked by the G1 checkpoint?

A

There is enough cell mass for daughter cells.
If there is any DNA damage.

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4
Q

Role of Rb in G1

A

Tumour suppressor.
Inhibits transcription of genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication.

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5
Q

Role of G1 Cyclin-CDK

A

Inhibits Rb by phosphorylation.
Allows transcription of genes that code for proteins needed for DNA replication.
If this happens the cell can progress to S phase.

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6
Q

What happens during the S stage of the cell cycle?

A

DNA replication.

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7
Q

What happens during the G1 checkpoint if there is DNA damage?

A

Damage triggers the activation of p53.

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8
Q

Role of p53 in the cell cycle (3).

A

If activated it can:
- Stimulate DNA repair
- Halt cell cycle
- Cause programmed cell death

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9
Q

G2 checkpoint

A

Success of DNA replication is assessed.

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10
Q

M checkpoint

A

Controls progression from Metaphase to Anaphase.
Progression is halted until:
- Chromosomes are aligned correctly on the metaphase plate.
- Spindle fibres are attached.

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11
Q

Meiosis I (5)

A
  1. Chromosomes replicate forming two identical chromatids.
  2. Homologous chromosomes pair up and points of contact form between non-sister chromatids.
  3. Crossing over takes place.
  4. Chromosomes attach to spindle fibres and are separated to opposite poles.
  5. Cytokinesis occurs forming two daughter cells.
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12
Q

Whatis the purpose of crossing over?(2)

A

Creates new combinations of alleles.
Increases variation.

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13
Q

Meiosis II

A

Sister chromatids are separated.
Chromosomes segregate into one of the four new haploid cells.

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14
Q

Suggest how you could determine if someone had a parasite?

A

Through a sample of urine or faeces.

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15
Q

Types of chemical label:

A

Colour change
Fluorescence

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16
Q

Describe how SDS‑PAGE separates proteins.

A

All proteins are given a negative charge and are denatured.
Small proteins migrate faster than larger proteins.

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17
Q

What must happen after electrophoresis before Western blotting can be done?

A

Transfer to a solid medium.

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18
Q

Why is it unethical to only use homeopathic remedies?

A

There is no evidence that homeopathic remedies work.
The patient may be at higher risk.

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19
Q

2 aspects that cause low reliability are:

A

Small sample size.
No independent replicate.

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20
Q

During glucose symport what molecule travels with glucose at the same time?

A

Sodium ions.

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21
Q

How does the sodium potassium pump supply energy for glucose symport?

A

Sodium potassium pump hydrolyses ATP.

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22
Q

Describe how facilitated diffusion takes place.

A

Passive transport occurs down a concentration gradient through channels or transporters.

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23
Q

Facilitated diffusion in specific transporters.

A

Substance binds to transmembrane protein causing a conformational change.

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24
Q

Facilitated diffusion in non-specific channels.

A

Substance diffuses across pores in channels.

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25
Q

What would a loss of GLUT2 cause?

A

Glucose would not be able to diffuse out of the liver.

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26
Q

External death signal examples (2).

A

Binding of lymphocytes.
Absence of growth factors.

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27
Q

Name the enzyme that causes the destruction of cells
during apoptosis.

A

Caspases

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28
Q

Apoptosis is essential for…(3)

A

Organism development.
Metamorphosis.
Removing damaged cells.

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29
Q

Virus structure (2)

A

Contains DNA packaged in a protein coat.
Some viruses are surrounded by a phospholipid membrane which is derived from the host cell.

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30
Q

How are viruses parasitic? (2)

A

It is a symbiotic interaction where the virus benefits at the hosts expense.
Virus can only replicate inside a host cell.

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31
Q

Retrovirus (2)

A

Viruses that use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to form DNA from RNA.
This DNA is then injected into the genome of the host cell.

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32
Q

What is a sequential hermaphrodite.

A

They can have male or and female reproductive organs, but not at the same time.

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33
Q

What is the benefit of a social hierarchy?

A

Reduces competition.
Most successful alleles passed on.

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34
Q

List 3 costs of external fertilisation.

A

Gametes are predated.
Low chance of fertilisation.
Few offspring survive.

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35
Q

Name the process that allows genes to move from bacteria and fungi into other species.

A

Horizontal gene transfer.

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36
Q

Why is parthenogenesis more common in cooler climates?

A

There is a lower parasite diversity.
Less need for variation by sexual reproduction to combat parasites.

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37
Q

Interspecific competition

A

Competition that brings about a change in the realised niche of one of the species.

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38
Q

Competitive exclusion

A

When one species goes extinct in the presence of another.

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39
Q

Response to light in the rod cells of animals. (5)

A
  1. Photon of light activates rhodopsin.
  2. Rhodopsin activates transducin.
  3. Transducin activates PDE.
  4. PDE breaks down cGMP.
  5. Function of channel protein is affected.
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40
Q

Bacteria model organism

A

E.coli

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41
Q

Nematode model organism

A

Caenorhabditis elegans
(roundworm)

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42
Q

Chordate model organism

A

Mice/rats

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43
Q

Arthropod model organism

A

Drosophila melanogaster
(fruit fly)

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44
Q

Flowering plant model organism

A

Arabidopsis thaliana

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45
Q

Methods to determine number of viable cells (2)

A

Vital stain
Colony count

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46
Q

What is a prosthetic group

A

A non-protein group that is essential for function.

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47
Q

Cooperativity in haemoglobin.

A

Binding of oxygen at one site affects the binding of oxygen at other sites.

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48
Q

How does increasing negative modulator concentration help oxygen delivery to tissue.

A

Affinity for oxygen is reduced making it easier for haemoglobin to release oxygen.

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49
Q

Electrochemical gradient

A

Combination of the concentration gradient and
the electrical gradient.

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50
Q

Why would a positive ion move against its conc. gradient into a negatively charged cell?

A

Because the effect of the electrical potential difference is greater than that of the concentration gradient.

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51
Q

Steroid hormones diffuse across the membrane and bind to a ________ _____________ receptor.

A

specific intracellular

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52
Q

HRE’s are

A

Target DNA sequences

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53
Q

How do steroid hormones affect transcription?

A

One hormone affects the transcription of many genes.

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54
Q

Action of neurotransmitters (3)

A
  1. Neurotransmitters bind to ligand gated channels.
  2. Sodium channel opens allowing an influx of sodium into the cell.
  3. If enough sodium ions flow into the cell then a threshold is reached which triggers an opening of more sodium channels resulting in further depolarisation.
55
Q

How do tumour cell lines differ from primary cell lines?

A

Tumor cell lines divide indefinitely.

56
Q

Advantage of using lab animals.

A

Can see the effect on the whole organism.

57
Q

How would inhibiting Rb affect cell division?

A

The cell will progress to S phase without being checked at G1.

58
Q

What is present in the supernatant

A

Insoluble substances.

59
Q

Heritable evidence that may be used to construct a phylogenetic tree.

A

DNA sequences

60
Q

What is morphology.

A

Structure of an organism.

61
Q

Parthenogenesis

A

Reproduction from unfertilised eggs.

62
Q

Benefits of increased variation due to sexual reproduction (3).

A

Being able to adapt to:
Changing environment.
Increasing temperatures.
Increase in parasitism.

63
Q

How can a parasite create a new niche for it’s host.

A

Change in host behaviour can result in a change in resources and competition.

64
Q

Population size=

A

MC/R
M= Sample captured and marked.
C= Second sample captured.
R= No. of marked individuals recaptured.

65
Q

What does an absolute fitness of 1> indicate?

A

Decrease in frequency.

66
Q

Symbiotic relationship

A

A close relationship between 2 species.

67
Q

Why do many marine life use external fertilisation?

A

Water allows sperm to reach eggs.

68
Q

What is a monoclonal antibody?

A

An antibody derived from a cell line.

69
Q

Explain why it is important to control pH in immunoassays (2).

A

pH affects the structure of proteins.
This reduces the affinity of antibodies binding to antigens.

70
Q

Light sensitive molecule in animals.

A

Retinal

71
Q

How do rod cells function in low light?

A

High degree of amplification.

72
Q

Epidemiology

A

Study of the outbreak and spread of diseases.

73
Q

What effect does selection bias have on the sample?

A

The sample is not representative.

74
Q

Why can observational studies only suggest a possible link over time?

A

Observational studies cannot show causation.

75
Q

What is an ethogram and what does it measure?

A

List of behaviours.
Measures:
- Latency (how quickly animals respond to stimulus)
- Duration
- Frequency
AVOID ANTHROPOMORPHISM

76
Q

How does modification of host behaviour benefit the parasite?

A

It can allow for the transmission of the parasite.

77
Q

Examples of behaviour that is altered as part of the extended phenotype of the parasite (3).

A

Sexual behaviour.
Habitat choice.
Anti-predator behaviour.

78
Q

Describe monogamy

A

When females and males only mate with one partner.

79
Q

Non-specific immune responses (3)

A

Inflammatory response.
Apoptosis.
Phagocytosis.

80
Q

What is the term used to describe the difference in size between males and females.

A

Sexual dimorphism

81
Q

Causes of sex change in organisms (3)

A

Dominant male/female dies.
Competition
Parasitic infection.

82
Q

Examples of hydrophilic signalling molecules (2):

A

Neurotransmitters
Protein hormones

83
Q

Signal transduction (3)

A
  1. Molecule binds to SPECIFIC receptor (transmembrane protein) on cell membrane.
  2. This causes a conformational change.
  3. Cellular response is triggered.
84
Q

Signal transduction outcomes (2).

A

Phosphorylation.
Activate G-proteins.

85
Q

How does the sodium potassium pump work? (8)

A
  1. Pump has a high affinity for sodium ions.
  2. 3 Na+ ions bind to pump.
  3. The pump is phosphorylated by splitting ATP.
  4. Conformational change is triggered and affinity for Na+ decreases, releasing sodium out of the cell.
  5. The pump has a high affinity for Potassium outside of the cell.
  6. 2 potassium ions bind to the pump.
  7. The pump is dephosphorylated and returns to its original conformation.
  8. Potassium is released into cell.
86
Q

Schistosomiasis in humans is caused by an…

A

endoparasitic platyhelminth (flatworm)

87
Q

What is a vector?

A

An organism that spreads a parasite from one host to another.

88
Q

Describe the action of caspases in cell destruction. (2)

A

Break down proteins.
Activate other caspases.

89
Q

Why do steroid hormones have different effects in different types of tissue? (2)

A

Different tissues have different responses to receptor binding.
Different genes are switched on/off.

90
Q

Name the enzyme that dephosphorylates proteins.

A

Phosphatase

91
Q

Why is it important that proteins return to their inactive state.

A

So that the protein can respond again.

92
Q

How does protein electrophoresis separate proteins.

A

A current separates proteins by size and charge.

93
Q

Latency

A

Viruses escape immune surveillance by integrating their genome into the host genome.

94
Q

Why are carrier females usually unaffected even though they carry a mutated gene.

A

X chromosome inactivation is random.
Half the cells will have a functional copy of the gene.

95
Q

How to construct a time budget.

A

Calculate duration of each behaviour.
Then calculate proportion of time spent doing each behaviour.

96
Q

Why should anthropomorphic statements be avoided.

A

Applying human emotions to animal behaviour can result in misinterpretation of behaviour.

97
Q

What is the process associated with the red queen hypothesis. (2)

A

Co-evolution.
When the changes in traits of one species acts as a selection pressure on the other.

98
Q

Horizontal gene transfer

A

Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another without reproduction.

99
Q

What does serum provide to cells?

A

Growth factors

100
Q

What can be viewed through a bright field microscopy (3).

A

Tissue
Whole organisms
Parts of organism

101
Q

Structure of spindle fibres.

A

Made of microtubules which are composed of tubulin.

102
Q

Where do spindle fibres radiate from?

A

The MTOC where they were made.

103
Q

What does the sodium potassium pump create?

A

An ion gradient.

104
Q

Independent assortment

A

Ensures haploid gametes contain a mixture of chromosomes of maternal and paternal origin.

105
Q

How to tell if natural selection has taken place.

A

Organisms have new traits that make them better adapted to a new environment.

106
Q

What can rapidly increase the rate of evolution? (2)

A

HIGH selection pressures.
Shorter generation time.

107
Q

Honest signals

A

Characteristicsthat indicate a healthy individual with favourable alleles.

108
Q

What is a lek?

A

Where males gather to display in order to allow female choice.

109
Q

Why are displays used as examples of sexual selection?

A

Display increases chances of passing on genes.

110
Q

Benefit of honest signals.

A

Offspring will have more favourable characteristics.

111
Q

The fundamental niche of a species:

A

The set of resources available in the absence of competitors.

112
Q

Intermediate host

A

A host used by a parasite to multiply asexually.

113
Q

Why is X chromosome inactivation necessary?

A

Prevents a double-dose of gene products.

114
Q

How is X chromosome inactivation expressed in the phenotype? (2)

A

Only the allele on the active X chromosome is expressed.
Sometimes as cells multiply patches of the dominant and recessive phenotype occur.

115
Q

Heterogametic

A

Dissimilar sex chromosomes.
e.g. in mammals X chromosome is larger than Y chromosomes resulting in two types of games.

116
Q

Homogametic

A

Sex chromosomes do not differ in morphology resulting in only one type of gamete.

117
Q

Suggest one way in which greater parental investment is demonstrated.

A

Greater energy expenditure in care of young.

118
Q

What happens when CDK’s are activated by cyclins?

A

Form cyclin-CDK’s which cause the phosphorylation of proteins, which stimulates the cell cycle.

119
Q

What do cyclin proteins do?

A

Control the progression of the cell cycle by activating CDK’s.

120
Q

What do death signal molecules do?

A

Cause the activation of caspases resulting in apoptosis.

121
Q

Phylogenetics

A

The study of the evolutionary history of organisms.

122
Q

What information does scat sampling tell us? (2)

A

Abundance
Diet

123
Q

Commensalism

A

A symbiotic relationship which is (+/0)

124
Q

Founder effect (2)

A

When the gene pool of the new population is not representative of the original gene pool.
Caused by isolation of a few members of a large population.

125
Q

Relative fitness

A

No.of surviving offspring of a genotype / No. of surviving offspring of most successful genotype

126
Q

Homologous chromosomes have the same…

A

Size and centromere position.

127
Q

SRY gene

A

Gene on Y chromosome that determines the development of a male by expressing TDF protein.

128
Q

Vegetative cloning

A

Any type of asexual reproduction in plants.

129
Q

Polyandry

A

One female mates with many males.

130
Q

Polygyny

A

One males mates with many females.

131
Q

Sexual selection

A

Selection of characteristics that have little survival benefit but increase chances of mating.

132
Q

Ectoparasite

A

Lives on surface of host

133
Q

Endoparasite

A

Lives inside of host

134
Q

Gametocytes

A

Precursors of male and female gametes.