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G. Prosthodontics (RPD, FPD, CD & Dent Mat) > Post Test > Flashcards

Post Test Flashcards

1
Q

Free end saddles are liable to be displaced under occlusal pressure. This is a result of displaceability of the
mucosa. Which technique is employed to try and prevent this by taking an impression of the mucosa under controlled pressure?

A. The functional load technique
B. The altered cast technique
C. The residual ridge technique
D. The total occlusal load technique

A

B. The altered cast technique

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2
Q

In a tooth-supported RPD with a circumferential cast clasp assembly, there is _____.

A. More than 180 degrees of encirclement in the greatest circumference of the tooth
B. A distal rest on the tooth anterior to the edentulous area
C. A mesial rest on the tooth posterior to the edentulous area
D. Only B and C
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

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3
Q

The component that is responsible for connecting the major connector with the rest and clamp assembly is:

A. The bar
B. The minor connector
C. The proximal plate
D. The guide plane

A

B. The minor connector

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4
Q

The superior border of a mandibular lingual bar major connector must be at least _____ mm below the gingival margins?

A. 1-2
B. 2-3
C. 3-4
D. 4-5

A

C. 3-4

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5
Q

The distance between the major connector on a maxillary RPD framework and the gingival margins should be at least _____.

A. 3mm
B. 2mm
C. 6 mm
D. 15 mm

A

C. 6 mm

NOTES:
WINDOW: 15 mm

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6
Q

From the following list of components of an RPD, which must be rigid?

A. Major connector, minor connector, and retentive clasp
B. Wrought wire clasp, rests, and minor connector
C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector

A

C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector

NOTES:

CIRCUMFERENTIAL CLASP ARM= 180 degrees encirclement
Retentive clasp arm: Buccal, Below the undercut, flexible, taper
Reciprocal clasp arm: Lingual, Above the undercut, rigid, uniform

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7
Q

Which is a main function of a guide plane surface contacted by a minor connector of an RPD?

A. Provides a positive path of placement and removal for an RPD
B. Can provide additional retention
C. Aids in preventing cervical movement
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

A

E. Only A and B

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8
Q

Which type of clasps are generally used on a tooth-supported removable denture?

A. Circumferential cast clasp
B. Combination clasp
C. Wrought wire clasp

A

A. Circumferential cast clasp

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9
Q

The main function of the direct retainer of a removable partial denture is _____.

A. Stabilization
B. Retention
C. Support
D. Add strength to the major connector

A

B. Retention

NOTES:
Retention – resistance to vertical dislodging forces
Direct retainers
Indirect retainers

Stability (Bracing) – resistance to horizontal, lateral, or torsional forces
Minor connector
Proximal plates
Reciprocal arms and shoulders of circumferential clasp
Lingual plates
Rests

Support – resistance to vertical seating
Rests
Major connectors
Denture bases

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10
Q

Lack of reciprocation of a removable partial denture (RPD) clasp is likely to cause _____.

A. Tissue recession due to displacement of the RPD
B. Insufficient resistance to displacement
C. Fracture of the retentive clasp
D. Abutment tooth displacement during removal and insertion

A

D. Abutment tooth displacement during removal and insertion

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11
Q

The denture base of a mandibular distal extension RPD should cover _____.

A. The retromolar pads
B. All undercut areas and engage them for retention
C. The hamular notch
D. The pterygomandibular raphe

A

A. The retromolar pads

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12
Q

Inadequate rest-seat preparation for a removable partial prosthesis can cause _____.

A. Tooth mobility
B. Ligament widening
C. Occlusal rest fracture
D. Occlusal rest distortion

A

C. Occlusal rest fracture

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13
Q

Which of the following impression materials has the highest tear strength?

A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. Addition silicone
D. Condensation silicone

A

B. Polysulfide

NOTES:
Polyether- most rigid, hydrophillic
Polysulfide- most flexible; long setting time
Hydrocolloids- best wettability
Addition silicone (Polyvinyl siloxane)- most accurate elastomeric material
Condensation silicone- hydrophobic

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14
Q

Which is true of a minor connector of an RPD?

A. Should be thin to not interfere with the tongue
B. Should be located on a convex embrasure surface
C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure
D. All of the above
E. A and C only

A

C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure

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15
Q

Which of the following is true of an occlusal rest for a removable partial denture?

I. One-third facial lingual width of the tooth
II. 1.5 mm for deep base metal
III. 2.0 mm labiolingual width of the tooth
IV. Floor inclines apically toward the center of the tooth

A. All of the above
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. III, IV

A

C. I, II, IV

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16
Q

In a Kennedy Class I arch in which all molars and the first premolar are missing and the rest of the teeth have good periodontal support, the preferred choice of treatment is _____.

A. A removable partial denture replacing all missing teeth
B. A fixed dental prosthesis replacing the missing premolar and a removable partial denture replacing the molars
C. Implant supported crowns replacing the first premolars and a removable partial denture replacing the molars
D. A and B are preferred choice of treatment over
E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over

A

E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over

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17
Q

Which of the following is(are) uses for the surveyor?

A. To aid in the placement of an intracoronal retainer
B. To block out a master cast.
C. To measure a specific depth of an undercut.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A and B are correct.

A

D. All of the above.

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18
Q

The minor connector for a mandibular distal extension base should extend posteriorly about _____.

A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge
B. Half the length of the edentulous ridge
C. One-third the length of the edentulous ridge
D. As long as possible

A

A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge

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19
Q

Which are characteristics of a major connector that contribute to health and well-being?

A. It is rigid and provides unification of the arch stability.
B. It does not substantially alter the natural contour of the lingual surface of the mandibular
alveolar ridge or the palatal vault.
C. It contributes to the support of the prosthesis.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A and B.

A

D. All of the above.

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20
Q

The component of an RPD that is spoon-shaped and slightly inclined apically from the marginal ridge of a tooth is the _____.

A. Indirect retainer
B. Minor connector
C. Rest
D. Lingual bar

A

C. Rest

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21
Q

All of the following are advantages of using a cast chromium-cobalt alloy for removable partial dentures except:

A. Corrosion resistance
B. High strength
C. High flexibility
D. Low specific gravity

A

C. High flexibility

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22
Q

The type or form of clasp is generally selected after:

A. Looking at the xrays
B. Talking to the patient
C. Surveying the cast
D. The initial try-in of the metal framework

A

C. Surveying the cast

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23
Q

Suprabuldge retainers (clasps) originate:

A. Below the height of contour
B. Above the height of contour
C. Above the 0.08 undercut
D. Above the occlusal surface of most molars

A

B. Above the height of contour

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24
Q

Which of the following indirect retainers will provide the best leverage against lifting of the denture base?

A. The one located the closest to the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area
B. The one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area
C. The one located furthest from the clasp tips which is located furthest from the edentulous area

A

B. The one located the furthest from the clasp tips which is located nearest to the edentulous area

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25
Q

Which of the following Kennedy classes of removable partial dentures are not tooth-borne?

a. Class I, II
b. Class II, III
c. Class III, I
d. Class IV

A

a. Class I, II

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26
Q

It is important that a wrought wire clasp have an elongation percentage of:

A. More then 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
B. More then 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
C. Less then 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties
D. Less then 25%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties

A

B. More then 6%, allowing the clasp to bend without microstructure changes that could compromise its physical properties

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27
Q

The strength, hardness, and tensile strength of wrought wire is approximately:

A. 5% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
B. 25% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
C. 50% less than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated
D. 75% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated

A

B. 25% greater than the cast alloy from which it was fabricated

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28
Q

The cingulum rest is usually confined to preparation on:

A. Maxillary lateral incisors
B. Maxillary canines
C. Mandibular lateral incisors
D. Mandibular canines

A

B. Maxillary canines

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29
Q

When designing a clasp assembly for the abutment tooth of a distal extension rpd, on which part of the crown surface should the retentive and reciprocal clasp arms be located?

A. Occlusal third
B. Middle third
C. Gingival third

A

C. Gingival third- as far apical as possible

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30
Q

Which primary design quality of the occlusal rest would categorize is as a positive rest

A. Allow no tilting of the appliance
B. Transmit stress down the long axis of the tooth
C. Form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connector
D. Have a thickness of 1.5 mm
E. All of the above

A

C. Form acute angles with the minor connectors that connect them to the major connector

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31
Q

What degree of wall convergence during crown preparation will give the prosthesis optimal retention?

A. 1 to 3 degrees
B. 3 to 6 degrees
C. 4 to 8 degrees
D. 6 to 9 degrees

A

B. 3 to 6 degrees

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32
Q

The finish line of choice when fabricating an all ceramic crown is:

A. Shoulder
B. Bevel
C. Chamfer
D. Shoulder with bevel

A

A. Shoulder

NOTES:
Chamfer – best for metal margins
Shoulder – best for porcelain and ceramic margins
Feather edge/Bevel – Gold margins
Knife edge – tilted abutments

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33
Q

In a Provisional Fixed Partial Denture that is seated immediately after the extraction of a tooth, which of the following pontic forms will result in tissue blanching and provide the best support to the surrounding papillae while also providing for the best esthetic outcome following healing of the extraction site?

A. Sanitary (hygienic) pontic
B. Conical pontic
C. Ovate pontic
D. Modified ridge lap pontic
E. None of the above

A

C. Ovate pontic

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34
Q

All other factors are equal, the most retention is provided by the

A. Full crown preparation
B. Three-quarter preparation
C. Onlay
D. Inlay

A

A. Full crown preparation

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35
Q

Which of the following is the single most important predictor of clinical success of a cast post and core?

A. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure
B. Post length
C. Post diameter
D. Positive horizontal stop

A

A. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure

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36
Q

When preparing partial crown on a maxillary incisor, the proximal grooves should be parallel to the:

A. Long axis of the tooth
B. Gingival 2/3 of the labial surface
C. Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface
D. Middle third of the labial surface

A

C. Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface

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37
Q

The minimum acceptable crown:root ratio is:

A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:3
D. 1:3

A

A. 1:1

NOTES:
Ideal – 2:3
Acceptable – 1:2
Minimum – 1:1

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38
Q

A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when

A. Used in end-to-end occlusion
B. Fabricated for a mandibular incisor
C. Allow to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion
D. Subjected to tensile forces by opposing teeth
E. Subjected to compressive forces by the opposing teeth

A

D. Subjected to tensile forces by opposing teeth

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39
Q

The shoulder cervical finish

A. Greatly facilitate the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. Provide a well-defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. Is the least conservative of the finish lines
D. Requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

A

C. Is the least conservative of the finish lines

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40
Q

A reverse 3⁄4 crown is most frequently fabricated for a:

A. Maxillary premolar
B. Mandibular premolar
C. Mandibular molar
D. Maxillary molar

A

C. Mandibular molar

NOTES:
7/8- maxillary molars, intact mesiobuccal surface
3/4- mandibular molars, intact lingual surface

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41
Q

For optimum periodontal health, restoration finish lines should be:

A. Within the sulcus at least 1.0 mm and away from the free gingival margin without encroaching on the biologic width
B. Terminated at the free gingival margin
C. Supragingival whenever possible
D. As far as possible subgingivally into the attachment apparatus

A

C. Supragingival whenever possible

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42
Q

The preparation for a full metal veneer crown is begun with occlusal reduction. There should be ____________ clearance on the functional cusps and about _____________ on the non-functional cusps.

A. 0.5 mm; 1.0 mm
B. 1.5 mm; 1.0 mm
C. 2.0 mm; 1.5 mm
D. 2.5 mm; 2.0 mm

A

B. 1.5 mm; 1.0 mm

NOTES:

OCCLUSAL REDUCTION
Porcelain/ PFM
Functional cusps: 2.0 mm
Non-functional cusps: 1.5

Gold/ Metal
Functional cusps: 1.5 mm
Non-functional cusps: 1 mm

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43
Q

Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for an FPD?

A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short, tapered root with long clinical crown

A

D. Tooth with short, tapered root with long clinical crown

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44
Q

After a few months that a dentist has restored an endodontically treated tooth with a cast-post crown, the patient complains of pain upon biting, the most probable cause is:

A. Vertical fracture
B. Psychosomatic
C. Premature contact
D. Loose crown

A

A. Vertical fracture

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45
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated in patients with cardiovascular disease

A. Alum
B. Ferric Sulfate
C. Epinephrine
D. Zinc chloride

A

C. Epinephrine

46
Q

Metal in the crucible is melted and allowed to flow in the investment space.

A. Type Investing
B. Wax Pattern
C. Spruing
D. Type V
E. Casting

A

E. Casting

47
Q

Which of the following surgical tissue management can be done without anesthesia

A. Electrocautery
B. Rotary curettage
C. Laser
D. None of the above

A

C. Laser

48
Q

Which of the following is the correct biologic width

A. 2.40 nm
B. 2.04 nm
C. 2.40 mm
D. 2.04 mm

A

D. 2.04 mm

49
Q

Which of the following is indicated in severely damged tooth with the mesiobuccal surface still intact

A. 3/4 crown
B. inlay
C. 7/8 crown
D. onlay
E. Laminate Veneer

A

C. 7/8 crown

NOTES:
7/8- maxillary molars, intact mesiobuccal surface
3/4- mandibular molars, intact lingual surface

50
Q

What is the minimum amount of circumferential tooth structure above the margin to achieve Ferrule

A. 0.5 – 1.0 mm
B. 1.5 – 2.0 mm
C. 2.5 – 3.0 mm
D. 0.75 – 1.25 mm

A

B. 1.5 – 2.0 mm

51
Q

A PRIMARY consideration for full coverage of abutment teeth to be used in the construction of
a fixed partial denture is the

A. Health of the mucous membrane
B. Health of the gingival tissues
C. Amount of supporting bone remaining
D. Caries susceptibility of the patient
E. None of the above

A

D. Caries susceptibility of the patient

52
Q

When treatment planning for fixed prosthodontics, all of the following information can be obtained by studying diagnostic casts EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

A. The length of the abutment teeth can be accurately gauged
B. The true inclination of the abutment teeth will be evident
C. The presence of periodontal pockets and the crown-to-root ratio of potential abutment teeth
D. Mesial-distal drifting, rotation, and faciolingual displacement of potential abutment teeth can be clearly seen

A

C. The presence of periodontal pockets and the crown-to-root ratio of potential abutment teeth

53
Q

For patients with endodontically treated teeth, what is the best retainer to use

A. Full Crown
B. Onlay
C. Inlay
D. Partial Crown

A

A. Full Crown

54
Q

What is the best margin to be used for porcelain

A. Feather edge
B. Knife edge
C. Shoulder
D. Chamfer

A

C. Shoulder

NOTES:
Chamfer – best for metal margins
Shoulder – best for porcelain and ceramic margins
Feather edge/Bevel – Gold margins
Knife edge – tilted abutments

55
Q

The following is true regarding Inlay preparation except

A. Line angles should be sharp
B. Mesial and distal walls are diverging
C. Facial and lingual walls are diverging
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

56
Q

Maxillary anterior teeth will give the best esthetic effect in a complete denture if arranged

A. Labially to the ridge
B. Lingually to the ridge
C. Over the crest of the ridge
D. To articulate with the mandibular anterior teeth placed over the crest of the ridge
E. None of the above

A

A. Labially to the ridge

57
Q

In selecting anterior teeth for complete denture patients, one considers the patient’s

I. Facial size, shape and form
II. Age
III. Sex
IV. Physical features

A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, IV
D. AOTA

A

D. AOTA

58
Q

Freeway space is synonymous with

A. Physiologic rest position
B. Interocclusal distance
C. Interdental arch space
D. Intermaxillary space
E. Both A ad B above

A

B. Interocclusal distance

59
Q

Excessive vertical dimension may result in

A. A loss of muscle tone
B. Poor denture retention
C. A drooping of corners of the mouth
D. Creases wrinkles in the region of the mouth
E. Excessive trauma to the underlying support tissue

A

E. Excessive trauma to the underlying support tissue

60
Q

Centric relation is a ____________ relationship.

A. Tooth to tooth
B. Mandible to condyle
C. Mandible to skull
D. Maxilla to skull
E. NOTA

A

C. Mandible to skull

NOTES:
CENTRIC RELATION
- Position in which condyles articulates with the thinnest avascular portion of their respective discs in the most anterior-superior position against the articular eminences.

61
Q

In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is on the posterior border?

A. Hamular notch
B. Fovea palatini
C. Hamular process
D. Vibrating line
E. Pterygomandibular raphe

A

A. Hamular notch

62
Q

Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

A. Xerostomia
B. Air chamber in midpalate
C. Foreshortened denture bases
D. Increases salivary film thickness
E. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

A

E. Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the
mucosa

63
Q

Methods of selecting anterior teeth for a complete denture includes

I. Saving extracted teeth
II. Using pre-extraction records and photographs
III. Following the lines placed on the occlusion rims

A. I, II
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II, III
E. NOTA

A

D. I, II, III

64
Q

A patient who wears a complete maxillary denture complains of burning sensation in the palatal area of his oral cavity. This is an indication of excessive pressure by the denture in the:

A. Posterior palatal seal
B. Incisive foramen
C. Palatal mucosa
D. Hamular notch
E. External oblique ridge

A

B. Incisive foramen

65
Q

The primary role of anterior teeth on denture is:

A. Occlusion
B. To incise food
C. Stability of the denture
D. Esthetics

A

D. Esthetics

66
Q

Posterior teeth that are set edge to edge may cause:

A. Speech aberrations
B. Cheek biting
C. Gagging
D. Reduced taste

A

B. Cheek biting

67
Q

Postural position is:

A. Ligament guided
B. Muscle guided
C. Tooth guided
D. Bone guided

A

B. Muscle guided

NOTES:
Centric Relation- Ligament guided
Resting or Postural- Muscle guided
Centric Occlusion- Tooth guided

68
Q

The function of posterior palatal seal is:

A. To aid in balanced occlusion
B. To aid in insertion and removal
C. To ensure a complete seal thus helping in retention of a denture
D. Retention of mandibular denture by sealing its posterior margin

A

C. To ensure a complete seal thus helping in retention of a denture

69
Q

Overextension of the posterior border of the denture causes:

A. Gagging sensation
B. Epulis fissuratum
C. Sagging of the corners of the mouth
D. AOTA

A

A. Gagging sensation

70
Q

The greatest potential for wear exist between

A. Tooth and gold
B. Tooth and tooth
C. Porcelain and tooth
D. Porcelain to porcelain
E. Gold and gold

A

C. Porcelain and tooth

71
Q

The relationship of denture base to bone that resist dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal direction is

A. Support
B. Pressure
C. Esthetics
D. Stability
E. NOTA

A

D. Stability

NOTES:

Stability – resistance of the denture against horizontal direction
Support – resistance of dentures to the force against the tissues/ resistance to vertical seating force
Retention – resistance to dislodgment of the denture away from the tissue

72
Q

In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base, which of the following is on the posterior
border?

A. Hamular notch
B. Fovea palatini
C. Vibrating line
D. Retromolar pad
E. Pterygomandibular raphe

A

A. Hamular notch

73
Q

When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the distance between occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular teeth or occlusion rims is

A. Centric occlusion
B. Vertical dimension
C. Interocclusal distance
D. Vertical dimension of rest
E. Occlusal plane

A

C. Interocclusal distance

74
Q

The primary role of anterior teeth on a denture is:

A. To incise food
B. Occlusion
C. Esthetics
D. Stability of the denture

A

C. Esthetics

75
Q

You are in the process of making a complete maxillary denture for a patient. Which of the following structure(s) will be the secondary support area(s)? (Choose 2)

A. Residual ridges
B. Palatal rugae
C. Incisive papilla
D. Maxillary tuberosity
E. Buccal vestibule

A

B. Palatal rugae
D. Maxillary tuberosity

NOTES:
MAXILLARY SUPPORTING AREAS
Primary
(1) Posterior part of the hard palate
(2) Posterolateral part of the residual ridge
Secondary
(1) Palatal rugae
(2) Maxillary tuberosity

76
Q

The treatment plan for a patient indicates that both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures are to be fabricated. The ideal way to do this is:

A. Fabricate the maxillary immediate denture first
B. Fabricate the mandibular immediate denture first
C. Fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time
D. NOTA

A

C. Fabricate the maxillary and mandibular immediate dentures at the same time

77
Q

The incisal edges of the maxillary anterior teeth should touch the wet/dry line of the lowerlip when enunciating which sound(s)?

A. “Th” sound
B. “F” and “V” sounds
C. “P” and “B” sounds
D. “S” sound

A

B. “F” and “V” sounds

NOTES:
SPEECH SOUNDS
(1) Fricative/ Labiodental sounds (f,v,ph)
- Contact between wet/dry line of lower lip and maxillary incisors
(2) Linguoalveolar/ Sibilant (s,z,sh,ch,j)
- Contact between the tip of the tongue and the lingual surface of the teeth
(3) Linguodental (t,d,n,l)
- contact between tip of tongue between maxillary and mandibular teeth
(4) Bilabial (b,p,m)
- Contact between upper and lower lip
(5) Gutteral (g,k)
- contact between throat and back of the tongue

78
Q

The incisive papilla provides a guide for the anteroposterior placement of maxillary anterior denture. The labial surface of natural teeth are generally 8-10 mm anterior to this structure.

A. Both statement are true.
B. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false.
C. The first statement is false, and the second statement is true
D. Both statement are false

A

A. Both statement are true.

79
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning vertical dimension of rest?

A. VDR = physiologic rest position
B. VDR = position of the mandible when opening and closing muscle at rest.
C. VDR is postural relationship of the mandible and maxilla
D. VDR = the amount of separation of jaw separation controlled by jaw muscles when they are in relaxed state.
E. AOTA

A

E. AOTA

80
Q

When border molding a mandibular complete denture, the extension of the lingual right and left flanges are best molded by having the patient ___________

A. Purse the lips
B. Wet the lips with the tongue
C. Open wide
D. Swallow
E. Count from 50 to 55

A

B. Wet the lips with the tongue

81
Q

A good landmark for anterior-posterior positioning of the anterior maxillary teeth in a complete denture is the _____.

A. Residual ridge
B. Incisive papilla
C. Incisal foramen
D. Mandibular wax rim

A

B. Incisive papilla

82
Q

Which one of the following is a purpose or characteristic of the posteror palatal seal?

A. Provides a seal against air being forced under the denture
B. Usually should extend posterior to the foveae palatinae
C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture
D. Is carved deeper in the midpalatal suture area

A

A. Provides a seal against air being forced under the denture

83
Q

The ____ is used as a guide to verify the occlusal plane.

A. Ala-tragus line
B. Interpupillary line
C. Camper’s line or plane
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

NOTES:
Ala-tragus line (Camper’s line or plane)- a line from the lower border of the ala of the nose to the upper border of the tragus of the ear.

Interpupillary line- a line that passes through the center of the pupil of each eye.

84
Q

Which of the following conditions can be caused in an edentulous patient by an ill-fitting denture flange?

A. Papillary hyperplasia
B. Epulis fissuratum
C. Candidiasis
D. Fibrous tuberosity

A

B. Epulis fissuratum

85
Q

For optimum esthetics when setting maxillary denture teeth, the incisal edge of the maxillary incisor should
follow the _________.

A. Lower lips during smiling
B. Upper lips during smiling
C. Lower lips when relaxed
D. Upper lips when relaxed

A

A. Lower lips during smiling

86
Q

Which impression material has the best wettability?

A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. Hydrocolloids
D. Polyvinyl siloxane

A

C. Hydrocolloids

NOTES:
Polyether- most rigid, hydrophillic
Polysulfide- most flexible; long setting time
Hydrocolloids- best wettability
Addition silicone (Polyvinyl siloxane)- most accurate elastomeric material
Condensation silicone- hydrophobic

87
Q

How does porcelain chemically bond to metal?

A. Interposition of an intermediate metal layer
B. Mixing of oxidized metal layer with porcelain oxides
C. Wetting of the porcelain onto the metal surface
D. Mixing of the metal atoms with the porcelain structure

A

B. Mixing of oxidized metal layer with porcelain oxides

88
Q

What is the major component of an inlay wax?

A. Gum Dammar
B. Ceresin
C. Paraffin
D. Carnauba

A

C. Paraffin
NOTES:

Paraffin (40- 60%)
- Flake easily when trimmed
- Does not present a glossy surface
Gum Dammar
- Reduce flakiness
- Increase surface finish
- Increase toughness
Ceresin
- Replace part of the Paraffin to modify toughness and carving characteristics
Carnauba/ Candelilla
- Decrease flow
- Improves glossiness

89
Q

The impression material that is mainly composed of sodium or potassium salts of alginic acid is _____.

A. Polyether
B. Irreversible hydrocolloid
C. Polyvinyl siloxane
D. Reversible hydrocolloid

A

B. Irreversible hydrocolloid

90
Q

One of the general requirements of a good luting agent is film thickness, the desired thickness is:

A. 10-20 microns
B. 25-30 microns
C. 35-40 microns
D. None of the above

A

A. 10-20 microns

91
Q

The elastic modulus is a measure of:

A. Viscoelasticity
B. Toughness
C. Stiffness
D. Plasticity

A

C. Stiffness

92
Q

Among the rubber based impression compounds, which is the least dimensionally stable?

A. Condensation Silicone
B. Addition Silicone
C. Polyether
D. Polysulfide

A

A. Condensation Silicone

93
Q

The strength of dental investment for gold alloys is dependent
upon the amount of:
A. Silica
B. Carbon
C. Gypsum
D. Alumina

A

C. Gypsum

94
Q

It is the scavenger of oxides in an amalgam filling.
A. Zinc
B. Silver
C. Tin
D. Copper

A

A. Zinc

95
Q

The procedure of removing surface tarnish or oxidation is:
A. Soldering
B. Boiling
C. Casting
D. Pickling

A

D. Pickling

96
Q

The principal constituent of dental stone:
A. Beta-calcium sulfate hemihydrate
B. Alpha-calcium sulfate hemihydrate
C. Borax
D. Diatomaceous earth

A

B. Alpha-calcium sulfate hemihydrate

97
Q

When porcelain is baked against metal, it should possess a:

A. High fusion expansion
B. High fusion temperature
C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than, but
close to, that of the metal
D. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion greater than,
but close to, that of the metal.

A

C. Linear coefficient of thermal expansion less than, but
close to, that of the metal

98
Q

Carnauba is a:
A. Dental Wax
B. Gypsum products
C. Hydrocolloids
D. Porcelain cement
E. Flux

A

A. Dental Wax

99
Q

Which of the following dental cement will chemically bone
to enamel:
A. Zinc oxide-eugenol
B. Zinc phosphate cement
C. Zinc polycarboxylate cement
D. Zinc silico-phosphate cement

A

C. Zinc polycarboxylate cement

100
Q

Which component of porcelain serves as matrix for high
fusing quartz?

A. Feldspar
B. Quartz
C. Kaolin
D. Metallic oxide

A

A. Feldspar

101
Q

The gold content of an 18K alloy is

A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 30%

A

B. 75%

102
Q

Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic
modulus to best support an extensive amalgam restoration?
A. Zinc phosphate
B. Zinc oxide eugenol
C. Zinc polycarboxylate
D. Glass ionomer

A

A. Zinc phosphate

103
Q

The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern
over neurotoxicity is
A. Magnesium
B. Aluminum
C. Tin
D. Zinc

A

B. Aluminum

104
Q

A thin application of cavity varnish over the cut surface of a prepared tooth just prior to the cementation of a crown or a
bridge with zinc phosphate cement will

A. Impede the seating of the restoration
B. Insulate the tooth against thermal change
C. Increase the possibility of thermal sensitivity
D. Reduce the possibility of irritation of the pulp
E. Increase the possibility of leakage of the restoration

A

B. Insulate the tooth against thermal change

105
Q

Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-
dependent?
A. Creep
B. Resilience
C. Elastic limit
D. Ultimate strength
E. Compressive strength

A

A. Creep

106
Q

The setting time of zinc oxide-eugenol impression paste may
best be accelerated by:
A. Adding a drop of oleic acid to the mix
B. Chilling the mixing slab and the spatula
C. Adding a drop of water to the mix
D. Increasing the amount of eugeno

A

C. Adding a drop of water to the mix

106
Q

Which of the following best describes quenching?
A. A metal is elevated to a temperature above room
temperature and held there for a length of time
B. A metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature
to room temperature or below
C. Softening a metal by controlled heating and cooling
D. None of the above

A

B. A metal is rapidly cooled from an elevated temperature
to room temperature or below

107
Q

Eta phase in high copper amalgam is
A. Ag3Sn
B. Ag2Hg3
C. Sn7-8Hg
D. Cu6Sn5

A

D. Cu6Sn5

108
Q

Dental plaster and stone are vibrated after mixing to:
A. Minimize distortion
B. Reduce setting time
C. Eliminate air bubbles
D.Increase the setting time

A

C. Eliminate air bubbles

109
Q

This property allows the material to be drawn into wires
without fracturing
A. elastic modulus
B. flexural strength
C. ductility
D. malleability

A

C. ductility

G. Prosthodontics (RPD, FPD, CD & Dent Mat) (2 decks)

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