Power Engineering Flashcards

1
Q

PS is a German acronym for:

A. Pferdestark
C. Pferdestarke
B. Pferdstark
D. None of these

A

C. Pferdestarke

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2
Q

cv is a French acronym for:

A. Cheval-vapeur
C. Chevalvapour
B. Chevapeur
D. None of these

A

A. Cheval-vapeur

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3
Q

pk is Dutch acronym for:

A. Paardekracht
C. Padkracht
B. Pardkract
D. None of these

A

A. Paardekracht

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4
Q

One pferdestarke (ps) is equal to:

A. 0.986 hp
C. 0.735 kW
B. 75 kgf-m/sec
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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5
Q

One (1) PS is equal to:

A. 735.49 watts
C. 760.00 watts
B. 740.12 watts
D. None of these

A

A. 735.49 watts

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6
Q

One horsepower can generate heat energy equal to:

A. 2455 BTU/hr
C. 2445 BTU/hr
B. 2545 BTU/hr
D. None of these

A

B. 2545 BTU/hr

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7
Q

The amount of power available in human for useful work.

A. 0.5 hp
C. 0.1 hp
B. 0.25 hp
D. None of these

A

C. 0.1 hp

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8
Q

The minimum energy requirement of human.

A. 1,250 cal/day
C. 1,750 cal/day
B. 1,500 cal/day
D. 2,000 cal/day

A

D. 2,000 cal/da

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9
Q

Twenty-hp engine is equal to:

A. 1524.44 kg-m/sec
C. 1425.44 kg-m/sec
B. 1254.2 kg-m/sec
D. None of these

A

A. 1524.44 kg-m/sec

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10
Q

Ten-hp engine is equivalent to:

A. 7.46 kW
C. 0.746 kW
B. 76.4 Watt
D. None of thes

A

A. 7.46 kW

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11
Q

The three main sources of power for mechanization include:

A. Human, animal & mechanical
C. Animal, electrical & mechanical
B. Human, electrical & mechanical
D. Human, animal & electrical

A

A. Human, animal & mechanical

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12
Q

The gasoline engine is characterized as:

A. Low first cost – high operating cost
C. High first cost – high operating cost
B. Low first cost – low operating cost
D. High first cost – low operating cost

A

A. Low first cost – high operating cost

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13
Q

The windmill for water pumping is characterized as:

A. Low torque – high speed
C. High torque – low speed
B. High torque – high speed
D. Low torque – low speed

A

C. High torque – low speed

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14
Q

The three-phase electric motor is characterized as:

A. Low first cost – high operating cost
C. High first cost – high operating cost
B. Low first cost – low operating cost
D. High first cost – low operating cost

A

D. High first cost – low operating cost

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15
Q

Of corresponding size and speed, single-cylinder engines compared to multi-cylinder engines will require ________flywheels.

A. Lighter C. Heavier
B. Thinner D. A or B

A

C. Heavier

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16
Q

Ignition of fuel in a gasoline fuel engine usually starts when the piston is:

A. Moving downward the bottom dead center
C. At the top dead center
B. Approaching the top dead center
D. None of the above

A

B. Approaching the top dead center

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17
Q

A process of providing the engine with additional amount of air and fuel using a small turbine propelled by engine exhaust gas to increase power by about 30%.

A. Turbocharging
C. Power charging
B. Supercharging
D. Air charging

A

A. Turbocharging

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18
Q

One way of increasing engine power is to force more air into the cylinder so that more power can be produced from each power stroke. This process which uses a type of air compression device powered by the engine crankshaft is called:

A. Turbocharging
C. Power charging
B. Supercharging
D. Air charging

A

B. Supercharging

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19
Q

What do you call a device that forces more fuel mixture into the cylinders than would be drawn in under normal atmospheric conditions, thus making possible greater power output with the same piston displacement.

A. Carburetor
C. Throttle
B. Supercharger
D. Venturi

A

B. Supercharger

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20
Q

A turbine and an air blower mounted ahead of the intake manifold of an engine to force more air into the cylinder thereby increasing power output of the engine by 10-15%.

A. Turbocharger
C. Power inducer
B. Auxiliary reducer
D. All of these

A

A. Turbocharger

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21
Q

The ratio between the mass of fuel consumed per unit time and the corresponding power measured:

A. Specific fuel consumption
C. Fuel consumption rate
B. Fuel to mass ratio
D. None of these

A

A. Specific fuel consumption

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22
Q

The piston goes up and the two valves remain closed is termed:

A. Intake
C. Power
B. Compression
D. Exhaust

A

B. Compression

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23
Q

In a compression-ignition engine, the fuel is introduced into the cylinder at the:

A. Start of intake
C. End of intake
B. Start of compression
D. End of compression

A

D. End of compression

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24
Q

A valve operates:

A. Once per cycle
C. Three times per cycle
B. Twice per cycle
D. Four times per cycle

A

A. Once per cycle

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25
Q

The thermal efficiency range for internal combustion engines is:

A. 25 – 36%
C. 50 – 75%
B. 36 – 50%
D. 75 – 90%

A

A. 25 – 36%

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26
Q

An engine valve arrangement wherein the intake and exhaust valves are located on one side of the cylinder block:

A. I - head arrangement
C. T – head arrangement
B. L- head arrangement
D. F – head arrangement

A

B. L- head arrangement

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27
Q

An engine valve arrangement wherein the intake and exhaust valves are located in the cylinder head:

A. I - head arrangement
C. T – head arrangement
B. L- head arrangement
D. F – head arrangement

A

A. I - head arrangement

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28
Q

An engine with all intake valves in the cylinder head and all exhaust valves in the cylinder block:

A. I - head arrangement
C. T – head arrangement
B. L- head arrangement
D. F – head arrangement

A

D. F – head arrangement

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29
Q

Amount of power that the manufacturer specified for an engine:

A. Indicated horsepower
C. Rated horsepower
B. Brake horsepower
D. Belt horsepower

A

C. Rated horsepower

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30
Q

A device that provides ignition to a gasoline engine:

A. Flywheel
C. Carburetor
B. Fuel injector
D. Spark plug

A

D. Spark plug

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31
Q

Compression pressure for small gasoline engine.

A. 40 to 70 psi
C. 150 to 410 psi
B. 75 to 125 psi
D. None of these

A

B. 75 to 125 psi

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32
Q

This mixture of 90% gasoline and 10% alcohol is used as a fuel for spark ignition engine.

A. Methyl ester
C. Gasohol
B. Ethyl ester
D. Normal heptane

A

C. Gasohol

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33
Q

It is a gasoline fuel additive which helps improves the anti-knocking characteristics of fuels but which has been recently discovered to be dangerous to living beings.

A. Methanol
C. Tetraethyl lead
B. Ethanol
D. Gasohol

A

C. Tetraethyl lead

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34
Q

Engine cooling method.

A. Air cooled
C. Air and water cooled
B. Water cooled
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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35
Q

A high-cetane fueled engine uses:

A. Diesel as fuel and is difficult to start engine at lower temperature
B. Diesel as fuel and is easy to start at higher temperature
C. Gasoline fuel and is easy to start at lower temperature
D. None of these

A

B. Diesel as fuel and is easy to start at higher temperature

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36
Q

High viscosity engine oil is desirable to use because:

A. Its viscosity changes easily with a change in temperature
B. Its viscosity does not change easily with the change in temperature
C. Its viscosity changes even without a change in temperature
D. None of these

A

A. Its viscosity changes easily with a change in temperature

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37
Q

Engine oil having high flash and fire point indicates.

A. High boiling point
C. High heating value
B. High evaporation rate
D. All of these

A

A. High boiling point

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38
Q

An additive purposely to provide a protective film on bearing surfaces thus preventing any acid to corrode metal parts.

A. Anticorrosive
C. Dispersants
B. Antioxidants
D. All of these

A

A. Anticorrosive

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39
Q

Additives to cause carbon particles in the engine to remain in suspension in oil.

A. Anticorrosive
C. Dispersants
B. Antioxidants
D. All of these

A

C. Dispersants

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40
Q

In order to increase the resistance of engine oil, the formation of certain acidic product that may cause corrosion of certain type of bearing the recommended additive to use is:

A. Anticorrosive
C. Dispersants
B. Antioxidants
D. All of these

A

B. Antioxidants

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41
Q

The burning of portion of fuel in the combustion chamber of an engine at a rate faster than the desired.

A. Knocking
C. Misfiring
B. Detonation
D. All of these

A

B. Detonation

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42
Q

A device used to measure the quantity of oil in a crankcase.

A. Dipstick
C. Oil stick
B. Oil gauge
D. None of these

A

A. Dipstick

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43
Q

A device that provides a rich mixture of fuel during high load and lean mixture during under load.

A. Carburetor
C. Fuel regulator
B. Economizer
D. All of these

A

B. Economizer

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44
Q

The lubrication system of an engine is basically:
A. To act seal between the piston and cylinder wall
C. To reduce wear and tear of an engine
B. To act as complement of the cooling system
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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45
Q

When a diesel engine knocks, the trouble is:

A. Incorrect engine lubrication and wrong grade oil
C. Incorrect type of spark plug
B. The diesel fuel ignition timing is late
D. All of these

A

B. The diesel fuel ignition timing is late

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46
Q

When a gasoline engine knocks, the problem is:

A. The spark timing is too far advance
C. Incorrect type of fuel
B. Incorrect type of spark plug
D. All of these

A

A. The spark timing is too far advance

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47
Q

If the engine timing is advance:

A. The spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while piston is completing the compression stroke
B. The spark plug ignites earlier than the fuel while the piston is at the intake stroke
C. The spark ignites earlier than the fuel while moving downward immediately after the power stroke
D. All of these

A

C. The spark ignites earlier than the fuel while moving downward immediately after the power stroke

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48
Q

It is the act of checking, testing, measuring, repairing and adjusting the engine in order to bring it to the peak efficiency:

A. Trouble shooting
C. Timing adjustment
B. Tune-up
D. All of these

A

B. Tune-up

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49
Q

The rapid explosion of mixture of fuel and air within the cylinder when ignited by spark plug is in:

A. Constant temperature combustion
C. Constant volume combustion
B. Constant pressure combustion
D. All of these

A

C. Constant volume combustion

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50
Q

The relatively slow burning as the fuel is injected into a highly compressed heated air is:

A. Constant temperature combustion
C. Constant volume combustion
B. Constant pressure combustion
D. All of these

A

B. Constant pressure combustion

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51
Q

The gross heating value of diesel is:

A. Higher than gasoline
C. Higher than ethanol
B. Higher than kerosene
D. All of these

A

C. Higher than ethanol

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52
Q

Which of the following is true in the operating gasifier for internal combustion engine?

A. Only 50 to 70 % of the diesel oil can be replaced by gas producer
B. Gasoline and diesel can be fueled with gas producer
C. The power output of gasoline engine at arbitrary rpm will increase by 30 to 50 % when fueled with producer gas
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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53
Q

An injection system used in small stationary diesel engine consisting essentially of a high-pressure pump and an injection nozzle:

A. Air injection system
C. Automized injection system
B. Solid injection system
D. None of these

A

B. Solid injection system

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54
Q

An engine running at a speed of 2000 rpm is classified as:

A. Low speed engine
C. High speed engine
B. Medium speed engine
D. None of these

A

C. High speed engine

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55
Q

In a four-stroke cycle engine, it is the event during which the piston is moving upward and the two valves are close:

A. Power
C. Compression
B. Intake
D. Exhaust

A

C. Compression

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56
Q

During this event, fresh supply of fuel enters the cylinder as the piston moves downward and the intake valve opens.

A. Power
C. Compression
B. Intake
D. Exhaust

A

B. Intake

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57
Q

In an ideal Diesel engine, the combustion of fuel occurs at:

A. Constant pressure
C. Constant volume
B. Constant temperature
D. Constant enthalpy

A

A. Constant pressure

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58
Q

In an ideal Otto engine, the combustion of fuel occurs at:

A. Constant pressure
C. Constant volume
B. Constant temperature
D. Constant enthalpy

A

C. Constant volume

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59
Q

How much oxygen does air have?

A. 23.2% by volume
C. 15.3% by weight
B. 23.2% by weight
D. 15.3% by volume

A

B. 23.2% by weight

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60
Q

This rating is given to diesel fuels for their ability to burn without detonating as compared with the performance of reference fuels:

A. Octane rating
C. Heptane rating
B. Cetane rating
D. Alcohol rating

A

B. Cetane rating

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61
Q

For complete combustion of gasoline, how much air is needed?

A. 11.1 kg/kg of fuel
C. 15.1 kg/kg of fuel
B. 12.5 kg/kg of fuel
D. 8.2 kg/kg of fuel

A

C. 15.1 kg/kg of fuel

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62
Q

It is an instrument used for testing specific gravity of a liquid.

A. Hydrometer
C. Viscometer
B. Hygrometer
D. Density meter

A

A. Hydrometer

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63
Q

It is engine part whose primary function is to maintain uniform engine speed by absorbing some energy during the power strokes and providing power during the idle strokes.

A. Governor
C. Flywheel
B. Accelerator
D. Crankshaft

A

C. Flywheel

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64
Q

What part of the internal combustion engine is usually made of cast iron and the primary function is to maintain uniform engine speed by carrying the crankshaft through those intervals when it is not receiving energy from a piston?

A. Connecting rod
C. Flywheel
B. Governor system
D. Accelerator

A

C. Flywheel

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65
Q

A four-stroke-spark-ignition engine needs a magneto to operate.

A. Contact point
C. Gas tank
B. Fuel pump
D. Float valve

A

A. Contact point

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66
Q

For high-speed engines, the intake valve opens at TDC and closes after BDC.

A. 54 degrees
C. 44 degrees
B. 50 degrees
D. 40 degrees

A

C. 44 degrees

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67
Q

Spark-ignition engines use gasoline as fuel.

A. Carburetor
C. Metering valve
B. Injection nozzle
D. Plunger

A

A. Carburetor

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68
Q

In a four-stroke cycle engine, ____ is the event during which the piston is moving upward and the two valves are close.

A. Power stroke
C. Compression stroke
B. Intake stroke
D. Exhaust stroke

A

C. Compression stroke

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69
Q

In a compression-ignition engine, fresh supply of fuel and air mixture enters the cylinder as the piston moves downward and the intake valve opens.

A. Power stroke
C. Compression stroke
B. Intake stroke
D. Exhaust stroke

A

B. Intake stroke

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70
Q

Among the fuels that belong to the paraffin group, this has three carbon atoms in its molecular structure. It is the main component of LPG.

A. Pentane
C. Butane
B. Ethane
D. Propane

A

D. Propane

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71
Q

This vertical axis windmill has a very low tip speed ratio and power coefficient of less than 0.2. The rotor is usually constructed using a cylindrical tank cut axially into two and installed vertically face to face at an offset position.

A. Savonious
C. Darrieus
B. Cretan
D. Multibladed

A

A. Savonious

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72
Q

The ideal air-fuel ratio for using kerosene as an engine fuel is:

A. 10:1
C. 13:1
B. 15:1
D. 12:1

A

B. 15:1

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73
Q

Which of the following is not a typical example of a small single cylinder engine?

A. Air-cooled gasoline engine
C. Air-cooled diesel engine
B. Water-cooled gasoline engine
D. Water-cooled diesel engine

A

A. Air-cooled gasoline engine

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74
Q

An engine that burns fuel inside the cylinder:

A. External combustion engine
C. Sterling engine
B. Internal combustion engine
D. None of these

A

B. Internal combustion engine

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75
Q

A mechanical breaking up of fuel into spray droplets by high velocity of air passing through a jet.

A. Atomization
C. Turbocharging
B. Carburetion
D. None of these

A

A. Atomization

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76
Q

Engine having fuel injected into the combustion chamber near the end of the combustion stroke and is ignited by heat of compression only.

A. Gasoline engine
C. Steam engine
B. Diesel engine
D. None of these

A

B. Diesel engine

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76
Q

The sequence by which the cylinder delivers the power stroke.

A. Ignition
C. Flash point
B. Firing order
D. None of these

A

B. Firing order

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76
Q

Firing order of 4-cylinder engine

A. 1-2-3-4
C. 1-2-4-3
B. 1-3-4-2
D. None of these

A

B. 1-3-4-2

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77
Q

Firing order for 8-cylinder V piston.

A. 1-6-8-4-3-2-7-5
C. Both A and B
B. 1-8-7-3-6-5-4-2
D. None of these

A

C. Both A and B

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78
Q

Engine system that reduces the temperature of the cylinder.

A. Ignition System
C. Cooling System
B. Carburetor System
D. None of these

A

C. Cooling System

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79
Q

The power output of diesel engine, when powered with gas producer at an arbitrary speed will be reduced by:

A. 10-20 %
C. 50-70 %
B. 30-50 %
D. None of these

A

C. 50-70 %

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80
Q

The percentage amount of diesel fuel can be replaced by gas producer:

A. 20-40 %
C. 90-100%
B. 50-70%
D. None of these

A

B. 50-70%

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81
Q

Type of engine that can be fueled with producer gas.

A. Gas engine
C. Gasoline engine
B. Diesel engine
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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82
Q

The bulk density of rice husk.

A. 50-80 kg/m3
C. 140-160 kg/m3
B. 100-120 kg/m3
D. None of these

A

B. 100-120 kg/m3

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83
Q

Type of engine commonly used for tractors.

A. 4-stroke-spark-ignition engine
C. 2-stroke-spark-ignition
B. 4-stroke-compression-ignition
D. 2-stroke-compression-ignition

A

B. 4-stroke-compression-ignition

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84
Q

An internal combustion engine that produces two power strokes in two revolutions of the crankshaft.

A. Four-stroke cycle engine
C. One-stroke cycle engine
B. Two-stroke cycle engine
D. None of these

A

B. Two-stroke cycle engine

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85
Q

A fuel commonly used for external combustion engine.

A. Gasoline
C. Biomass
B. Diesel
D. None of these

A

C. Biomass

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86
Q

Fuel used for constant volume cycle internal combustion engine.

A. Gasoline
C. Biomass
B. Diesel
D. None of these

A

A. Gasoline

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87
Q

Which of the following engine requires frequent maintenance?

A. Air cooled compression ignition engine
C. Spark-ignition engine
B. Compression ignition engine
D. All of these

A

C. Spark-ignition engine

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88
Q

Engines are not normally used for ___

A. 4-wheel tractors
C. 4-row harvesters
B. Power sprayers
D. 1-ton rice mills

A

D. 1-ton rice mills

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89
Q

Type of engine commonly used for brush cutters.

A. 4-stroke-spark-ignition engine
C. 2-stroke-spark-ignition
B. 4-stroke-compression-ignition
D. 2-stroke –compression-ignition

A

C. 2-stroke-spark-ignition

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90
Q

At the downward stroke of a two-stroke cycle gasoline engine, which of the following events takes
place?

A. Power, Exhaust, and Intake
C. Compression, Power, and Compression
B. Compression, Exhaust, and Power D. Compression, Power, and Intake

A

A. Power, Exhaust, and Intake

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91
Q

Engine piston displacement will increase if the:

A. Piston diameter is increased
C. Both A and B
B. Piston stroke is increased
D. None of these

A

C. Both A and B

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92
Q

This fuel is made by partial combustion of carbonaceous substances like coal, wood, charcoal, sawdust and other similar materials in an atmosphere of air and steam. It is a mixture of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, methane, nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

A. Gasohol
C. Natural gas
B. Producer gas
D. Straight-run fuel

A

B. Producer gas

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93
Q

To minimize channel formation inside the gasifier reactor, the superficial gas velocity on the bed of the char should not exceed.

A. 8-9 cm/sec
C. 20-23 cm/sec
B. 15-20 cm/sec
D. None of these

A

A. 8-9 cm/sec

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94
Q

The air requirement for gasification of agricultural waste ranged from.

A. 10-20 % of stoichiometric air
C. 30-40 % of stoichiometric air
B. 20-30 % of stoichiometric air
D. None of these

A

C. 30-40 % of stoichiometric air

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95
Q

The speed of the engine is automatically regulated by:

A. Hand lever
C. Flywheel
B. Governor
D. None of these

A

B. Governor

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96
Q

A type of engine that completes power stroke in one revolution of the Crankshaft.

A. Four-stroke cycle
C. Both A and B
B. Two-stroke cycle
D. None of these

A

B. Two-stroke cycle

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97
Q

Number of pistons for 6-cylinder four stroke gasoline engine.

A. 3
C. 9
B. 6
D. None of these

A

B. 6

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98
Q

Number of spark plugs for 6 cylinder diesel engine.

A. 3
C. 9
B. 6
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

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99
Q

How many fuel injection pumps are there in 4-cylinder four stroke cycle diesel engine?

A. 1
C. 4
B. 2
D. None of these

A

A. 1

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100
Q

How many fuel injection pumps are there in 4-cylinder four stroke cycle gasoline engine?

A. 1
C. 4
B. 2
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

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101
Q

A device which uses fluid power to produce mechanical force and motion.

A. Governor
C. Actuator
B. Accumulator
D. None of these

A

C. Actuator

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102
Q

Part of engine that which slides up and down the cylinder and transmits power to the crankshaft.

A. Connecting rod
C. Piston
B. Cylinder block
D. Spark plug

A

C. Piston

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103
Q

A device that is used to actuate the throttle of an engine to increase its speed.

A. Governor
C. Actuator
B. Accelerator
D. None of these

A

B. Accelerator

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104
Q

Distance of movement piston from the top dead to the bottom dead center.

A. Stroke
C. Valve clearance
B. Bore
D. None of these

A

A. Stroke

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105
Q

Reduction of engine speed or flow of fuel.

A. Throttling
C. Atomization
B. Clutching
D. None of these

A

A. Throttling

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106
Q

A device that permits the flow of fuel and of burned gases in one direction only.

A. Check valve
C. Spark plug
B. Relief valve
D. None of these

A

A. Check valve

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107
Q

A device that provides ignition to a gasoline engine.

A. Flywheel
C. Fuel injector
B. Carburetor
D. Spark plug

A

D. Spark plug

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108
Q

During the power stroke, which of the following valve is open?

A. Intake
C. Intake and exhaust
B. Exhaust
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

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109
Q

Usable power delivered by the engine.

A. Indicated horsepower
C. Rated horsepower
B. Brake horsepower
D. None of these

A

B. Brake horsepower

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110
Q

A device that meters the fuel air and mixes them into harmonious mixture before the mixture enters the combustion chamber of an engine.

A. Governor
C. Carburetor
B. Air injector
D. None of these

A

C. Carburetor

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111
Q

The volume displaced by a piston in making upward and downward stroke.

A. Piston displacement volume
C. Total volume
B. Clearance volume
D. None of these

A

A. Piston displacement volume

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112
Q

The power that is required in pulling an implement.

A. Brake horsepower
C. Power takeoff horsepower
B. Drawbar horsepower
D. All of these

A

B. Drawbar horsepower

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113
Q

The power that is required in driving a pump shaft.

A. Brake horsepower
C. Power takeoff horsepower
B. Drawbar horsepower
D. All of these

A

A. Brake horsepower

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114
Q

The power available at the engine shaft used in driving machinery.

A. Brake horsepower
C. Power takeoff horsepower
B. Drawbar horsepower
D. All of these

A

A. Brake horsepower

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115
Q

In a spark ignition system, it prevents arcing in the breaker point and helps intensify the spark in the spark plug.

A. Distributor
C. Ignition coil
B. Condenser
D. Secondary winding

A

B. Condenser

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116
Q

It is the ratio of the horsepower output of an engine to the fuel horsepower.

A. Mechanical efficiency
C. Power efficiency
B. Thermal efficiency
D. Volumetric efficiency

A

B. Thermal efficiency

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117
Q

This must be high enough in order to self-ignite the air fuel mixture in a diesel engine.

A. Compression temperature
C. Intake pressure
B. Valve compression
D. Engine pressure

A

A. Compression temperature

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118
Q

It is a device used to reduce the toxicity of emissions from an internal combustion engine. It works by providing an environment for a chemical reaction wherein toxic combustion by-products are converted to less-toxic substances.

A. Muffler
C. Turbocharger
B. Header
D. Catalytic converter

A

D. Catalytic converter

119
Q

In what type of engine is the fuel introduced into the cylinder at the end of compression?

A. 4-stroke-spark-ignition engine
C. 2-stroke-spark-ignition
B. 4-stroke-compression-ignition
D. Both A and B

A

A. 4-stroke-spark-ignition engine

120
Q

The specific gravity of gasoline is at the range of:

A. 0.67 to 0.76
C. 0.85 to 0.91
B. 0.79 to 0.85
D. None of these

A

A. 0.67 to 0.76

121
Q

The ratio of the clearance volume from the total volume.

A. Compression ratio
C. Bore stroke ratio
B. Air fuel ratio
D. None of these

A

A. Compression ratio

122
Q

Power transmitted to the pistons by the gas in the cylinder.

A. Brake horsepower
C. Drawbar horsepower
B. Indicated horsepower
D. Flywheel horsepower

A

B. Indicated horsepower

123
Q

The space when the piston is at the top dead center.

A. Piston displacement volume
C. Total volume
B. Clearance volume
D. None of these

A

B. Clearance volume

124
Q

How many piston strokes are there in one revolution of a crankshaft.

A. One
C. Four
B. Two
D. None of these

A

B. Two

125
Q

A device which connects or disconnects engine crankshaft to the transmission box or driven machine.

A. Differential gear
C. Actuator
B. Clutch
D. None of these

A

B. Clutch

126
Q

This gas is a mixture of butane and propane and may be used to a considerable extent as engine fuel.

A. Biogas
C. Producer gas
B. LPG
D. Natural gas

A

B. LPG

127
Q

The ideal air-fuel ratio in terms of weight for methane (CH4) is.

A. 14.5:1
C. 15.2:1
B. 16.7:1
D. 17.3:1

A

D. 17.3:1

128
Q

The ideal air-fuel ratio in terms of weight for cetane (C16H34) is.

A. 15:1
C. 14:1
B. 16:1
D. 17:1

A

A. 15:1

129
Q

The octane rating of a mixture of 3 liters of normal heptane and 27 liters of isooctane is:

A. 50
C. 20
B. 100
D. 90

A

D. 90

130
Q

The greatest heat loss for a 4-stroke cycle, spark ignition engine with a thermal efficiency of 23% is attributed to.

A. Cooling system
C. Exhaust gases
B. Friction
D. Radiation

A

C. Exhaust gases

131
Q

It is the partial or complete interruption of the fuel flow in the fuel system as a result of vaporization of the fuel and the formation of gas bubbles at some point.

A. Stalling
C. Detonation
B. Vapor lock
D. Explosion

A

B. Vapor lock

132
Q

In the operation of this ideal engine, the combustion of fuel occurs instantaneously such that the pressure rises at constant volume.

A. Diesel cycle engine
C. Otto cycle engine
B. Compression ignition engine
D. Carnot cycle engine

A

C. Otto cycle engine

133
Q

The compression ratio of engines is directly related to its thermal efficiency. Theoretically:

A. Otto-cycle engines have higher thermal efficiency than Diesel cycle engines
B. Diesel-cycle engines have higher thermal efficiency than Otto-cycle engines
C. Otto-cycle and Diesel-cycle engines have approximately equal thermal efficiency
D. None of these

A

A. Otto-cycle engines have higher thermal efficiency than Diesel cycle engines

134
Q

This kind of gasoline can be obtained by breaking up heavy molecules of oil into lighter ones:

A. Natural gasoline
C. Straight-run gasoline
B. Cracked gasoline
D. Blended gasoline

A

B. Cracked gasoline

135
Q

Natural gas consists large of:

A. Butane
C. Propane
B. Pentane
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

136
Q

Engine that burns fuel outside the cylinder:

A. Spark ignition engine
C. Compression ignition engine
B. External combustion engine
D. None of these

A

B. External combustion engine

137
Q

At the intake stroke of a diesel engine, what come in?

A. Fuel and air
C. Air
B. Fuel
D. None of these

A

C. Air

138
Q

A device that creates ignition of fuel in a diesel engine.

A. Spark plug
C. Carburetor
B. Piston
D. None of these

A

B. Piston

139
Q

A Gear oil is used for.

A. Engine
C. Hydraulic system
B. Transmission box
D. All of these

A

B. Transmission box

140
Q

Mean effective pressure for turbo-charge engine.

A. 300 psi
C. 200 psi
B. 200 psi
D. All of these

A

A. 300 psi

141
Q

Engine valve that allows the entrance of fuel.

A. Exhaust valve
C. Check valve
B. Intake valve
D. None of these

A

B. Intake valve

142
Q

Mean effective pressure of an engine.

A. 120 psi
C. 50 psi
B. 200 psi
D. None of these

A

A. 120 psi

143
Q

Fuel for compression ignition engine.

A. Gasoline
C. LPG
B. Kerosene
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

144
Q

A term used to describe the resistance of oil to flow.

A. Viscosity
C. Volume weight
B. Cetane Number
D. None of these

A

A. Viscosity

144
Q

Ignition timing for gasoline engine.

A. 1-5 deg
C. 10-15 deg
B. 5-10 deg
D. None of these

A

B. 5-10 deg

145
Q

. Ignition timing for diesel engine.

A. 5-12 deg
C. 20-26 deg
B. 17-19 deg
D. None of these

A

B. 17-19 deg

146
Q

Two pistons running at the same time in the same direction but performing different strokes.

A. Running mate
C. Valve timing
B. Firing order
D. None of these

A

A. Running mate

147
Q

An engine which uses oil entirely as lubricant.

A. Four-stroke cycle
C. Both A and B
B. Two-stroke cycle
D. None of these

A

A. Four-stroke cycle

148
Q

An engine that produces more power per unit weight.

A. Four-stroke cycle
C. Both A and B
B. Two-stroke cycle
D. None of these

A

B. Two-stroke cycle

149
Q

A type of engine that completes power stroke in two revolutions of the crankshaft.

A. Four-stroke cycle
C. Both A and B
B. Two-stroke cycle
D. None of these

A

A. Four-stroke cycle

150
Q

Theoretically, the intake valve:

A. Opens at BDC/closes at BDC
C. Opens at BDC/closes at TDC
B. Opens at TDC/closes at TDC
D. Opens at TDC/ closes at BDC

A

B. Opens at TDC/closes at TDC

150
Q

In a compression-ignition engine, intake is accomplished when:

A. Piston goes down & IV opens
C. Piston goes down & EV opens
B. Piston goes up & EV opens
D. Piston goes up & IV opens

A

A. Piston goes down & IV opens

151
Q

It is the process of combining the proper ratio of oxygen with a gaseous form of a fossil fuel so it can combust. It usually involves all these stages, from vaporizing a liquid fuel to letting it mix with air and finally moving the mixture to where it can be burned.

A. Oxygenation
C. Fuel injection
B. Carburetion
D. Fuel induction

A

B. Carburetion

152
Q

It is the ratio of the actual weight of fuel inducted by the engine during the intake stroke to the theoretical weight of air that should have been inducted by filling the piston displacement volume with air at atmospheric temperature and pressure.

A. Volumetric capacity
C. Volumetric efficiency
B. Volumetric parameter
D. Volumetric measure

A

C. Volumetric efficiency

153
Q

Among the fuels that belong to the paraffin group, this has three carbon atoms in its molecular structure. It is the main component of LPG.

A. Pentane
C. Butane
B. Ethane
D. Propane

A

D. Propane

154
Q

The sequence of events which make up the cycle of operation of an engine is:

A. I-C-P-E
C. C-E-I-P
B. I-P-C-E
D. P-I-C-E

A

A. I-C-P-E

155
Q

Air-cooled engines are equipped with fins to:

A. Increase air velocity
C. Increase air volume
B. Increase surface area
D. Both A and C

A

B. Increase surface area

156
Q

Engine mechanical efficiency.

A. Brake hp over indicated hp
C. Friction hp over flywheel hp
B. Rated hp over indicated hp
D. None of these

A

A. Brake hp over indicated hp

157
Q

Part of an engine that converts reciprocating motion into rotary motion.

A. Crankshaft
C. Camshaft
B. Piston
D. None of these

A

A. Crankshaft

158
Q

System of number indicating the ignition quality of diesel fuel.

A. Octane rating
C. Fuel index
B. Cetane rating
D. None of these

A

B. Cetane rating

159
Q

A substance that decreases the effect of friction and which is commonly obtained from petroleum products.

A. Lubricant
C. Grease
B. Gear oil
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

160
Q

Which pair is mismatched?

A. Indirect cooling – water-cooled engine
C. Spark ignition – gasoline engine
B. Constant volume process – diesel engine
D. Otto cycle – gasoline engine

A

B. Constant volume process – diesel engine

161
Q

Which is not a function of the crankcase?

A. Oil reservoir
C. Housing for moving parts
B. Support for the shafts
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

162
Q

During the power stroke, which of the following valve is open?

A. Intake
C. Intake and exhaust
B. Exhaust
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

163
Q

A steam engine is an example of:

A. An internal combustion engine
C. A dual combustion engine
B. An external combustion engine
D. All of these

A

B. An external combustion engine

164
Q

A constant volume cycle engine:

A. Gasoline engine
C. Steam engine
B. Diesel engine
D. None of of these

A

A. Gasoline engine

165
Q

A constant pressure cycle engine:

A. Gasoline engine
C. Steam engine
B. Diesel engine
D. None of of these

A

B. Diesel engine

166
Q

Fuel used for constant pressure cycle internal combustion engine.:

A. Gasoline
C. Biomass
B. Diesel
D. None of of these

A

B. Diesel

167
Q

In a compression-ignition engine, the fuel is introduced into the cylinder using this device:

A. Intake manifold
C. Fuel injector
B. Intake valve
D. None of of these

A

C. Fuel injector

168
Q

A 16-valve diesel engine usually have:

A. A single-piston cylinders
C. An eight-piston cylinders
B. A six-piston cylinders
D. None of of these

A

C. An eight-piston cylinders

169
Q

The following are the characteristics of diesel engine compared to gasoline engine, except:

A. Higher fuel – utilization efficiency
C. Higher compression ratio
B. Higher fuel consumption
D. Higher air-fuel ratio

A

B. Higher fuel consumption

170
Q

An air-cooled engine is basically equipped with:

A. Pump
C. Fan and pump
B. Fan
D. None of these

A

B. Fan

171
Q

When operating light equipment, it is recommended to use.:

A. Four stroke gasoline engine
C. Four stroke diesel engine
B. Two stroke gasoline engine
D. All of these

A

B. Two stroke gasoline engine

172
Q

A four-stroke-cycle engine is advantageous to use than two-stroke-cycle engine for the reason that.

A. Has regular intake and exhaust valves
C. Easy to lubricate
B. It is easier to start the engine
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

173
Q

The act of analyzing, testing, and measuring the engine to remedy the cause and trouble.

A. Servicing
C. Trouble shooting
B. Tune-up
D. All of these

A

C. Trouble shooting

174
Q

Two engines are rated 1 hp and the other is 1 ps. Which of the following statement is true?

A. 1 hp engine is stronger than 1 ps engine
C. Two engines are the same in strength
B. 1 ps engine is stronger than 1 hp engine
D. None of these

A

A. 1 hp engine is stronger than 1 ps engine

175
Q

Japanese engines are usually rated in terms of:

A. Horsepower
C. Watts
B. Pferdestarke
D. All of these

A

B. Pferdestarke

176
Q

A kilogram fuel consumed by an engine per hr per amount of brake power is the:

A. Fuel consumption rate
C. Specific fuel
B. Specific fuel consumption rate
D. All of these

A

B. Specific fuel consumption rate

177
Q

Too little piston clearance will cause:

A. Seizing in the cylinder as the engine gets hot
C. Loss of oil pumping
B. Loss compression
D. Imperfect valve timing

A

A. Seizing in the cylinder as the engine gets hot

178
Q

Small gasoline engine basically has a compression ratio of:

A. 3:1
C. 10:1
B. 6:1
D. None of these

A

B. 6:1

179
Q

It is a device used to generate high voltage current needed for spark plug in small engine.

A. Distributor
C. Magneto
B. Contact point
D. All of these

A

B. Contact point

180
Q

A device that converts energy of animal to useful work.

A. Head yoke
C. Harness
B. Breast strap
D. None of these

A

C. Harness

181
Q

Part of the tractor engine where pistons slide back and forth and are replaced when damaged.

A. Cylinder block
C. Cylinder head
B. Cylinder liner
D. All of these

A

C. Cylinder head

182
Q

It is used to seal engine components which are bolted to the sub-frame, the cylinder block, and the crankcase:

A. Oil
C. Gasket
B. Grease
D. None of these

A

C. Gasket

183
Q

A gasoline without ethylene bromide of having an octane rating of 87 which sometimes caused knocking on the engine.

A. Premium
C. Unleaded
B. Leaded
D. All of these

A

C. Unleaded

184
Q

If two animals having 0.75 hp each are harnessed together, the pulling output of the two animals is:

A. Greater than 1.5 hp
C. Less than 1.5 hp
B. Equal to 1.5 hp
D. None of these

A

C. Less than 1.5 hp

185
Q

Compression ring is usually located:

A. On top of the oil ring
C. Beneath the oil ring
B. On the same position with the oil ring
D. None of these

A

A. On top of the oil ring

186
Q

Increasing the engine clearance volume will:

A. Have the same compression ratio C. Increase the compression ratio
B. Decrease the compression ratio
D. None of these

A

B. Decrease the compression ratio

187
Q

Upon regularly checking the engine, some problems were observed. What makes the black exhaust gas?

A. Insufficient water in radiator
C. Clogged filter
B. Excessive engine oil
D. Faulty alternator

A

C. Clogged filter

188
Q

Upon regularly checking the engine, some problems were observed. What makes the white exhaust gas?

A. Insufficient water in radiator
C. Clogged filter
B. Excessive engine oil
D. Faulty alternator

A

B. Excessive engine oil

189
Q

Upon regularly checking the engine, some problems were observed. What makes the overheating?

A. Insufficient water in radiator
C. Clogged filter
B. Excessive engine oil
D. Faulty alternator

A

A. Insufficient water in radiator

190
Q

Upon regularly checking the engine, some problems were observed. What makes the discharging of the battery?

A. Insufficient water in radiator
C. Clogged filter
B. Excessive engine oil
D. Faulty alternator

A

D. Faulty alternator

191
Q

A turbine used for hydro system wherein pressurized water is converted to a high-speed jet by letting the water pass through a nozzle.

A. Impulse turbine
C. Water wheel
B. Reaction turbine
D. None of of these

A

A. Impulse turbine

192
Q

A turbine for hydro system which runs completely filled with water.

A. Impulse turbine
C. Water wheel
B. Reaction turbine
D. None of of these

A

B. Reaction turbine

193
Q

The average power density of solar heat striking the earth surface.

A. 1 kw/m²
C. 0.58 kw/m²
B. 0.89 kw/m²
D. None of of these

A

B. 0.89 kw/m²

194
Q

Solar battery is rated in terms of:

A. Dimension of the battery
C. Ampere – hour
B. Wattage
D. None of of these

A

C. Ampere – hour

195
Q

Wind pumps are suitable for high ___ operation:

A. Torque
C. Power
B. Speed
D. None of of these

A

A. Torque

196
Q

The greater the number of blades of the wind machine, ___ the torque:

A. The higher
C. The same
B. The lower
D. None of of these

A

A. The higher

197
Q

The ratio of the heat released by the fuel of a heated-air mechanical dryer to the theoretical heat available from the fuel.

A. Burner efficiency
C. Combustion efficiency
B. Furnace efficiency
D. None of of these

A

C. Combustion efficiency

198
Q

These rely on the illumination-spectrum intensity coming from the sun.

A. Thermal or heat-based applications
C. Photovoltaic applications
B. Greenhouse applications
D. Solar pond principle

A

C. Photovoltaic applications

199
Q

A component part of solar electric system that converts sunlight to electricity.

A. PV panel
C. Solar module
B. Solar cell
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

200
Q

If the rotor of the windmill originally at 2 meters is to be reduced to 1 meter, the power output of the machine will be reduced by:

A. Two times
C. Four times
B. Three times
D. None of these

A

C. Four times

201
Q

Wind flows on a 2-m diameter rotor at a rate of 2 m/s. Suddenly, the wind flows at 4 m/s, what would be the power output of the windmill?

A. 4 times
C. 8 times
B. 6 times
D. None of these

A

C. 8 times

202
Q

A device used in measuring speed of a wind pump.

A. Accelerometer
C. Ammeter
B. Speedometer
D. Tachometer

A

D. Tachometer

203
Q

Which of the following is not a source of energy for farming?

A. Solar energy
C. Biomass energy
B. Wind energy
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

204
Q

A conventional source of energy.

A. Human power
C. Fossil fuel
B. Draft Animal
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

205
Q

A non-conventional source of energy.

A. Biomass
C. Wind
B. Solar
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

206
Q

It refers to ratio of the kinetic energy of air that a wind rotor can convert into mechanical energy over the theoretical maximum available from the wind.

A. Power coefficient
C. Betz coefficient
B. Torque coefficient
D. Speed coefficient

A

A. Power coefficient

207
Q

It is the theoretical maximum percentage of the kinetic energy of air which a wind rotor can convert into mechanical energy.

A. 82.5%
C. 59.3%
B. 50.5%
D. 10.0%

A

c. 59.3%

208
Q

In an aerogenerator exceeding 100 kw capacity, which part is responsible in converting rotational movement to electricity?

A. Rotor
C. Alternator
B. Turbine
D. Governor

A

C. Alternator

209
Q

What component of force is used in multi-bladed windmills?

A. Lift force
C. Side force
B. Drag force
D. Drop force

A

A. Lift force

210
Q

What component of force is used in savonius windmills?

A. Lift force
C. Side force
B. Drag force
D. Drop force

A

B. Drag force

211
Q

The type of pump is appropriate for multi-bladed windmills?

A. Hydraulic
C. Reciprocating
B. Pneumatic
D. Diaphragm

A

C. Reciprocating

212
Q

While the windmill is in operation, what efficiency can exceed 100%?

A. Volumetric
C. Rotor
B. Transmission
D. None of these

A

A. Volumetric

213
Q

What wind energy resource is located about 10-16 km from Earth surface with velocity over 150 kph?

A. Terrestrial wind
C. Jet stream
B. Extra-terrestrial wind
D. High wind

A

C. Jet stream

214
Q

In multi-bladed wind pumps, which part is responsible in converting rotational movement to reciprocating action?

A. Rotor
C. Crank arm
B. Connecting rod
D. Reciprocating pump

A

B. Connecting rod

215
Q

What tail type of multi-bladed wind pump is more effective for windy areas?

A. Hinged side vane
C. Manual folding
B. Ecliptic
D. No tail

A

A. Hinged side vane

216
Q

.In wind farm development, which should be done first?

A. Rotor
C. Transmission
B. Energy demand survey
D. Wind velocity measurement

A

D. Wind velocity measurement

217
Q

In multi-bladed wind pump manufacturing, which should be done first?

A. Rotor blade
C. Tower
B. Rotor frame
D. Jig

A

D. Jig

218
Q

To have bigger water displacement volume in wind pumps, which should be increased?

A. Connecting rod length
C. Crank arm
B. Rotor diameter
D. Well diameter

A

C. Crank arm

219
Q

In windmill design, what should be the average rotor blade twist angle in degrees to have a tip speed ratio of 1:1?

A. 30
C. 60
B. 45
D. 75

A

B. 45

220
Q

If typical overall efficiency of savonius windmills is 7-10%, what is the typical overall efficiency of aerogenerators?

A. 7-10%
C. 18-21%
B. 15-17%
D. 90-95%

A

D. 90-95%

221
Q

A 260-kW hydro power plant is classified as:

A. Microhydro
C. Small hydro
B. Minihydro
D. Big hydro

A

B. Minihydro

222
Q

Under Philippine classification, what is the maximum power rating for microhydro?

A. 25 kW
C. 75 kW
B. 50 kW
D. 100 kW

A

D. 100 kW

223
Q

Photovoltaic cells work by:

A. Storing solar energy as electricity for long periods of time
B. Amplifying the energy of the sun
C. Using solar energy to release electrons from one layer of the cells to migrate to another layer, thereby setting up an electric current
D. Both A and C

A

B. Amplifying the energy of the sun

224
Q

If a coconut tree shades half of solar module, which condition is true?

A. Zero voltage
C. Zero amperage
B. Low voltage
D. Low amperage

A

D. Low amperage

225
Q

In solar panel installation, which positive polarity wire should be connected last to the battery control unit?

A. Solar module
C. Battery
B. Load
D. Monitor

A

C. Battery

226
Q

At 8:00 P.M. in the Philippines, what is the likely voltage reading of a solar home system when all loads are turned on?

A. 20-22 V
C. 14-15 V
B. 16-19 V
D. 11-13 V

A

D. 11-13 V

227
Q

In a sunny 12:00 noon in the Philippines, what is the likely voltage reading of solar battery charger when no battery is being charged?

A. 20-22 V
C. 14-15 V
B. 16-19 V
D. 11-13 V

A

A. 20-22 V

228
Q

In a sunny 12:00 noon in the Philippines, what is the likely voltage reading of solar pump without battery when load is in turned on?

A. 20-22 V
C. 14-15 V
B. 16-19 V
D. 11-13 V

A

B. 16-19 V

229
Q

Material used in solar cells.

A. Silicon
C. Equal silicon and boron
B. Boron
D. Silicon with little boron

A

D. Silicon with little boron

230
Q

Kind of battery useful in solar-powered energy systems.

A. Lead-acid battery
C. Solar battery
B. Automotive battery
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

231
Q

Which battery is designed for slow charging and slow discharging?

A. Maintenance-free battery
C. Solar battery
B. Automotive battery
D. All of these

A

C. Solar battery

232
Q

What is the battery nominal voltage of a 4-wheel 90-hp tractor?

A. 12 Vac
C. 9 Vdc
B. 24 Vdc
D. 12 Vdc

A

D. 12 Vdc

233
Q

The connection to the tractor of an erratic battery is to be stopped quickly. What battery terminal should be disconnected first?

A. Positive
C. Both terminals
B. Negative
D. Any terminal

A

A. Positive

234
Q

A new battery is to be installed to a tractor. What battery terminal should be connected first?

A. Positive
C. Both terminals
B. Negative
D. Any terminal

A

B. Negative

235
Q

The battery drains while tractor is not in use. What battery terminal should be disconnected when tractor is not in use?

A. Positive
C. Both terminals
B. Negative
D. Any terminal

A

A. Positive

236
Q

This is the most common cause of short life of lead acid battery. It results when a cell or battery is permitted to remain in a discharged condition for some length of time such that the lead sulfate hardens and cannot be readily converted to its former state.

A. Detonation
C. Induction
B. Sulfation
D. Carburetion

A

B. Sulfation

237
Q

A device that converts electricity to mechanical power.

A. Generator
C. Rotor
B. Motor
D. None of these

A

B. Motor

238
Q

A device that converts electricity from sunlight.

A. Generator
C. Photovoltaic
B. Windpump
D. None of these

A

C. Photovoltaic

239
Q

Wind machine that is used for lifting water.

A. Aeropump
C. Wind turbine
B. Windpump
D. Generator

A

B. Windpump

240
Q

Power generated from falling water.

A. Hydro power
C. Wind power
B. Biomass power
D. None of these

A

A. Hydro power

241
Q

Power generated from moving air.

A. Hydro power
C. Wind power
B. Biomass power
D. None of these

A

C. Wind power

242
Q

Which is the oldest form of direct or indirect solar energy?

A. Ocean thermal energy conversion
C. Photovoltaic
B. Flat-plate collectors
D. Hydropower

A

A. Ocean thermal energy conversion

243
Q

When biomass is combined with microorganisms in anaerobic conditions, the result is:

A. Methane and nutrient rich sludge
C. Butane
B. An electric current
D. Propane

A

A. Methane and nutrient rich sludge

244
Q

The power grid is:

A. The network of fluid-filled tubes in a roof-mounted solar water heater
B. The reaction chamber inside a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell
C. Also called the power tower, and has been taken out of service due to the costs of upkeep
D. The network of electrical lines that carry electricity from power plants to the customers

A

D. The network of electrical lines that carry electricity from power plants to the customers

245
Q

As a rule of thumb, single-phase alternating current electric motor should be used for applications requiring:

A. < 4 hp
C. < 6 hp
B. < 5 hp
D. < 7 h

A

B. < 5 hp

246
Q

Indicates the maximum load that can be safely carried by an electric motor under continuous operation:

A. Duty rating
C. HP rating
B. Service factor
D. Current rating

A

B. Service factor

247
Q

. Conversion of solid into combustible carbon monoxide through thermochemical reaction.

A. Digestion
C. Gasification
B. Carbonization
D. Pyrolysis

A

C. Gasification

248
Q

It is an indicator of the amount of fuel in a furnace that is converted into ash.

A. Burning efficiency
C. Heat utilization efficiency
B. Thermal efficiency
D. None of these

A

a. burning efficiency

249
Q

It indicates the ratio of the amount of heat given off by the furnace to the system and the heat used from the fuel.

A. Burning efficiency
C. Heat utilization efficiency
B. Thermal efficiency
D. None of these

A

B. Thermal efficiency

250
Q

Instrument for measuring furnace temperature:

A. Glass bulb thermometer
C. Thermocouple wire thermometer
B. Dial type bimetallic thermometer
D. All of these

A

C. Thermocouple wire thermometer

251
Q

A type of gas producer which has the ability to gasify wet fuel.

A. Updraft
C. Cross draft
B. Down draft
D. Fluidized bed

A

A. Updraft

252
Q

A rice hull gasifier reactor that produces less tar during operation

A. Updraft
C. Cross draft
B. Down draft
D. Fluidized bed

A

B. Down draft

253
Q

The gasification rate of rice hull ranged from.

A. 90-105 kg/m2-hr
C. 210-240 kg/m2-hr
B. 110-210 kg/m2-hr
D. None of these

A

B. 110-210 kg/m2-hr

254
Q

Rice hull gasifier efficiency normally ranged from.

A. 50-70 %
C. 80-90 %
B. 70-80 %
D. None of these

A

A. 50-70 %

255
Q

The caloric value of fuel is.

A. The amount of heat contained by the fuel per unit weight
B. The heat needed to burn a certain weight of fuel
C. The weight of fuel to be heated
D. None of these

A

A. The amount of heat contained by the fuel per unit weight

256
Q

A type of rice husk furnace that burns the fuel while it is being spread in a circular pattern inside the combustion chamber.

A. Step grate furnace
C. Cyclone furnace
B. Suspended air furnace
D. All of these

A

C. Cyclone furnace

257
Q

The thermal efficiency of the furnace is the ratio of:

A. The amount of fuel used to the amount of heat generated during combustion
B. The amount of heat generated during combustion to the amount of fuel used
C. The amount of heat delivered to the amount of heat available in the fuel used
D. None of these

A

C. The amount of heat delivered to the amount of heat available in the fuel used

258
Q

The burning temperature of most agricultural waste.

A. 100-200 C
C. 500-600 C
B. 300-400 C
D. None of these

A

B. 300-400 C

259
Q

The primary gas produced during gasification.

A. Methane
C. Carbon Monoxide
B. Carbon Dioxide
D. All of these

A

C. Carbon Monoxide

260
Q

This fuel is obtained from the fermentation of wet wastes such as animal dung in the absence of oxygen. This gaseous fuel contains up to 60 percent methane.

A. Liquefied petroleum gas
C. Producer gas
B. Carbon monoxide
D. Biogas

A

d. biogas

261
Q

When a biogas contains 40 % methane and 60 % carbon dioxide.

A. The biogas can be used for cooking C. The biogas can be used for lighting
B. The biogas can run gas refrigerator D. None of these

A

D. None of these

262
Q

A biogas is generated inside the:

A. Gas holder
C. Digester
B. Mixing tank
D. None of these

A

C. Digester

263
Q

The feed material to water ratio for biogas generation is:

A. 1:0.5 to 1:1
C. 1:2 to 1:3
B. 1:1 to 1:2
D. None of these

A

B. 1:1 to 1:2

264
Q

The percentage primary air requirement based on the total air for the combustion of fuel in a cookstove:

A. 80 %
C. 40 %
B. 60 %
D. None of these

A

A. 80 %

265
Q

Elements necessary for combustion:

A. Fire
C. Fuel
B. Air
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

266
Q

Air required for complete combustion of combustible gasses:

A. Stoichiometric air
C. Secondary air
B. Primary air
D. All of these

A

C. Secondary air

267
Q

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound water by one-degree Farenheight:

A. kCal
C. Joule
B. BTU
D. None of these

A

B. BTU

268
Q

The excessive amount of tars produced in the combustion of agricultural waste is primary due to:

A. Insufficiency of fuel
C. Too much air used
B. Less air is used
D. None of these

A

B. Less air is used

269
Q

Open-fire stove has a thermal efficiency of:

A. 3-11 %
C. 20-30%
B. 11-20 %
D. All of these

A

A. 3-11 %

270
Q

A chamber where combustion of fuel takes place:

A. Damper
C. Fire box
B. Chimney
D. None of these

A

C. Fire box

271
Q

The thermal efficiency of a cookstove can be increased by:

A. Increasing the amount of fuel
C. Insulating the stove
B. Using more air for the fuel
D. None of these

A

C. Insulating the stove

272
Q

The recommended angle for the inclined metal grates on the step-grate type stove:

A. 45-60 deg
C. 60-80 deg
B. 30-40 deg
D. None of these

A

A. 45-60 deg

273
Q

The power output of an agriwaste-fired multiple-burner stove can be increased by:

A. Providing large connecting tunnel for the pot holes
B. Increasing the height of the chimney
C. Providing damper to control the flow of passage of air
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

274
Q

A solid biomass fuel burning device used for domestic cooking water heating, smoking, roasting and simmering:

A. Furnace
C. Biomass oven
B. Cookstove
D. None of these

A

B. Cookstove

275
Q

The primary gas produced during anaerobic digestion of agricultural wastes:

A. CH4 & H2S
C. CH4 & CO
B. CH4 & CO2
D. All of these

A

B. CH4 & CO2

276
Q

C-N ratio suitable for anaerobic digestion of agriwaste:

A. 10:1 to 20:1
C. 30:1 to 40:1
B. 20:1 to 30:1
D. None of these

A

C. 30:1 to 40:1

277
Q

Cocomethyl ester, also known as biodiesel, is a non-toxic, eco-friendly fuel having similar properties as diesel fuel. The process of transesterifying raw vegetable oil into cocomethyl ester requires the use of.

A. Alcohol
C. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
D. Carbon dioxide

A

A. Alcohol

278
Q

Which illustrates proper anaerobic digestion process?

A. Biomass → saccharification → fermentation
C. Biomass → fermentation → liquefaction
B. Biomass → fermentation → saccharification
D. Biomass → liquefaction → saccharification

A

A. Biomass → saccharification → fermentation

279
Q

The Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) operating principle resembles a:

A. Refrigerator
C. Hydro power plant
B. Gasoline engine
D. Water tank

A

A. Refrigerator

280
Q

In an Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) system, what causes OTEC fluid to flow and rotate the turbine?

A. Bouyancy
C. Underwater current
B. Fluid pressure
D. Temperature difference

A

D. Temperature difference

281
Q

Which one is not a form of ocean energy.

A. Wave
C. Transtidal
B. Tidal
D. Thermal

A

C. Transtidal

282
Q

The geothermal power system resembles in principle to a;

A. Hot air balloon
C. Gas pump
B. Jet propulsion
D. Kettle

A

D. Kettle

283
Q

Which stage comes first in a geothermal power plant development?

A. Drilling
C. Energy demand survey
B. Geophysical survey
D. Chemical test

A

B. Geophysical survey

284
Q

Rotating part of a geothermal power plant which moves the generator.

A. Rotor
C. Motor
B. Rotator
D. Turbine

A

D. Turbine

285
Q

From the BiGSHOW acronym of renewable energy coverage, what “Bi” stands for?

A. Biomass
C. Biomass and biofuel
B. Biofuel
D. Biodiesel

A

C. Biomass and biofuel

286
Q

It is a toxic chemical with chemical formula CH3OH. Drinking even small amounts can cause blindness. It is used on a limited basis to fuel internal combustion engines, mainly by virtue of the fact that it is not nearly as flammable as gasoline. It is harder to ignite than gasoline and produces just one-eighth of the heat upon burning. It is also called wood alcohol:

A. Ethanol
C. Gasohol
B. Methanol
D. Isopropyl alcohol

A

B. Methanol

287
Q

What energy generating plant does not use turbine for power generation?

A. Hydro
C. Ocean-thermal
B. Geothermal
D. Biogas plant

A

D. Biogas plant

288
Q

The minimum methane content of biogas such that biogas-fueled generators will run.

A. 50%
C. 65%
B. 85%
D. 75%

A

C. 65%

289
Q

If water-manure ratio is 1:1, what is the approximate methane content of biogas?

A. 50%
C. 70%
B. 40%
D. 60%

A

D. 60%

290
Q

In covered lagoon biodigester where solids is less than 3%, what is approximate methane content in
biogas?

A. 50%
C. 70%
B. 40%
D. 60%

A

C. 70%

291
Q

The toxic gaseous by-product of geothermal power plants that is trace in biogas.

A. Carbon monoxide
C. Hydrogen sulfide
B. Hydrogen sulfate
D. Sulfuric acid

A

C. Hydrogen sulfide

292
Q

In the environment, by how many times is methane destructive than carbon dioxide?

A. 2 times
C. 10 times
B. 21 times
D. 16 times

A

B. 21 times

293
Q

Best type of biogas plant for large-scale animal farms having low solid content of effluents.

A. Fixed dome
C. Tube-bag
B. Floating type
D. Covered lagoon

A

D. Covered lagoon

294
Q

A 4-bladed wind pump with 7 meters rotor diameter and 45 degrees twist angle is to be modified due to insufficient starting torque. What should be done?

A. Increase twist angle
C. Decrease blades
B. Increase blades
D. Decrease twist angle

A

B. Increase blades

295
Q

Renewable Energy Act of 2008 is also known as:

A. RA 9367
C. RA 8559
B. RA 9513
D. RA 8435

A

B. RA 9513