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Area 1 > Agricultural Machinery, Design, Fabrication/Manufacturing and Testing > Flashcards

Agricultural Machinery, Design, Fabrication/Manufacturing and Testing Flashcards

1
Q

What year was the metric system first used in the Philippines?

A. 1980
C. 1982
B. 1981
D. 1983

A

D. 1983

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2
Q

A technical drawing that defines fully and clearly the requirements for engineered items.

A. Technical Specifications
C. Published Specifications
B. Detailed Specifications
D. Engineering Drawing

A

D. Engineering Drawing

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3
Q

When more strength is provided as extra margin of insurance against parts failure, it is referred to as:

A. Reliability
C. Factor of ignorance
B. Factor of safety
D. None of these

A

B. Factor of safety

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4
Q

If a large factor of safety is used in the design, the product will become:

A. Reliable
C. Efficient
B. Expensive
D. None of these

A

B. Expensive

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5
Q

The strength, durability and service of a farm machine depends largely on the:

A. Cost of materials
C. Quality of materials
B. Weight of materials
D. All of these

A

C. Quality of materials

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6
Q

Types of guards designed to prevent contact with the moving parts by a person and/or clothing:

A. Shield
C. Casing
B. Cover
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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7
Q

Machine element that transmits torque and power.

A. Pulley
C. Shaft
B. Bearing
D. None of these

A

C. Shaft

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8
Q

A device used to transmit power by connecting shafts together.

A. Flexible coupling
C. Both A and B
B. Rigid coupling
D. None of these

A

C. Both A and B

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9
Q

When a machine is driven directly from the shaft of a power source, the power is transmitted using:

A. Gear drive
C. Direct drive
B. Sprocket and chain drive
D. None of these

A

C. Direct drive

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10
Q

If the shaft of an engine rotates at the same speed with the shaft of the driven machine on the same axis, the transmission system is:

A. Belt and pulley
C. Direct coupled drives
B. Sprocket and chain
D. None of these

A

C. Direct coupled drives

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11
Q

A device usually used to connect two shafts in a direct-drive system.

A. Coupler
C. Pulley
B. Clutch
D. None of these

A

A. Coupler

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12
Q

. The direct type of power transmission system has a transmission efficiency of:

A. 90%
C. 98%
B. 95%
D. 100%

A

D. 100%

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13
Q

A power transmission device used to deliver misaligned shaft.

A. Gears
C. Universal joint
B. Sprocket and chain
D. None of these

A

C. Universal joint

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14
Q

A machine element used to drive flat belts.

A. Sheave
C. Pulley
B. Sprocket
D. None of these

A

C. Pulley

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15
Q

A pulley that is used to tighten the belt of a drive system.

A. Flat pulley
C. V-pulley
B. Idler pulley
D. None of these

A

B. Idler pulley

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16
Q

Type of power transmission system where clutch action is possible:

A. Gears
C. Belt and pulley
B. Chain and sprocket
D. Direct coupling

A

C. Belt and pulley

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17
Q

A belt transmission suitable for cross-drive system.

A. V-belt
C. Flat belt
B. Timing v-belt
D. None of these

A

C. Flat belt

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18
Q

If the pulley to be driven requires to be turned in counterclockwise direction, what drive system would you recommend?

A. Open drive
C. Cross-drive
B. Quarter-turn drive
D. All of these

A

C. Cross-drive

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19
Q

When one pulley is to be driven horizontally and the other pulley is to be driven vertically, what drive system would you recommend?

A. Open drive
C. Cross-drive
B. Quarter-turn drive
D. All of these

A

B. Quarter-turn drive

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20
Q

The drive used to run perpendicular shafts.

A. Open drive
C. Cross-drive
B. Quarter-turn drive
D. All of these

A

B. Quarter-turn drive

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21
Q

When buying flat belts, the common parameters used are:

A. Width and thickness
C. Width and weight
B. Width and ply number
D. None of these

A

B. Width and ply number

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22
Q

Designations for standard V-belt are:

A. A, B, C, D
C. AA-BB-CC-DD
B. HA, HB, HC, HD
D. None of these

A

A. A, B, C, D

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23
Q

A V-belt with B-32 specification means:

A. Type B with circumferential length of 32 inches
B. Standard type V-belt whose strength is 32 times stronger than type B
C. Type B with circumferential length of 32 cm
D. None of these

A

A. Type B with circumferential length of 32 inches

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24
Q

Which of the following V-belts is larger and stronger?

A. Type A
C. Type C
B. Type B
D. None of these

A

C. Type C

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25
Q

The commonly used V-belt in the Philippines for agricultural operations.

A. Type A
C. Type C
B. Type B
D. None of these

A

B. Type B

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26
Q

The power rating of Type-B V-belt.

A. 0.186 to 1.457 kW
C. 11.186 to 74.570 kW
B. 0.764 to 18.642 kW
D. None of these

A

B. 0.764 to 18.642 kW

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27
Q

Timing belt is commonly known as:

A. Conventional flat belts
C. Positive drive belts
B. Grooved belts
D. None of these

A

C. Positive drive belts

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28
Q

For variable-pitch sheaves, the recommended belts to be used are:

A. Double V-belt
C. Adjustable-speed belt
B. Timing V-belt
D. None of these

A

C. Adjustable-speed belt

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29
Q

A ribbed-type V-belt in which the ribs are positioned along the belt length.

A. V-ribbed belt
C. Timing belt
B. Cogged belt
D. None of these

A

A. V-ribbed belt

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30
Q

A ribbed-type V-belt in which the ribs are positioned across the belt length.

A. V-ribbed belt
C. Timing belt
B. Cogged belt
D. None of these

A

B. Cogged belt

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31
Q

Which is true about V-belt and pulley drive?

A. It cannot be used for long center distance drive
C. Efficiency drops with small pulley size
B. Its application is limited only for parallel drive
D. Excessive high load increases efficiency

A

C. Efficiency drops with small pulley size

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32
Q

Which of the following statement is true?

A. The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is faster than its forward velocity
B. The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is slower than its forward velocity
C. The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is the same with the forward velocity
D. None of these

A

A. The velocity of the flat belt of a reaper is faster than its forward velocity

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33
Q

If some of the belts of a multiple V-belt drive are worn out, it is recommended that:

A. Worn-out belts should be immediately replaced
B. Wait until all belts are worn-out before replacing them
C. All belts should be replaced
D. None of these

A

C. All belts should be replaced

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34
Q

They are endless belts made with single ply high tensile cords and they are oil and heat resistant.

A. Leather belts
C. Rubber belts
B. Synthetic belts
D. Nylon cords

A

D. Nylon cords

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35
Q

This type of transmission system is common to two-wheel tractors:

A. Direct coupling
C. Gear systems
B. Chain and sprockets
D. Differential

A

B. Chain and sprockets

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36
Q

Recommended chain and sprocket drive for tractor powered by 3.73 to 5.22 kW gasoline engine.

A. ANSI chain number 50
C. ANSI chain number 70
B. ANSI chain number 60
D. All of these

A

A. ANSI chain number 50

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37
Q

Recommended chain and sprocket drive for tractor powered by 5.22 kW and above gasoline engine.

A. ANSI chain number 50
C. ANSI chain number 70
B. ANSI chain number 60
D. All of these

A

B. ANSI chain number 60

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38
Q

The minimum size of chain for the transmission box of a walking-type hand tractor.

A. ANSI chain number 40
C. ANSI chain number 60
B. ANSI chain number 50
D. All of these

A

B. ANSI chain number 50

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39
Q

The length of chains is usually expressed in:

A. Inches
C. Pitches
B. Meters
D. All of these

A

C. Pitches

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40
Q

Chain size is usually specified in terms of:

A. Diameter of roller chain
C. Roller chain number
B. Length of chain
D. All of these

A

C. Roller chain number

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41
Q

The slack strand for chain with horizontal center should be located at the:

A. Upper side
C. Both sides
B. Lower side
D. None of these

A

B. Lower side

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42
Q

Which is not true about chains?

A. Adapted to long or short distances
B. A large reduction of speed can be obtained if desired
C. Size of sprocket and speed increases with the number of teeth
D. With a large number of teeth, the angle of rotation will be also large

A

D. With a large number of teeth, the angle of rotation will be also large

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43
Q

For slow-speed operation, the recommended number of teeth for driver sprocket is:

A. 11 teeth
C. 24 teeth
B. 16 teeth
D. None of these

A

B. 16 teeth

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44
Q

The recommended minimum number of sprocket teeth for high-speed operation.

A. 14-16 teeth
C. 28-30 teeth
B. 18-24 teeth
D. None of these

A

B. 18-24 teeth

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45
Q

Type of transmission system where the speed ratio depends on the teeth ratio of the two members:

A. Gears
C. Belt and pulley
B. Chain and sprocket
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

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46
Q

A drive suitable for counter clockwise direction of shafts:

A. Open drive belt
C. Gears
B. Chain and sprocket
D. All of these

A

C. Gears

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47
Q

Type of power transmission system where the center-to-center distance between shafts is dictated by the diameters of the members.

A. Direct coupling
C. Belt and pulley
B. Chain and sprocket
D. Gears

A

D. Gears

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48
Q

Gears are used for agricultural machinery because:

A. They are expensive and durable
B. They transmit high power and efficiency and with long service life
C. They have low operating and maintenance costs
D. None of these

A

B. They transmit high power and efficiency and with long service life

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49
Q

The most common type of gear used in agricultural machinery with straight and parallel teeth to the shaft axis.

A. Worm gear
C. Spur gear
B. Bevel gear
D. All of these

A

C. Spur gear

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50
Q

A type of gear commonly used for gear reducers or gear motors.

A. Worm gear
C. Spur gear
B. Bevel gear
D. None of these

A

A. Worm gear

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51
Q

A type of gear used for power-take off drive.

A. Worm gear
C. Spline shaft gear
B. Bevel gear
D. None of these

A

C. Spline shaft gear

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52
Q

A type of gear used to connect an implement shaft to the tractor PTO shaft.

A. Spur gear
C. Spline shaft gear
B. Bevel gear
D. None of these

A

C. Spline shaft gear

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53
Q

The smallest gears that are meshing together.

A. Spur
C. Pinion
B. Bevel
D. None of these

A

C. Pinion

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54
Q

A type of gear used to transmit rotational motion and power between parallel shafts.

A. Helical gear
C. Worm gear
B. Bevel gear
D. None of these

A

A. Helical gear

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55
Q

A type of gear used for intersecting shaft usually at right angles.

A. Spur gear
C. Worm gear
B. Bevel gear
D. None of these

A

B. Bevel gear

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56
Q

A type of gear used to transmit rotational motion and power between intersecting shafts.

A. Spur gear
C. Helical gear
B. Bevel gear
D. None of these

A

B. Bevel gear

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57
Q

The projecting part of a gear that comes in contact with the other gear resulting in an opposite direction.

A. Gear module
C. Gear pitch circle
B. Gear tooth
D. None of these

A

B. Gear tooth

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58
Q

The spacing of gear teeth which is measured along the pitch circle.

A. Addendum
C. Circular pitch
B. Dedendum
D. None of these

A

C. Circular pitch

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59
Q

It is used to fasten shaft pulleys and hubs of gears together.

A. Bolt
C. Keys
B. Springs
D. None of these

A

C. Keys

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60
Q

These are multiple keys in the general form of internal and external gear teeth, used to prevent relative rotation of cylindrically fitted machine parts?

A. Rigid couplings
C. Square splines
B. Involute splines
D. Friction clutches

A

B. Involute splines

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61
Q

Standard number of splines for PTO shaft.

A. 6 spline
C. 21 spline
B. 20 spline
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

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62
Q

Device that connects and disconnects power input to the power output.

A. Chain
C. Spring
B. Clutch
D. None of these

A

B. Clutch

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63
Q

It is a gripping device between power source.

A. Gears
C. Pulley
B. Clutch
D. None of these

A

B. Clutch

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64
Q

The type of clutch used to drive a machine element in only one direction.

A. Slip clutch
C. Friction clutch
B. Overrunning clutch
D. None of these

A

B. Overrunning clutch

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65
Q

The type of clutch that limits the amount of torque or power transmitted to the driven member through the shaft.

A. Slip clutch
C. Friction clutch
B. Overrunning clutch
D. None of these

A

A. Slip clutch

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66
Q

It is a metallic or synthetic lining for a hole which reduces or prevents abrasion between components of a machine.

A. Bearing
C. Gasket
B. Bushing
D. All of these

A

B. Bushing

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67
Q

A type of bearing used to restrain endwise motion of a turning shaft or withstand axial load.

A. Ball bearing
C. Roller bearing
B. Thrust bearing
D. None of these

A

B. Thrust bearing

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68
Q

A type of bearing with roller length at least 4 times than its diameter and is suitable for heavy load, oscillating and low speed.

A. Cylindrical roller bearing
C. Tapered roller bearing
B. Needle bearing
D. None of these

A

B. Needle bearing

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69
Q

A type of bearing suitable for heavy radial load and free from axial load.

A. Cylindrical roller bearing
C. Tapered roller bearing
B. Ball bearing
D. None of these

A

A. Cylindrical roller bearing

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70
Q

A type of bearing suitable for both radial and thrust loads:

A. Cylindrical roller bearing
C. Needle bearing
B. Ball bearing
D. None of these

A

B. Ball bearing

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71
Q

A type of bearing excellent for heavy radial load and moderate thrust load:

A. Spherical roller bearing
C. Tapered roller bearing
B. Ball bearing
D. None of these

A

C. Tapered roller bearing

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72
Q

A machine element used to keep castellated nut from loosening.

A. Roller pin
C. Both A and B
B. Cotter pin
D. None of these

A

B. Cotter pin

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73
Q

The identification of the given tire with its maximum recommended load when used in a specific type of
service.

A. Tire rating
C. Ply rating
B. Tire lug rating
D. All of these

A

C. Ply rating

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74
Q

The maximum tire inflation pressure for agricultural implements.

A. 40 psi
C. 100 psi
B. 60 psi
D. None of these

A

B. 60 psi

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75
Q

What type of fastener is used to fasten a metal part to wood?

A. Machine bolt
C. Carriage bolt
B. Lag screw
D. None of these

A

C. Carriage bolt

76
Q

Washers are primarily used:

A. To tighten bolt-and-nut connection
C. To reduce compressive stress
B. To increase bearing surface
D. To increase friction

A

B. To increase bearing surface

77
Q

The size of screw driver is measured by:

A. The length of the blade
C. Its diameter
B. Its overall length
D. None of these

A

A. The length of the blade

78
Q

Which fastener has a cross-mark slot on its head?

A. Flat head
C. Square head
B. Phillips head
D. All of these

A

B. Phillips head

79
Q

Wrought iron, steel, cast iron, pig iron are all:

A. Alloys
C. Non-ferrous metals
B. Ferrous metals
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

80
Q

A steel containing 0.035 – 0.4% carbon and is widely used for production of steel plate, structural steel, bars, etc.

A. Mild steel
C. Soft centered steel
B. Hard steel
D. All of these

A

A. Mild steel

81
Q

Material recommended by PAES for use as implement frame:

A. Mild steel
C. Spring steel
B. Cold rolled steel
D. None of these

A

A. Mild steel

82
Q

Material recommended by PAES in the manufacture of disk blade:

A. Mild steel
C. Cast iron
B. Carbon steel
D. None of these

A

B. Carbon steel

83
Q

Ferrous metals are metals that contain:

A. Copper
C. Iron
B. Aluminum
D. All of these

A

C. Iron

84
Q

Materials that are usually very corrosion resistant and are used mostly for food handling equipment:

A. Copper
C. Lead
B. Mild steel
D. Stainless steel

A

D. Stainless steel

85
Q

It is a kind of steel used in making disk plow bottom.

A. Tool steel
C. Molybdenum steel
B. Soft-centered steel
D. None of these

A

B. Soft-centered steel

86
Q

The thickness of a metal sheet is designed by a series of numbers called:

A. Schedule
C. SAE number
B. Gauge number
D. Ply rating

A

B. Gauge number

87
Q

Metals high in weldability are usually high in:

A. Fusibility
C. Ductility
B. Malleability
D. All of these

A

A. Fusibility

88
Q

What property of metal refers to its ability to resist penetration?

A. Hardness
C. Strength
B. Toughness
D. All of these

A

A. Hardness

89
Q

Ductility which is one of the properties of metals refers to:

A. How much the material absorb impact before it breaks
B. How much the material is deformed
C. Its resistance to penetration
D. All of these

A

B. How much the material is deformed

90
Q

Refers to tools that are driven by electric motor, hydraulics, air, gas engine, or forces other than, or in addition to human power. They are generally stationary and are usually fixed in the shop

A. Portable power tools
C. Hand tools
B. Power machines
D. Power tools

A

B. Power machines

91
Q

A hand tool that permits the creation of threads on rods and shafts:

A. Taps and die
C. Tap wrench and tap
B. Lathe machine
D. Die and die stock

A

D. Die and die stock

92
Q

Basic hand tools for engine maintenance.

A. Open wrench
C. Screw driver (Philip and Flat)
B. Adjustable wrench
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

93
Q

Power machines that cut sheet metals, angle bars, round bars, or square bars by shear action of two moveable blades that are made to move by maximized leverage:

A. Sheet metal circular cutter
C. Square shearing cutter
B. Metal cutting power saw
D. Power shear

A

D. Power shear

94
Q

A device suitable for cutting stainless steel plate.

A. Shear cutter
C. Acetylene gas cutter
B. Plasma cutter
D. All of these

A

B. Plasma cutter

95
Q

Tools that are used to make holes or change the shape or size of holes are called:

A. Layout tools
C. Cutting tools
B. Boring tools
D. Driving tools

A

B. Boring tools

96
Q

Clamps, pliers are all examples of:

A. Layout tools
C. Cutting tools
B. Turning tools
D. Holding tools

A

D. Holding tools

97
Q

The maximum horizontal projection of a tool in the soil perpendicular to the line of motion:

A. Tool width
C. Tool operating width
B. Tool clearance
D. Tool orientation

A

A. Tool width

98
Q

Its design and structure permit it to drive large drill bits and apply heavy pressures on the bits.

A. Hand drill
C. Breast drill
B. Drill press
D. Ratchet brace

A

B. Drill press

99
Q

Which of the following welding equipment is most suitable in welding copper and aluminum?

A. Arc welding machine
C. TIG welding machine
B. MIG welding machine
D. None of these

A

C. TIG welding machine

100
Q

Which of the following welding equipment uses argon gas as cooling element?

A. Arc welding machine
C. TIG welding machine
B. MIG welding machine
D. All of these

A

C. TIG welding machine

101
Q

Which of the following welding equipment uses carbon dioxide gas as cooling element?

A. Arc welding machine
C. TIG welding machine
B. MIG welding machine
D. All of these

A

B. MIG welding machine

102
Q

Which of the following welding equipment does not use any gas as cooling element?

A. Arc welding machine
C. TIG welding machine
B. MIG welding machine
D. All of these

A

A. Arc welding machine

103
Q

Which of the following uses a flux coated welding rod?

A. Arc welding machine
C. Oxyacetylene welding equipment
B. MIG welding machine
D. All of these

A

A. Arc welding machine

104
Q

A welding process that uses an electrode.

A. Gas welding
C. Arc welding
B. Resistance welding
D. None of these

A

C. Arc welding

105
Q

When heat alone is used to melt and flow metal together, the process is known as:

A. Soldering
C. Fusion Welding
B. Pressure welding
D. None of these

A

C. Fusion Welding

106
Q

A welding process commonly used for thin metal sheets.

A. Brazing
C. Spot welding
B. Soldering
D. None of these

A

B. Soldering

107
Q

Welding by heating and then forcing the pieces together is called:

A. Pressure welding
C. Fusion Welding
B. Inertia Welding
D. All of these

A

A. Pressure welding

108
Q

The other term used for resistance or spot welding.

A. Full welding
C. Intermittent welding
B. Tack welding
D. None of these

A

B. Tack welding

109
Q

A form of resistance welding used for welding sheet metal is:

A. Arc welding
C. Spot Welding
B. Gas welding
D. None of these

A

C. Spot Welding

110
Q

Spot welding is a form of welding known as:

A. Flow welding
C. Forge welding
B. Resistance welding
D. None of these

A

B. Resistance welding

111
Q

A welding process wherein current is allowed to pass through the prongs of the welding machine which joined two metal sheets together.

A. Oxyacetylene welding
C. Arc welding
B. Resistance welding
D. None of these

A

B. Resistance Welding

112
Q

A welding process that welds two pieces of metal sheets together using the flow of electric current of around 120,000 Amp.

A. Plasma welding
C. Arc welding
B. Resistance welding
D. None of these

A

B. Resistance welding

113
Q

A gas-metallic arc welding which uses inert gas shielding to produce a cleaner and sounder weld compare with conventional welding.

A. Gas welding
C. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

114
Q

A widely used method of welding aluminum, copper, stainless steel, and other difficult-to-weld metals.

A. Gas welding
C. TIG welding
B. MIG welding
D. All of these

A

C. TIG welding

115
Q

The component of a welding machine used to mix the gas and the oxygen in an oxyacetylene welding equipment.

A. Hose
C. Regulator
B. Torch
D. None of these

A

C. Regulator

116
Q

In oxyacetylene welding, if the mixture of oxygen is too much with the acetylene, it will produce:

A. Carbonizing flame
C. Neutral flame
B. Oxidation flame
D. None of these

A

B. Oxidation flame

117
Q

If acetylene is too much with the oxygen, it will produce:

A. Carbonizing flame
C. Neutral flame
B. Oxidation flame
D. None of these

A

A. Carbonizing flame

118
Q

If there is a proper mixture of acetylene and oxygen, it will produce:

A. Carbonizing flame
C. Neutral flame
B. Oxidation flame
D. None of these

A

C. Neutral flame

119
Q

A method of welding that uses nonferrous rod heated with oxyacetylene torch at a temperature relatively above 427°C.

A. Soldering
C. Resistance welding
B. Brazing
D. All of these

A

B. Brazing

120
Q

The mixing of two or more substances one of which is iron.

A. Casting
C. Alloying
B. Forging
D. All of these

A

C. Alloying

121
Q

The process of heating and cooling metals in their solid state so as to change their properties.

A. Tempering
C. Hardening
B. Heat treatment
D. None of these

A

B. Heat treatment

122
Q

A heat treatment method to increase the hardness of steel by rapid cooling.

A. Tempering
C. Annealing
B. Quenching
D. None of these

A

B. Quenching

123
Q

Hardened piece of high-carbon steel to prevent cracks or shatters requires an additional heat treatment process called _______, which is done by allowing the material to slowly cool to ambient for a longer period of time, before it can be used.

A. Tempering
C. Hardening
B. Quenching
D. None of these

A

A. Tempering

124
Q

The process of heating metal slowly to proper hardening temperature and then cooling rapidly by quenching in water, brine or oil.

A. Tempering
C. Hardening
B. Quenching
D. None of these

A

C. Hardening

125
Q

The process of forming metal by pushing it on a metal die.

A. Extrusion
C. Rolling
B. Forging
D. None of these

A

A. Extrusion

126
Q

The process of making products by pouring melted metal into a mold and then allowing it to cool.

A. Casting
C. Hot working process
B. Powder metallurgy
D. None of these

A

A. Casting

127
Q

The cutting of holes on a material by means of shearing process.

A. Drilling
C. Boring
B. Punching
D. None of these

A

B. Punching

128
Q

Filing is classified as:

A. Cold working
C. Casting
B. Hot working
D. None of these

A

A. Cold working

129
Q

The metal that is melted from a piece being joined is called the:

A. Filler metal
C. Base metal
B. Weld metal
D. None of these

A

A. Filler metal

130
Q

The most common form of gas welding uses the gases:

A. Acetylene and air
C. Acetylene and oxygen
B. Acetylene and hydrogen
D. All of these

A

C. Acetylene and oxygen

131
Q

The producer of one or several types of farm machinery and usually does not sell other items from other manufacturers.

A. Manufacturer
C. Dealer
B. Manufacturer-dealer
D. None of these

A

A. Manufacturer

132
Q

These producers manufacture their own line of items and sell together with either consigned items or several brands of single cylinder engines, pumps, pump set, and other types of farm machinery.

A. Manufacturer
C. Dealer
B. Manufacturer-dealer
D. None of these

A

B. Manufacturer-dealer

133
Q

They carry several items and brand from varied sources and usually do not engage in manufacture and fabrication.

A. Manufacturer
C. Dealer
B. Manufacturer-dealer
D. None of these

A

C. Dealer

134
Q

A manufacturer capable of mass-producing agricultural machines for it has almost a complete line of equipment needed in manufacturing.

A. Small-size manufacturer
C. Large-size manufacturer
B. Medium-size manufacturer
D. None of these

A

C. Large-size manufacturer

135
Q

A manufacturing enterprise capable of manufacturing agricultural machines by piece only.

A. Small-size manufacturer
C. Large-size manufacturer
B. Medium-size manufacturer
D. None of these

A

A. Small-size manufacturer

136
Q

A manufacturer capable to operate and produce agricultural machine by batch and does mass production of small machines whenever needed.

A. Small-size manufacturer
C. Large-size manufacturer
B. Medium-size manufacturer
D. None of these

A

B. Medium-size manufacturer

137
Q

A classification of manufacturer that fabricate only one machine at a time and usually has one to two workers commissioned to do the entire work to produce the machine.

A. By piece
C. By mass production
B. By batch
D. None of these

A

A. By piece

138
Q

A classification of manufacturer that fabricate the machine in several number of pieces as per contract with the dealer.

A. By piece
C. By mass production
B. By batch
D. None of these

A

B. By batch

139
Q

A classification of manufacturer that produces a machine beyond the number of pieces produced in the batch system and still produce the machine, even without direct order or purchase from the customer or dealer, for possible unseen market.

A. By piece
C. By mass production
B. By batch
D. None of these

A

C. By mass production

140
Q

The criteria used in evaluating the performance of a machine:

A. Reliability of machine
C. Cost of operation
B. Environment and safety
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

141
Q

Preliminary tests need to be done in testing the machine so the machine will:

A. Be seen by test engineers and helpers before testing it
C. Be easy to be tested
B. Be kept in best working condition
D. All of these

A

B. Be kept in best working condition

142
Q

A preliminary operation of the machine to make various adjustments prior to the conduct of test until the operation is stable:

A. Functionality Test
C. Running-In Period
B. First Test
D. All of these

A

C. Running-In Period

143
Q

In testing agricultural machines, as prescribed in the PAES standard of test, it should be operated by:

A. Farmers
C. Accredited testing organization
B. Manufacturer(s) representative
D. None of these

A

B. Manufacturer(s) representative

144
Q

The holding capacity of a mechanical dryer during testing, as prescribed by PAES, should be based on the ___ of the sample and other accompanying information such as moisture content and purity:

A. Volume
C. Density
B. Weight
D. None of these

A

B. Weight

145
Q

Based on the PAES standard, milling test of samples in testing a mechanical grain dryer should be conducted at least ___ after drying:

A. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
B. 36 hours
D. None of these

A

A. 24 hours

146
Q

The interval of time measurement of test parameters in a heated-air mechanical grain dryer, as specified
in the PAES Test Method.

A. 15 minutes
C. 45 minutes
B. 30 minutes
D. 60 minutes

A

B. 30 minutes

147
Q

The maximum moisture content of grains to be used in testing mechanical threshers should not be more than.

A. 18%
C. 28%
B. 24%
D. None of these

A

B. 24%

148
Q

The grain-straw ratio for samples to be used for testing a mechanical rice thresher should be at ___range.

A. 0.35 to 0.50
C. 0.65 to 0.80
B. 0.50 to 0.65
D. None of these

A

B. 0.50 to 0.65

149
Q

The required water temperature in testing pumps.

A. 10°C and below
C. 40°C - 60°C
B. 10°C – 40°C
D. None of these

A

B. 10°C – 40°C

150
Q

The recommended test material for testing a rice thresher should have ___ straw length.

A. 30 to 45 cm
C. 50 to 65 cm
B. 45 to 50 cm
D. None of these

A

B. 45 to 50 cm

151
Q

The minimum permissible noise for power tillers.

A. 85 db
C. 98 db
B. 92 db
D. None of these

A

B. 92 db

152
Q

The minimum area required for testing a power-operated seeder.

A. Not less than 100 m2
C. Not less than 1000 m2
B. Not less than 500 m2
D. None of these

A

C. Not less than 1000 m2

153
Q

The minimum operating time Testing Agricultural Machinery required for testing a power tiller without breakdown and malfunction.

A. 1 hour
C. 8 hours
B. 5 hours
D. None of these

A

B. 5 hours

154
Q

The minimum number of hours required in testing rice threshers based on PAES standards.

A. 0.5 hour
C. 2 hours
B. 1 hour
D. None of these

A
155
Q

Usually in determining the ambient conditions during testing of a mechanical dryer, the surrounding ______ are measured.

A. Air temperature and humidity
C. Air velocity and humidity
B. Air temperature and velocity
D. None of these

A

A. Air temperature and humidity

156
Q

When testing a paddy dryer, the capacity is determined by the:

A. Weight of input paddy
C. Weight of dried paddy over time
B. Weight of dried paddy
D. None of these

A

A. Weight of input paddy

156
Q

When testing a rice mill, the throughput capacity is determined as:

A. Weight of paddy input over time
C. Weight of milled rice output over time
B. Weight of brown rice output over time
D. None of these

A

C. Weight of milled rice output over time

157
Q

When testing a rice thresher, the throughput capacity is:

A. Weight of clean threshed grain over time
C. Weight of panicle fed over time
B. Weight of paddy input after removing the straw over time
D. None of these

A

A. Weight of clean threshed grain over time

158
Q

In testing animal-drawn and power operated agricultural machines, the test plot is required to be in a ________ shape:

A. Square
C. Rectangular
B. Triangular
D. None of these

A

C. Rectangular

159
Q

The required length-to-width ratio of a test plot for animal-drawn and power operated agricultural
machines.

A. 2:1
C. 6:3
B. 4:2
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

All is 2:1

160
Q

The required distance in measuring the operational speed of an agricultural machine during testing.

A. 10 m
C. 30 m
B. 20 m
D. None of these

A

B. 20 m

161
Q

The effective field capacity of the machine is the area tilled over the:

A. Productive time
C. Non-productive time
B. Productive and non-productive time
D. None of these

A

A. Productive time

161
Q

Adjusting the machine should be done when testing as per recommendation by:

A. The operator
C. The test engineer
B. The manufacturer
D. None of these

A

B. The manufacturer

162
Q

After testing and evaluating the machine, the preliminary report must be submitted within:

A. 1 month
C. 3 months
B. 2 months
D. None of these

A

C. 3 months

163
Q

Once the final testing and evaluation is submitted, the validity of the machine performance under
AMTEC Accreditation will be within:

A. 3 years
C. 7 years
B. 5 years
D. None of these

A

B. 5 years

164
Q

If the machine cost P50,000.00 and below, it is _____ testing and evaluation by AMTEC:

A. Required to undergo
C. Both A and B
B. Not required to undergo
d. NOTA

A

B. Not required to undergo

165
Q

Machines for research and development including those for pilot testing is _______ testing and
evaluation:

A. Required to undergo
C. Both A and B
B. Not required to undergo
D. None of these

A

D. None of these

166
Q

Which of the following are the rating classification of the engine power output:

A. Maximum Rating
C. Continuous Rating
B. Standby/Intermittent Rating
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

167
Q

Which of the following rating classifications of the engine power output that is based on the engine test?

A. Maximum Rating
C. Continuous Rating
B. Standby/Intermittent Rating
D. None of these

A

A. Maximum Rating

168
Q

Which of the rating classification uses a factor of 75 to 80% of the rated maximum power output?

A. Maximum Rating
C. Continuous Rating
B. Standby/Intermittent Rating
D. None of these

A

C. Continuous Rating

169
Q

Which of the engine rating Testing Agricultural Machinery classifications uses a factor of 90% of the maximum rated power output?

A. Maximum Rating
C. Continuous Rating
B. Standby/Intermittent Rating
D. None of these

A

B. Standby/Intermittent Rating

170
Q

The highest power the engine can attain at any given speed.

A. Maximum power
C. Total power
B. Peak power
D. None of these

A

A. Maximum power

171
Q

The power an engine recommended by the manufacturer for satisfactory operation under continuous
duty condition at its rate shaft speed.

A. Maximum power
C. Duty power
B. Continuous power
D. All of these

A

B. Continuous power

172
Q

If the engine during cold start requires 12 attempts before the engine starts, the engine is considered as _____ engine.

A. Easy to start
C. Cannot be started
B. Hard to start
D. All of these

A

B. Hard to start

173
Q

During engine varying load test, it is required that at least ____ of the rated maximum output power is achieved.

A. 60%
C. 80%
B. 70%
D. 90%

A

C. 80%

174
Q

The performance curve of the engine which shows the output power, torque, fuel consumption, and specific fuel consumption plotted against engine shaft speed should be operated at _____ throttle setting.

A. ½
C. Full
B. ¾
D. None of these

A

C. Full

175
Q

The output power of the engine specified on the nameplate at the rated engine speed.

A. Rated maximum power output
C. Rated standby power output
B. Rated continuous power output
D. None of these

A

B. Rated continuous power output

176
Q

If no rating on continuous power output is indicated in the nameplate of the engine, it is required that ___ of the rated maximum power at the rated engine speed should be attained.

A. 60%
C. 80%
B. 70%
D. 90%

A

C. 80%

177
Q

When testing of the engine will not be pursued anymore, the test is considered:

A. Stopped
C. Terminated
B. Suspended
D. None of these

A

C. Terminated

178
Q

In testing the field capacity and field efficiency of a machine, the____:

A. Non-working time should be eliminated
B. Overall time used should be considered
C. Speed of the machine should only be considered
D. None of these

A

A. Non-working time should be eliminated

179
Q

In testing rice threshers, the threshing recovery is determined by the amount of ___, expressed as percent by weight.

A. Threshed grains at the main outlet of the thresher with respect to the weight of paddy and panicle
input
B. Threshed grains at the main outlet of the thresher with respect to the total grain input
C. Threshed grains from the different outlets with respect to the total grain input
D. None of these

A

B. Threshed grains at the main outlet of the thresher with respect to the total grain input

180
Q

In testing rice threshers, the threshing efficiency is determined by the amount of:

A. Threshed grains received at all outlets divided by the total grain input times 100
B. Threshed grains received at all the outlets divided by the input paddy fed into the machine multiplied
by 100
C. Threshed grains from the paddy straw outlet to the total grain input multiplied by 100
D. None of these

A

A. Threshed grains received at all outlets divided by the total grain input times 100

181
Q

In testing agricultural machines, the first thing that the engineer must do is:

A. To prepare the instruments and data sheet needed for the test
B. To get acquainted with the construction and operation features of the machine
C. To figure out what testing procedure to be done
D. None of these

A

B. To get acquainted with the construction and operation features of the machine

182
Q

The actual field capacity of a tractor and plowing implement can be determined by:

A. Measuring the velocity of travel of the tractor multiplied by the width of cut of the implement
B. Measuring the area plowed by the tractor divided by the time it finishes the operation
C. Measuring the area plowed by the tractor multiplied by the travel speed
D. None of these

A

B. Measuring the area plowed by the tractor divided by the time it finishes the operation

183
Q

The amount of fuel consumed by a machine during the test can be simply determined by.

A. Measuring the amount of fuel remaining in the tank after testing using a volumetric flask
B. Filling the tank with fuel and the amount of fuel added to make the tank full is the amount of fuel
used
C. Starting with empty tank and then the amount of fuel gradually added is the amount of fuel used
D. None of these

A

B. Filling the tank with fuel and the amount of fuel added to make the tank full is the amount of fuel
used

Area 1 (5 decks)

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