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Restorative Dentistry > MOSBY > Flashcards

MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements regarding
caries risk assessment is correct?

A. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity.
B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.
C. The presence of dental plaque is a good indicator
of current caries activity.
D. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a good indicator of current caries activity

A

B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.

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2
Q

Which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is false?

A. Some leathery caries may be left in the preparation.
B. A liner is generally recommended in the
excavation.
C. The operator should wait at least 6 to 8 weeks before re-entry (if then).
D. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps.

A

D. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps.

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3
Q

Smooth surface caries refers to _____.

A. Facial and lingual surfaces.
B. Occlusal pits and grooves.
C. Mesial and distal surfaces.
D. A and C

A

D. A and C

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4
Q

The use of the rubber dam is best indicated
for _____.

A. Adhesive procedures.
B. Quadrant dentistry.
C. Teeth with challenging preparations.
D. Difficult patients.
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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5
Q

For a dental hand instrument with a formula of
10-8.5-8-14, the number 10 refers to _____.

A. The width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter.
B. The primary cutting edge angle in centigrades.
C. The blade length in millimeters.
D. The blade angle in centigrades.

A

A. The width of the blade in tenths of a millimeter.

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6
Q

When placement of proximal retention locks in Class II amalgam preparations is necessary, which of the following is incorrect?

A. One should not undermine the proximal enamel.
B. One should not prepare locks entirely in axial
wall.
C. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.
D. One should place locks 0.2 mm inside the DEJ to
ensure that the proximal enamel is not
undermined.

A

C. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock placement.

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7
Q

Choose the incorrect statement about Class V amalgam restorations.

A. The outline form is usually kidney- or crescent shaped.
B. Because the mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal walls of the tooth preparation are perpendicular to the external tooth surface, they usually diverge facially.
C. Using four corner coves instead of two full-length grooves conserves dentin near the pulp and may
reduce the possibility of a mechanical pulp exposure.
D. If the outline form approaches an existing
proximal restoration, it is better to leave a thin
section of tooth structure between the two restorations (< 1 mm) than to join the
restorations.

A

D. If the outline form approaches an existing
proximal restoration, it is better to leave a thin
section of tooth structure between the two restorations (< 1 mm) than to join the
restorations.

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8
Q

In the conventional Class I composite
preparation, retention is achieved by which of
the following features?

  1. Occlusal convergence
  2. Occlusal bevel
  3. Bonding
  4. Retention grooves

A. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3

A

B. 1 and 3

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9
Q

Many factors affect tooth/cavity preparation. Which of the following would be the least
important factor?

A. Extent of the defect.
B. Size of the tooth.
C. Fracture lines.
D. Extent of the old material

A

B. Size of the tooth.

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10
Q

Which of the following statements about an
amalgam tooth/cavity preparation is true?
A. The enamel cavosurface margin angle must be 90
degrees.
B. The cavosurface margin should provide for a 90- degree amalgam margin.
C. All prepared walls should converge externally.
D. Retention form for Class Vs can be placed at the DEJ.

A

B. The cavosurface margin should provide for a 90- degree amalgam margin.

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11
Q

Causes of postoperative sensitivity with amalgam restorations include all of the
following except _____.

A. Lack of adequate condensation, especially lateral
condensation in the proximal boxes.
B. Voids.
C. Extension onto the root surface.
D. Lack of dentinal sealing.

A

C. Extension onto the root surface.

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12
Q

When carving a Class I amalgam restoration,
which statement is false?

A. Carving may be made easier by waiting 1 or 2 minutes after condensation before it is started.
B. The blade of the discoid carver should move parallel to the margins resting totally on the partially set amalgam.
C. Do not carve deep occlusal anatomy.
D. The carved amalgam outline should coincide with
the cavosurface margins.

A

B. The blade of the discoid carver should move parallel to the margins resting totally on the partially set amalgam.

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13
Q

The setting reaction of dental amalgam proceeds primarily by _____.

A. Dissolution of the entire alloy particle into mercury.
B. Dissolution of the Cu from the particles into mercury.
C. Precipitation of Sn-Hg crystals.
D. Mercury reaction with Ag on or in the alloy particle.

A

D. Mercury reaction with Ag on or in the alloy particle.

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14
Q

Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in all of the following except _____.

A. Reduction/elimination of food impaction at the interdental papilla.
B. Provide appropriate space for the interdental papilla.
C. Provide increased retention form for the
restoration.
D. Maintenance of the proper occlusal relationship.

A

C. Provide increased retention form for the
restoration.

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15
Q

A major difference between total-etch and self etching primer dentin bonding systems include
all of the following except _____.

A. The time necessary to apply the material(s).
B. The amount of smear layer removed.
C. The bond strengths to enamel.
D. The need for wet bonding

A

A. The time necessary to apply the material(s).

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16
Q

A casting may fail to seat on the prepared tooth due to all of the following factors except _____.

A. Temporary cement still on the prepared tooth
after the temporary restoration has been
removed.
B. Proximal contact(s) of casting too heavy/tight.
C. Undercuts present in prepared tooth.
D. The occlusal of the prepared tooth was underreduced.

A

D. The occlusal of the prepared tooth was underreduced.

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17
Q

All of the following reasons are likely to indicate the need for restoration of a cervical notch except _____.

A. Patient age.
B. Esthetic concern.
C. Tooth is symptomatic.
D. Deeply notched axially

A

A. Patient age.

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18
Q

All of the following statements about slotretained complex amalgams are true
except _____.

A. Slots should be 1.5 mm in depth.
B. Slots should be 1 mm or more in length.
C. Slots may be segmented or continuous.
D. Slots should be placed at least 0.5 mm inside the
DEJ

A

A. Slots should be 1.5 mm in depth.

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19
Q

Which one of the following acids is generally recommended for etching tooth structure?

A. Maleic acid
B. Polyacrylic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Tartaric acid
E. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

A

C. Phosphoric acid

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20
Q

Triturating a dental amalgam will _____.

A. Reduce the size of the alloy particles.
B. Coat the alloy particles with mercury.
C. Reduce the crystal sizes as they form.
D. Dissolve the alloy particles in mercury.

A

B. Coat the alloy particles with mercury.

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21
Q

Which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of expansion?

A. Amalgam
B. Direct gold
C. Tooth structure
D. Composite resin

A

D. Composite resin

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22
Q

A cervical lesion should be restored if it is _____.

A. Carious.
B. Very sensitive.
C. Causing gingival inflammation.
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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23
Q

In comparison to amalgam restoration,
composite restorations are _____.

A. Stronger.
B. More technique-sensitive.
C. More resistant to occlusal forces.
D. Not indicated for Class II restorations

A

B. More technique-sensitive.

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24
Q

The one constant contraindication for a
composite restoration is _____.

A. Occlusal factors.
B. Inability to isolate the operating area.
C. Extension onto the root surface.
D. Class I restoration with a high C-factor.

A

B. Inability to isolate the operating area.

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25
Q

Which of the following statements is true
regarding the choice between doing a composite or amalgam restoration?

A. Establishing restored proximal contacts is easier
with composite.
B. The amalgam is more difficult and techniquesensitive.
C. The composite generally uses a more
conservative tooth/cavity preparation.
D. Amalgam should be used for Class II restorations

A

C. The composite generally uses a more
conservative tooth/cavity preparation.

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26
Q

A good preventive and treatment strategy for
dental caries would include _____.

A. Limiting cariogenic substrate
B. Controlling cariogenic flora
C. Elevating host resistance
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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27
Q

Which of the following statements regarding
caries risk assessment is correct?

A. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of current caries activity.
B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.
C. The presence of dental plaque is a good
indicator of current caries activity.
D. The presence of pit-and-fissure sealants is a
good indicator of current caries activity.

A

B. The presence of restorations is a good indicator of past caries activity.

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28
Q

Which of the following is considered a
reversible carious lesion?

A. The lesion surface is cavitated.
B. The lesion has advanced to the dentin
radiographically.
C. A white spot is detected upon drying.
D. The lesion surface is rough or chalky.

A

C. A white spot is detected upon drying.

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29
Q

Which of the following statements about indirect pulp caps is false?

A. Some leathery caries may be left in the
preparation.
B. A liner is generally recommended in the
excavation.
C. The operator should wait at least 6 to 8 weeks before re-entry (if then).
D. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps.

A

D. The prognosis of indirect pulp cap treatment is poorer than that of direct pulp caps.

30
Q

Smooth surface caries refers to _____.

A. Facial and lingual surfaces
B. Occlusal pits and grooves
C. Mesial and distal surfaces
D. Both A and C.

A

D. Both A and C.

31
Q

A finishing bur has how many blades com-
pared to a cutting bur?

A. Fewer blades.
B. Same number of blades.
C. More blades.
D. Number of blades is unrelated to the bur type.

A

C. More blades.

32
Q

The use of the rubber dam is best indicated for _____.

A. Adhesive procedures
B. Quadrant dentistry
C. Teeth with challenging preparations
D. Difficult patients
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

33
Q

he reason to invert a rubber dam is _____.

A. To prevent the dam from tearing
B. To prevent the underlying gingival from
accidental trauma
C. To provide a complete seal around the teeth
D. All of above

A

C. To provide a complete seal around the teeth

34
Q

For a dental hand instrument with a formula
of 10-8.5-8, the number 10 refers to _____.

A. The width of the blade, in tenths of a millimeter
B. The primary cutting edge angle, in centigrades
C. The blade length, in millimeters
D. The blade angle, in centigrades

A

A. The width of the blade, in tenths of a millimeter

35
Q

The tooth preparation technique for a Class I
amalgam on a mandibular first molar does not
include which of the following?

A. Maintaining a narrow isthmus width
B. Initial punch cut placed in the most carious pit
C. Establishment of pulpal depth of 1.5 to 2 mm
D. Orientation of bur parallel to the long axis of the tooth

A

D. Orientation of bur parallel to the long axis of the tooth

36
Q

When placement of proximal retention locks in Class II amalgam preparations is necessary,
which of the following is incorrect?

A. One should not undermine the proximal enamel.
B. One should not prepare locks entirely in the
axial wall.
C. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock
placement.
D. One should place locks 0.2 mm inside the DEJ to ensure that the proximal enamel is not
undermined

A

C. Even if deeper than ideal, one should use the axial wall as a guide for proximal lock
placement.

37
Q

When the gingival margin is gingival to the CEJ in a Class II amalgam preparation, the axial depth of the axiogingival line angle should be _____.

A. 0.2 mm into sound dentin
B. Twice the diameter of a No. 245 carbide bur
C. 0.75 to 0.80 mm
D. The width of the c

A

C. 0.75 to 0.80 mm

38
Q

Choose the incorrect statement about Class V
amalgam restorations.

A. The outline form is usually kidney- or crescent-shaped.
B. Because the mesial, distal, gingival, and incisal walls of the tooth preparation are perpendicular to the external tooth surface, they usually diverge facially.
C. Using four corner coves instead of two full-
length grooves conserves dentin near the pulp
and may reduce the possibility of a mechanical pulp exposure.
D. If the outline form approaches an existing
proximal restoration, it is better to leave a thin section of tooth structure between the two
restorations (< 1 mm) than to join the restorations.

A

D. If the outline form approaches an existing
proximal restoration, it is better to leave a thin section of tooth structure between the two
restorations (< 1 mm) than to join the restorations.

39
Q

When preparing a Class III or IV composite
tooth preparation, which of the following is
false regarding placement of retention form?

A. Often involves gingival and incisal retention
B. Is placed at the axiogingival line angle
regardless of the depth of the axial wall
C. May be needed in large preps
D. Is usually prepared with a No. 1/4 round bur

A

B. Is placed at the axiogingival line angle
regardless of the depth of the axial wall

40
Q

In the conventional Class I composite prepara-
tion, retention is achieved by which of the
following features?

  1. Occlusal convergence
  2. Occlusal bevel
  3. Bonding
  4. Retention grooves

A. 2 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3

A

B. 1 and 3

41
Q

The success of an amalgam restoration is
dependent on all of the following features of
tooth/cavity preparation except _____.

A. Butt-joint cavosurface margin that results in a 90-degree margin for the amalgam
B. Adequate tooth removal for appropriate strength of the amalgam
C. Divergent (externally) preparation walls
D. Adequate retention form features to mechanically lock the amalgam in the preparation

A

C. Divergent (externally) preparation walls

42
Q

Many factor affect tooth/cavity preparation.
Which of the following would be the least
important factor?

A. Extent of the defect
B. Size of the tooth
C. Fracture lines
D. Extent of the old material

A

B. Size of the tooth

43
Q

Which of the following statements about an
amalgam tooth/cavity preparation is true?

A. The enamel cavosurface margin angle must be 90 degrees.
B. The cavosurface margin should provide for a 90-degree amalgam margin.
C. All prepared walls should converge externally.
D. Retention form for Class Vs can be placed at the DEJ.

A

B. The cavosurface margin should provide for a 90-degree amalgam margin.

44
Q

A “skirt” feature for a gold onlay preparation
_____.

A. Has a shoulder gingival margin design
B. Is prepared by a diamond held perpendicular to
the long axis of the crown
C. Is used only for esthetic areas of a tooth
D. Increases both retention and resistance forms

A

D. Increases both retention and resistance forms

45
Q

Causes of postoperative sensitivity with amal-
gam restorations include all of the following
except _____.

A. Lack of adequate condensation, especially
lateral condensation in the proximal boxes
B. Voids
C. Extension onto the root surface
D. Lack of dentinal sealing

A

C. Extension onto the root surface

46
Q

Factors that affect the success of dentin bonding include all of the following except _____.

A. Dentin factors such as sclerosis, tubule
morphology, and smear layer
B. Tooth factors such as attrition, abrasion, and abfraction
C. Material factors such as compressive and tensile strengths
D. C-factor considerations

A

C. Material factors such as compressive and tensile strengths

47
Q

When carving a Class I amalgam restoration,
which statement is false?

A. Carving may be made easier by waiting 1 or
2 minutes after condensation before it is started.
B. The blade of the discoid carver should move
parallel to the margins resting on the partially set amalgam.
C. Do not carve deep occlusal anatomy.
D. The carved amalgam outline should coincide with the cavosurface margins

A

B. The blade of the discoid carver should move
parallel to the margins resting on the partially set amalgam.

48
Q

It is generally accepted that the maximum
thickness of a composite increment that allows for proper cure is _____.

A. 1–2 mm.
B. 2–4 mm.
C. 4–6 mm
D. There is no maximum thickness restriction

A

A. 1–2 mm.

49
Q

The setting reaction of dental amalgam pro-
ceeds primarily by _____.

A. Dissolution of the entire alloy particle into
mercury
B. Dissolution of the Cu from the particles into
mercury
C. Precipitation of Sn-Hg crystals
D. Mercury reaction with Ag on or in the alloy
particle

A

D. Mercury reaction with Ag on or in the alloy
particle

50
Q

What is the half-life of Hg in the human body?

A. 5 days
B. 25 days
C. 55 days
D. 85 days
E. 128 days

A

C. 55 days

51
Q

Restoration of an appropriate proximal contact results in all of the following except _____.

A. Reduction/elimination of food impaction at the interdental papilla
B. Provides appropriate space for the interdental papilla
C. Provides increased retention form for the
restoration
D. Maintenance of the proper occlusal relationship

A

C. Provides increased retention form for the
restoration

52
Q

The best way to carve amalgam back to
occlusal cavosurface margin is to _____.

A. Use visual magnification
B. Use a discoid-cleoid instrument guided by the adjacent unprepared enamel
C. Make deep pits and grooves
D. Use a round finishing bur after the amalgam has set

A

B. Use a discoid-cleoid instrument guided by the adjacent unprepared enamel

53
Q

A major difference between total-etch and self-etching primer dentin bonding systems include all of the following except _____.

A. The time necessary to apply the material(s)
B. The amount of smear layer removed
C. The bond strengths to enamel
D. The need for wet bonding

A

A. The time necessary to apply the material(s)

54
Q

Which of the following statements is not true
regarding bonding systems?

A. Even though dentin bonding occurs slowly, it results in a stronger bond than to enamel.
B. Enamel bonding occurs quickly, is strong, and is long-lasting.
C. One-bottle dentin bonding systems may be
simpler but are not necessarily better.
D. Dentin bonding is still variable because of
factors such as sclerosis, tubule size, and tubule location

A

A. Even though dentin bonding occurs slowly, it results in a stronger bond than to enamel.

55
Q

A casting may fail to seat on the prepared
tooth due to all of the following factors except
_____.

A. Temporary cement still on the prepared tooth
after the temporary restoration has been
removed.
B. Proximal contact(s) of casting are too heavy or too tight.
C. Undercuts present in prepared tooth.
D. The occlusal of the prepared tooth was under reduced.

A

D. The occlusal of the prepared tooth was under reduced.

56
Q

For a gold casting alloy, which of the following
is added primarily to act as a scavenger for
oxygen during the casting process?

A. Copper
B. Palladium
C. Silver
D. Zinc

A

D. Zinc

57
Q

All of the following reasons are likely to indi-
cate the need for restoration of a cervical
notch except _____.

A. Patient age.
B. Esthetic concern.
C. Tooth is symptomatic.
D. Tooth is deeply notched axially.

A

A. Patient age

58
Q

When comparing pin retention with slot retention for a complex amalgam restoration, which of the following statements is false?

A. Slots are used where vertical walls allow
opposing retention locks.
B. Slots provide stronger retention than pins.
C. Slots and grooves can be used interchangeably.
D. Pin retention is used primarily where there are few or no vertical walls.

A

B. Slots provide stronger retention than pins.

59
Q

All of the following statements about slot-retained complex amalgams are true except
_____.

A. Slots should be 1.5 mm in depth.
B. Slots should be 1 mm or more in length.
C. Slots may be segmented or continuous.
D. Slots should be placed at least 0.5 mm inside the DEJ.

A

A. Slots should be 1.5 mm in depth.

60
Q

Bonding of resins to dentin is best described as involving _____.

A. Mechanical interlocking
B. Ionic bonding
C. Covalent bonding
D. Van der Waals forces

A

A. Mechanical interlocking

61
Q

Which one of the following acids is generally
recommended for etching tooth structure?

A. Maleic acid
B. Polyacrylic acid
C. Phosphoric acid
D. Tartaric acid
E. EDTA

A

C. Phosphoric acid

62
Q

The principal goals of bonding are _____.

A. Sealing and thermal insulation
B. Strengthening teeth and esthetics
C. Esthetics and reduction of postoperative sensitivity
D. Sealing and retention
E. Retention and reduction of tooth flexure

A

D. Sealing and retention

63
Q

Triturating a dental amalgam will _____.

A. Reduce the size of the alloy particles
B. Coat the alloy particles with mercury
C. Reduce the crystal sizes as they form
D. Dissolve the alloy particles in mercury

A

B. Coat the alloy particles with mercury

64
Q

The primary contraindication(s) for the use of
a composite restoration is (are) _____.

A. Occlusal factors
B. Inability to isolate the operating area
C. Nonesthetic areas
D. Extension onto the root surface

A

B. Inability to isolate the operating area

65
Q

Which of the following materials has the highest linear coefficient of expansion?

A. Amalgam
B. Direct gold
C. Tooth structure
D. Composite resin

A

D. Composite resin

66
Q

The most common pin used in restorative
procedures is a(an) _____.

A. Friction-locked pin
B. Cemented pin
C. Amalgam pin
D. Self-threaded pin

A

D. Self-threaded pin

67
Q

A cervical lesion should be restored if it _____.

A. Is carious
B. Is very sensitive
C. Is causing gingival inflammation
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

68
Q

With regard to the mercury controversy related
to the use of amalgam restorations, which
statement is incorrect?

A. There is lack of scientific evidence that
amalgam poses health risks to humans except
for rare allergic reactions.
B. Alternative amalgam-like materials (with low or no mercury content) have promise about mercury.
C. True allergies to amalgam rarely have been
reported.
D. Efforts are underway to reduce the environmental mercury to which people are exposed to lessen their total mercury exposure.

A

B. Alternative amalgam-like materials (with low or no mercury content) have promise about mercury.

69
Q

In comparison to amalgam restorations, com-
posite restorations are _____.

A. Stronger
B. More technique-sensitive
C. More resistant to occlusal forces
D. Not indicated for Class II restorations

A

B. More technique-sensitive

70
Q

Which of the following statements is true
regarding the choice between doing a composite or amalgam restoration?

A. Establishing restored proximal contacts is easier with composite.
B. The amalgam is more difficult and technique-sensitive.
C. The composite generally uses a more
conservative tooth/cavity preparation.
D. Only amalgam should be used for Class II
restorations.

A

C. The composite generally uses a more
conservative tooth/cavity preparation.

Restorative Dentistry (1 decks)

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