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F. Restorative Dentistry and Comdent > Post Test > Flashcards

Post Test Flashcards

1
Q

Tooth 45 has a class I composite restoration but there is a dark shadow on the distal marginal ridge. What is the ICDAS code for this?

A. Code 34
B. Code 33
C. Code 63
D. Code 64

A

A. Code 34

NOTES:
ICDAS
First number: Restoration status
0- unrestored/ unsealed
1- partial sealant
2- full sealant
3- tooth colored restoration
4- amalgam restoration
5- SSC
6- Porcelain, Gold or preformed metal crown/veneer
7- lost/damaged restoration
8- temporary restoration

Second number: Caries Severity
0- Sound
1- First visual change in enamel
2- Distinct visual change in enamel
3- Localized enamel breakdown due to caries with no visible dentin
4- Dark shadow from dentin (with or without enamel breakdown)
5- Distinct cavity with visible dentin (<1/2 occlusal surface)
6- Extensive Distinct cavity with visible dentin (<1/2 occlusal surface)

MISSING CONDITIONS
97- Missing due to caries
98- Missing due to other reasons
99- Unerupted tooth

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2
Q

Refers tho the shape, border, design of prepared cavity including all enamel surfaces involved in decalcification?

A. Outline form
B. Resistance form
C. Convenience form
D. Finishing of cavity walls

A

A. Outline form

NOTES:

Outline form
- External and internal shape and form of the cavity preparation

Resistance form
- Shape and form of the cavity and restoration that best enables it to withstand occlusal forces without fracturing

Retention form
- Shape and form of the cavity that permits the restoration to resist displacement in a bucco-lingual and occlusal direction

Convenience form
- Shape and form of the cavity that provides adequate visibility and accessibility in preparing and restoring the cavity

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3
Q

A classification of composite with filler size of 0.04 - 0.4 micron. It is characterized by relatively high packing density, an can be finished and polished very smoothly.

A. Conventional
B. Microfill
C. Hybrid
D. nanofilled

A

B. Microfill

NOTES:

INORGANIC FILLERS
Megafill
- 0.5 - 2.0mm

Macrofill
- 10- 100 microns

Midifill
- 1 - 10 microns

Minifill
- 0.1 - 1 micron

Microfill
- 0.04 - 0.1 micron

Nanofill
- 0.005 - 0.01 micron

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4
Q

All of the following are true concerning a class V amalgam preparation, except one. Which one is the exception?

A. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin
B. The mesial, distal, gingival and incisal walls of the cavity preparation diverge outward
C. The retention form is provided by the gingival retention groove along the gingival axial line angle and an incisal retention groove along the incisoaxial angle
D. A cervical clamp is usually necessary to retract gingival tissues

A

A. The outline form is determined primarily by the location of the free gingival margin
The outline form is determined primarily by the EXTENT OF THE CARIES.

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5
Q

The number of point angles in a mesio- occlusal preparation

A. 6
B. 4
C. 7
D. 3

A

A. 6

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6
Q

The following are the main factors that lead to the development of caries according to the Modified-Keyes Jordan Diagram, except?

A. Time
B. Cariogenic biofilm
C. Poor oral hygiene
D. Fermentable carbohydrates

A

C. Poor oral hygiene

NOTES:
MODIFIED KEYES-JORDAN DIAGRAM
1. Host
2. Microorganism (Cariogenic biofilm)
3. Substrate (Fermentable carbohydrates)
4. Time

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7
Q

Main bacteria associated with dentin caries

A. S. Aureus
B. L. Acidophilus
C. S. Mutans
D. A. Viscosus

A

B. L. Acidophilus

NOTES:
S. Aureus - pus/ abscess
S. Mutans- enamel
L. Acidophilus- dentin
A. Viscosus- cementum

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8
Q

Shape given to the tooth to avoid fracture of the remaining tooth or restoration

A. Outline form
B. Resistance form
C. Retention form
D. Prevention form

A

B. Resistance form

NOTES:

Outline form
- External and internal shape and form of the cavity preparation

Resistance form
- Shape and form of the cavity and restoration that best enables it to withstand occlusal forces without fracturing

Retention form
- Shape and form of the cavity that permits the restoration to resist displacement in a bucco-lingual and occlusal direction

Convenience form
- Shape and form of the cavity that provides adequate visibility and accessibility in preparing and restoring the cavity

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9
Q

The functional end of a hand instrument that contains the cutting edge

A. Blade
B. Shank
C. Shaft
D. Handle

A

A. Blade

NOTES:
PARTS OF HAND INSTRUMENTS:
- Shaft/ Handle
- Shank (connect)
- Working end
Blade (cutting instrument)
Nib (non-cutting instrument)

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10
Q

Caries located on the proximal surface of a tooth

A. I
B. II
C. V
D. None of the above

A

B. II

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11
Q

It allows the precise control of the working end, permits a wide range of movement, facilitates good tactile conduction

A. Modified pen grasp
B. Inverted pen grasp
C. Dental ergonomics
D. Palm and thumb grasp

A

A. Modified pen grasp

NOTES:
Modified pen grasp
- It allows the precise control of the working end, permits a wide range of movement, facilitates good tactile conduction

Inverted pen grasp
- Finger positions are the same as for the modified pen, the hand is rotated, palm faces more toward the operator
- Used mostly for tooth preparations employing the lingual approach on anterior teeth

Palm and thumb grasp
- Handle is in the palm of the hand and grasped by all fingers
- Tip of the thumb rests on a stable structure to provide support
- Holding the Handpiece for cutting incisal retention for a class III preparation on a mx incisor

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12
Q

The ability of the handpiece to withstand lateral pressure on the revolving tool without decreasing its speed or reducing its cutting efficiency

A. Torque
B. Concentricity
C. Runout
D. Rake angle

A

A. Torque

NOTES:
Torque
- The ability of the handpiece to withstand lateral pressure on the revolving tool without decreasing its speed or reducing its cutting efficiency

Concentricity
- Symmetry of the bur head
- An indication of whether a part of the blade is shorter than the other

Runout dynamic test
- It measures the concentricity and accuracy with which the center of rotation passes through the
center of the head

Rake angle
- Angle formed by the rake face and the axis of the bur

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13
Q

Caries that is often found in older patients and attacks the cementum and radicular dentin

A. Residual caries
B. Recurrent caries
C. Root surface caries
D. Incipient caries

A

C. Root surface caries

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14
Q

The most important design characteristics of a bur blade is

A. Clearance face
B. Rake face
C. Edge angle
D. Rake angle

A

D. Rake angle

NOTES:
Clearance face
- The surface of bur blade on the trailing edge

Rake angle
- Angle formed by the rake face and the axis of the bur

Edge angle
- Angle formed by the clearance face and rake face

Clearance angle
- Angle formed by the clearance face and surface to be cut

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15
Q

What is the blade width of a cutting instrument with the following formula: 10 - 85 - 8 - 14

A. 10mm
B. 1mm
C. 0.85mm
D. 0.8mm

A

B. 1mm

NOTES:

4-number formula
- W - width of the blade in 10 of a millimeter
- C - cutting edge angle in centigrate
- L - length of blade
- A - angle of blade relative to long axis of the handle

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16
Q

Studies have shown that incipient caries after sealant placement ______.

A. Progressively get bigger
B. Are arrested
C. Spread rapidly into the interproximal areas
D. Remain the same

A

B. Are arrested

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17
Q

The __________ line angle is beveled to reduce concentration of stresses when preparing a class II amalgam preparation

A. Axiopulpal
B. Axiolingual
C. Axiobuccal
D. Cavosurface margin

A

A. Axiopulpal

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18
Q

Which component of dental amalgam prevents oxidation of other metals while the alloys is being prepared by the manufacturer?

A. Copper
B. Zinc
C. Tin
D. Silver

A

B. Zinc

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19
Q

Which phase of amalgam reaction is prone to corrosion in clinical restorations?

A. Gamma
B. Gamma one
C. Gamma two
D. Gamma three

A

C. Gamma two

NOTES:
Phases of Amalgamation Reaction

Gamma phase
- Unreacted alloy
- Strongest phase
- Least resistant to corrosion
- Forms 30% of volume of set amalgam

Gamma 1 phase
- Matrix for unreacted alloy
- 2nd strongest phase
- 10 microns grain binding gamma (γ)
- Forms 60% of volume of set amalgam

Gamma 2 phase
- Weakest and softest phase
- Corrodes fast
- Tendency to form voids
- Forms 10% of volume of set amalgam
- Volume decreases with time due to corrosion
- Corrosion

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20
Q

Which class III lesion should not be filled with composite resin?

A. Mesiolingual of centrals
B. Mesiolingual of canines
C. Distolingual of laterals
D. Distolingual of canines

A

D. Distolingual of canines

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21
Q

The ideal amount of dentin required between an amalgam restoration and the pulp for insulation is:

A. 0.5mm
B. 1.0mm
C. 2.0mm
D. 3.0mm

A

C. 2.0mm

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22
Q

Which of the following materials could be used to cement a bridge and fill a cervical lesion?

A. Glass ionomer
B. Zinc oxide eugenol
C. Zinc polycarboxylate
D. Zinc phosphate

A

A. Glass ionomer

NOTES:
Glass Ionomer Cement
- Most biocompatible
- Bonds to tooth structure
- Fluoride releasing
- Translucent and tooth colored

Zinc Oxide Eugenol
- Neutral pH
- Low strength
- High solubility
- Contraindicated with composite resin
- Good temporary restorative material

Zinc Polycarboxylate
- High solubility to oral fluids
- Low compressive strength

Zinc Phosphate
- Very low pH
- High solubility to oral fluids
- Brittle
- Lack of adhesion to tooth
- opaque

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23
Q

What distinguishes a base from a cement, from a cavity liner?

A. Final application thickness
B. Degree of pulpal protection
C. Biocompatibility of material
D. Degree of hardness

A

A. Final application thickness

NOTES
VARNISH: 2-5 microns thick
LINER: 0.25- 0.5 mm thick
CEMENT: 0.1-0.2 mm thick
BASE: 1-2mm thick

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24
Q

Chronic caries is characterized by all of the following, except?

A. Slowly progressing or arrested
B. Pain is common
C. Common in adults
D. Extrinsic pigmentation

A

B. Pain is common

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25
Q

Enamel etching is typically completed with:

A. 37% phosphoric acid
B. 13% phosphoric acid
C. 37% hydrochloric acid
D. 13% hydrochloric acid

A

A. 37% phosphoric acid

26
Q

A cold test reveals lingering pain. You ask the patient to raise their hand until the pain subsides. The patient raises their hand for about 8 seconds. What does this data suggest?

A. Pulpal necrosis
B. Irreversible pulpitis
C. Pulpal hyperemia
D. Acute apical periodontitis

A

C. Pulpal hyperemia (Reversible pulpitis)

NOTES:
Reversible pulpitis= >10 seconds
Irreversible pulpitis= < 10 seconds

27
Q

A patient returns to your office only 24 hours after you cemented her new gold crown on tooth #19. She claims to feel a sharp electrical sensation in both her upper and lower jaw of the left side. When you explain to her what might be happening, you call it:

A. Electromagnetic pulse
B. Alternating current corrosion
C. Electrolyte explosion
D. Galvanic shock

A

D. Galvanic shock

28
Q

When preparing a Class V cavity preparation for direct filling gold, you should ensure you have all of the following, except?

A. Rounded internal line angles
B. Small retentive undercuts placed in the axio-occlusal and axio-gingival line angles
C. Mesial and distal walls that flare and meet the cavosurface at a 90 degree angle
D. An axial wall the is convex and follows the external contour of the tooth 0.5 mm into dentin

A

A. Rounded internal line angles

29
Q

Which type of GIC is used for ART?

A. Type IV
B. Type V
C. Type VI
D. Type VIII

A

D. Type VIII

NOTES:
Glass Ionomer Cement ( LRL POCHAP)
Type 1: Luting cement
Type 2: Restorative material
Type 3: Liners and bases
Type 4: Pits and fissure sealant
Type 5: Orthodontic luting cement
Type 6: Core build-up material
Type 7: High fluoride releasing
Type 8: Atraumatic restorative treatment
Type 9: Pediatric GIC

30
Q

Which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of thermal expansion?

A. Amalgam
B. Direct gold
C. Tooth structure
D. Composite resin

A

D. Composite resin

31
Q

As a science, epidemiology is concerned mainly with disease as it is manifested in

A. Individual patients
B. Selected populations
C. The total community
D. Hospital cases

A

C. The total community

32
Q

All are under analytical epidemiology, except

A. Cohort Study
B. Establishes a relationship between a factor and a disease
C. Prevalence
D. All of the above are included

A

C. Prevalence

NOTES:
DESCRIPTIVE EPIDEMIOLOGY
- Incidence
- Prevalence

ANALYTICAL EPIDEMIOLOGY
- Cross-sectional
- Case control
- Cohort
(1) Prospective
(3) Retrospective
- Experimental

33
Q

The most common site of oral cancers in the oral cavity is in the __________

A. Lips
B. Hard Palate
C. Tongue
D. Tonsils

A

C. Tongue

34
Q

Ultimately, PHC aims to develop

A. Caries susceptibility testing
B. Self-reliant people
C. NGOs participation
D. Civic action activities

A

B. Self-reliant people

35
Q

A 13-year-old patient scored using the DMF index. Data from this child revealed the following

2 missing permanent 1st molars
4 missing 3rd molars
3 filled permanent teeth
2 active carious lesions on permanent teeth
2 filled deciduous teeth
3 missing deciduous teeth

What is the DMF score for this patient?
A. 9
B. 7
C. 5
D. 12

A

B. 7

NOTES:
Conditions:
1. Not included in the assessment:
- 3rd molars
- Unerupted teeth
- Congenitally missing teeth
- Supernumerary teeth
- Teeth extracted and restored not due to caries

  1. No tooth should be recorded more than once
  2. Secondary caries below the filling = Decayed
  3. Teeth missing due to caries = Missing
  4. Tooth restoration on different surfaces should only be recorded once
  5. Deciduous teeth should not be counted
    Index for deciduous: dmf
    Mixed dentition: both indices
36
Q

Random assignment and blinding are used in clinical trials to enhance study validity and _____________

A. Increase bias
B. Decrease bias
C. Have no change in bias
D. None of the above

A

B. Decrease bias

37
Q

Based on diagnostic test results, a dentist correctly classifies a group of patients as being free from disease. These results possess high _____

A. Sensitivity
B. Specificity
C. Validity
D. Reliability

A

B. Specificity

NOTES:
Sensitivity- with disease (sensi+ivi+y)
Specificity- without disease

38
Q

For a 5-year-old child living in a non-water fluoridated area, what is the recommended intake of fluoride?

A. 0.25mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 1mg
D. 1.5mg

A

B. 0.5mg

39
Q

Dietary fluoride supplementation in general should be recommended for all ________________

A. Patients in your practice
B. Persons in the community
C. Highly motivated patients
D. Children in your practice whose parents are highly motivated

A

D. Children in your practice whose parents are highly motivated

40
Q

Identify which one of the following is not a vaccine preventable disease.

A. Hepatitis A Infection
B. Hepatitis B Infection
C. Hepatitis C Infection
D. VZV (Varicella Zoster Virus) Infection

A

C. Hepatitis C Infection

41
Q

Vaccines that are a part of the extended immunization program that is generally given at birth

A. OPV and HPV
B. HBV and BCG
C. DTap and HBV
D. HiB and MMR

A

B. HBV and BCG

42
Q

The Magna Carta of a public health worker:

A. RA 4419
B. RA 7305
C. RA 7530
D. RA 572

A

B. RA 7305

43
Q

The importance of a control group in clinical research

A. Providing the basis for comparison in evaluating the effectiveness of a test procedure.
B. Enabling the standardization of examiners to help ensure consistency of results.
C. Ensuring that the samples selected for the study are representative of the entire population
D. All of the above

A

A. Providing the basis for comparison in evaluating the effectiveness of a test procedure.

44
Q

The measures of dispersion include the following except

A. Standard deviation
B. Variance
C. Range
D. Mode

A

D. Mode

NOTES:
MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY
- Mean
- Median
- Mode

MEASURES OF DISPERSION
- Standard deviation
- Variance
- Range

45
Q

Sodium Fluoride solution for topical application possesses fluoride in which concentration?

A. 1.2%
B. 2%
C. 0.2%
D. 8%

A

B. 2%

NOTES:
Sodium Fluoride
- 2-5% Concentration

Acidulated Phosphate Fluoride
- 1.23% Concentration

Stannous Fluoride
- 8% Concentration

Silver Diamine Fluoride
- 38% Concentration

46
Q

Best approach to study a rare disease

A. Case-control study
B. Cross-sectional study
C. Cohort study
D. Clinical trial

A

A. Case-control study

47
Q

Berksonian bias in a case -control study is due to:

A. Presence of confounding factors
B. Different admission rates for different diseases
C. Bias introduced by an investigator
D. The patient can’t recall or give false information

A

B. Different admission rates for different diseases

Bias in Interpreting Results in Clinical Studies
Confounding Bias - over or under-estimation between exposure and outcome

Lead-Time Bias - the earlier the disease is diagnosed the longer an individual seems to survive

Length-Time Bias - increased estimation of survival in slowly progressive diseases

Memory or Recall Bias - difference in completeness or accuracy of data received (common in case-control studies)

Measurement Bias: when researchers use imperfect or inadequate methods to collect data

Hawthorne Effect - subject’s behavior has changed due to awareness of them being observed

Interviewer Bias: expectations and opinions of the interviewer interfere with the judgment of the interviewee

Selection Bias - failing to ensure that the sample obtained is representative of the population (case and control may not be representative of the population)

Berksonian Bias - both exposure and the disease under study affect the selection

48
Q

The function of management involves recruitment, selection, and training of capable personnel

A. Planning
B. Coordinating
C. Organizing
D. Staffing

A

D. Staffing

49
Q

The portion or percentage of individuals having a disease at a given time is

A. Frequency
B. Incidence
C. Proportion
D. Mortality

A

C. Proportion (Prevalence)

NOTES:
Prevalence: With the disease
Incidence: New cases

50
Q

The term primary prevention refers to:

A. Patient rehabilitation
B. The application of preventive measures following the occurrence of disease
C. The application of preventive measures prior to the onset of disease
D. The removal of the disease and repair of existing damage

A

C. The application of preventive measures prior to the onset of disease

51
Q

The fluorosis index was formulated by:

A. Greene and Vermillion
B. Sillness and Loe
C. Dean
D. Quigley

A

C. Dean

NOTES:
OHI/ OHI-S: Greene and Vermillion
PHP Index: Poshadley and Haley
Plaque Index: Sillness and Loe
Modified Quigley Hein Plaque Index: Turesky, Gilmore, Glickman
Fluorosis Index: Dean

52
Q

An oral hygiene assessment that uses a disclosing agent and only measures one tooth surface

A. Oral Health Index
B. Plaque Index
C. PHP Index
D. Modified Quigley Hein Index

A

C. PHP Index

NOTES:

PHP Index
- uses disclosing agent
- 1 surface examined divided by subdivisions:
Facial (11,31)
Buccal (16, 26)
Lingual (36,46)

Modified Quigley Hein Index
- uses basic fuschin agent
- 1 surface examined (facial)

53
Q

Specificity is the proportion of a person who truly has the disease. False positive result identifies individuals as having a disease, but in reality, do not.

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true; the second is false
D. The first statement is false; the second is true

A

D. The first statement is false; the second is true

54
Q

Community water fluoridation most effectively achieves is

A. 90-95% reduction of caries
B. 30-40% reduction of caries
C. Reduces pit and fissure caries more than smooth surfaces
D. Reduces smooth surfaces more than pit and fissures

A

D. Reduces smooth surfaces more than pit and fissures

55
Q

Dental fluorosis occurs in the permanent dentition only. It can be prevented by restricting children’s intake of fluoride during the enamel’s calcification period

A. Both statements are true
B. Both statements are false
C. The first statement is true, the second is false
D. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

D. The first statement is false, the second is true

56
Q

Which of the following is the major modality of fluoride excretion in man?

A. Sweat
B. Urine
C. Feces
D. All of the above

A

B. Urine

NOTES:
- Absorbed through STOMACH
- Excreted through URINE, SWEAT, FECES
- Stored in HARD TISSUES (Teeth and Bones)
- 50% retained in adults
- 80% retained in children

57
Q

A correlation analysis shows that as the income of the population increases, the number of decayed teeth decreases. Therefore, an expected value for this correlation coefficient would be ______

A. 0
B. 1
C. -1
D. 2
E. -2

A

C. -1

NO CORRELATION: 0
DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL: 1
INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL: -1

58
Q

The variance for data set A is 25 and for data set B is 9. Therefore, we can conclude _______

A. There are more items in data set A than data set B
B. The mean of data set B is smaller than the mean for data set A
C. The items in data set A are more widely spread than in data set B
D. The items in data set B are more widely spread than in data set A

A

C. The items in data set A are more widely spread than in data set B

59
Q

What type of epidemiology is primarily used in intervention studies?

A. Descriptive
B. Analytical
C. Observational
D. Experimental
E. None of the above

A

D. Experimental

60
Q

Identify the type of pathogen that provides the ultimate test for efficacy of sterilization

A. Hepatitis B virus
B. HIV
C. Bacterial Spores
D. Fungal spores

A

C. Bacterial Spores

61
Q

A booster dose of the Hepatitis B vaccine is required. The hepatitis B vaccine series requires at least 16 weeks elapse between dose 1 and dose 3.

a. Both statements are true
b. Both statements are false
c. The first statement is true, the second is false
d. The first statement is false, the second is true

A

d. The first statement is false, the second is true.

Hepatitis B
- has 3 doses (at least 8 weeks interval)
- No need for booster

F. Restorative Dentistry and Comdent (2 decks)

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