MOSBY Flashcards

1
Q

The impression material that is mainly
composed of sodium or potassium salts of
alginic acid is _____.

A. Polyether
B. Irreversible hydrocolloid
C. Polyvinyl siloxane
D. Polysulfide

A

B. Irreversible hydrocolloid

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2
Q

A complete denture patient presents with angular
cheilitis. A review of recent medical examination
revealed that vitamin deficiency is not a factor.
A possible predisposing factor is _____.
A. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
B. A closed or insufficient vertical dimension of
occlusion
C. Improper balance of the occlusion
D. Poor contour of the denture base

A

B. A closed or insufficient vertical dimension of
occlusion

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3
Q

Each of the following is a feature of papillary
hyperplasia except one. Which one is not true?

A. It is a proliferative bone disease
B. It can be caused by wearing the dentures at night
C. It can be caused by poor oral hygiene
D. It can be caused by an ill-fitting denture

A

A. It is a proliferative bone disease

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4
Q

For optimum esthetics when setting maxillary
denture teeth, the incisal edges of the maxillary
incisors should follow the _____.

A. Lower lips during smiling
B. Upper lips during smiling
C. Lower lips when relaxed
D. Upper lips when relaxed

A

A. Lower lips during smiling

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5
Q

Excessive monomer added to acrylic resin will
result in _____.

A. Increased expansion
B. Increased heat generation
C. Increased shrinkage
D. Increased strength

A

C. Increased shrinkage

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6
Q

Which is the purpose of adjusting the occlusion
in dentures?
A. To obtain balanced occlusion.
B. To stabilize dentures.
C. To obtain even occlusal contacts.
D. All of the above.

A

D. All of the above.

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7
Q

Which may be a consequence of occlusal trauma
on implants?

A. Widening of the periodontal ligament.
B. Soft-tissue sore area around the tooth.
C. Bone loss.
D. All of the above.

A

C. Bone loss.

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8
Q

Which of the following is true of an occlusal rest
for a removable partial denture?

  1. One-third facial lingual width of the tooth
  2. 1.5 mm deep for base metal
  3. 2.0 mm labiolingual width of the tooth
  4. Floor inclines apically toward the center of the
    tooth

A. All of the above
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 3 and 4

A

C. 1, 2, and 4

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9
Q

A patient is unhappy with the esthetics of an
anterior metal-ceramic crown, complaining that
it looks too opaque in the incisal third. The
reason for this is most likely _____.

A. Using the incorrect opaque porcelain shade.
B. Inadequate vacuum during porcelain firing.
C. Not masking the metal well enough with the
opaque.
D. The tooth was prepared in a single facial plane.

A

D. The tooth was prepared in a single facial plane.

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10
Q

An endodontically treated tooth was restored
with a cast post-and-core and a metal-ceramic
crown. Three months later, the patient complains
of pain, especially on biting. Radiographic
findings and tooth mobility tests are normal. The
most probable cause of pain is _____.

A. A loose crown
B. Psychosomatic
C. A vertical root fracture
D. A premature eccentric contact

A

C. A vertical root fracture

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11
Q

For an occlusal appliance used for muscle relaxation to be effective, the condyles must be located in their most stable position from a musculoskeletal perspective. This is _____.

A. Centric occlusion
B. At the vertical dimension of rest
C. Centric relation
D. Maximum intercuspal position

A

C. Centric relation

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12
Q

A diagnostic wax-up is indicated when _____.

A. Re-establishing anterior guidance
B. A provisional fixed prosthesis is to be fabricated
C. Uncertainty exists regarding esthetics
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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13
Q

Which of the following is the single most
important predictor of clinical success of a cast
post and core?

A. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure.
B. Post length.
C. Post diameter.
D. Positive horizontal stop.

A

A. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure.

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14
Q

Which of the following are factors associated
with bone loss?

A. Initial implant instability.
B. Excessive occlusal force.
C. Inadequate hygiene.
D. Inadequate prosthesis fit.
E. All of the above.

A

E. All of the above.

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning the evaluation of the occlusion on a cast restoration?

A. The restoration is in proper occlusion if it holds
shim stock.
B. The restoration is in proper occlusion if the
adjacent teeth hold shim stock.
C. The restoration is in proper occlusion when
articulating paper marks multiple points of
contact on the restoration.
D. A, B, and C.
E. None of the above.

A

D. A, B, and C.

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16
Q

In a Kennedy Class I arch in which all molars
and the first premolar are missing and the rest
of the teeth have good periodontal support, the
preferred choice of treatment is _____.

A. A removable partial denture replacing all missing
teeth
B. A fixed dental prosthesis replacing the missing
premolar and a removable partial denture
replacing the molars
C. Implant supported crowns replacing the first
premolars and a removable partial denture
replacing the molars
D. A and B are preferred choice of treatment over C.
E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over A

A

E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over A

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17
Q

Which of the following is(are) uses for the
surveyor?

A. To aid in the placement of an intracoronal
retainer.
B. To block out a master cast.
C. To measure a specific depth of an undercut.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A and B are correct.

A

D. All of the above.

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18
Q

A dentist is preparing all maxillary anterior
teeth for metal-ceramic crowns. Which of the
following procedures is necessary in order to
preserve and restore anterior guidance?

A. Protrusive record.
B. Template for provisional restorations.
C. Custom incisal guide table.
D. Interocclusal record in centric relation.

A

C. Custom incisal guide table.

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19
Q

A radiolucency near the apex of tooth #28 is seen radiographically. The tooth is asymptomatic and does not have caries or periodontal problems. Which is most likely the cause of the radiolucency?

A. Submandibular fossa.
B. Periapical granuloma.
C. Complex compound odontoma.
D. Mental foramen.

A

D. Mental foramen.

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20
Q

The minor connector for a mandibular distal
extension base should extend posteriorly about
_____.

A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge
B. Half the length of the edentulous ridge
C. One-third the length of the edentulous ridge
D. As long as possible

A

A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge

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21
Q

Which are characteristics of a major connector
that contribute to health and well-being?

A. It is rigid and provides unification of the arch
stability.
B. It does not substantially alter the natural contour
of the lingual surface of the mandibular alveolar
ridge or the palatal vault.
C. It contributes to the support of the prosthesis.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A and B.

A

D. All of the above.

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22
Q

When does a fixed dental prosthesis (FDP), which was cast in one piece, need to be sectioned?

A. When a cantilever pontic is used.
B. When the fit cannot be achieved or verified with a
one-piece cast.
C. When single crowns are adjacent to the FDP.
D. Always, in order to achieve a good fit.

A

B. When the fit cannot be achieved or verified with a
one-piece cast.

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23
Q

When soldering a fixed partial denture, what is the effect of flux when heated on the area to be soldered?

A. To remove oxides from the metal surface.
B. To displace metal ions from the area.
C. To change the composition of the alloy.
D. To reduce the surface tension of the metal

A

A. To remove oxides from the metal surface.

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24
Q

The component of an RDP that is spoon-shaped
and slightly inclined apically from the marginal
ridge of a tooth is the _____.

A. Indirect retainer
B. Minor connector
C. Rest
D. Lingual bar

A

C. Rest

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25
Q

Metamerism invariably involves _____.

A. A color difference between two objects under one or more illuminant(s)
B. One object having a lower chroma than another
C. One object having a lower lightness than another
D. A significant color change of one object as it moves from one illuminant to another

A

A. A color difference between two objects undertone or more illuminant(s)

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26
Q

The incisive papilla provides a guide for the
anteroposterior placement of maxillary anterior denture teeth. The labial surfaces of natural teeth are generally 8 to 10 mm anterior to this structure.

A. Both statements are true.
B. The first statement is true, and the second
statement is false.
C. The first statement is false, and the second
statement is true.
D. Both statements are false.

A

A. Both statements are true.

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27
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning vertical dimension of rest (VDR)?

A. VDR = physiologic rest position.
B. VDR = position of the mandible when opening
and closing muscles are at rest.
C. VDR is a postural relationship of the mandible to
maxilla.
D. VDR = the amount of jaw separation controlled
by jaw muscles when they are in a relaxed state.
E. All of the above.

A

E. All of the above.

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28
Q

The following are characteristics of a post-
palatal seal of complete dentures, except which one?

A. Compensates for shrinkage of the acrylic resin caused by its processing.
B. May reduce the gag reflex.
C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture.
D. It is most shallow in the midpalatal suture area

A

C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture.

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29
Q

Which of the following is the most likely cause
of an occlusal rest fracture?

A. Inadequate rest-seat preparation
B. Improper rest location
C. Structural metal defects
D. Occluding against the antagonist tooth

A

A. Inadequate rest-seat preparation

30
Q

The primary purpose of a maxillary denture
occlusal index is to _____.

A. Maintain the patient’s vertical dimension
B. Maintain both the correct centric and vertical
relation records
C. Maintain the patient’s centric relation
D. Preserve the facebow record

A

D. Preserve the facebow record

31
Q

An edentulous patient with a diminished vertical dimension of occlusion is predisposed to suffer from which of the following conditions?

A. Epulis fissuratum
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Papillary hyperplasia
D. Angular chelosis

A

D. Angular chelosis

32
Q

When performing a diagnostic occlusal adjustment on diagnostic casts, the mandibular cast should be mounted to the maxillary cast in an articulator using which of the following?

A. A centric relation interocclusal record
B. A hinge articulator
C. A maximum intercuspation wax record
D. A facebow transfer

A

A. A centric relation interocclusal record

33
Q

When border molding a mandibular complete
denture, the extension of the lingual right and
left flanges are best molded by having the
patient _____.

A. Purse the lips
B. Wet the lips with the tongue
C. Open wide
D. Swallow
E. Count from 50 to 55

A

B. Wet the lips with the tongue

34
Q

The main function of the direct retainer of a
removable partial denture is _____.

A. Stabilization
B. Retention
C. Support
D. Add strength to the major connector

A

B. Retention

35
Q

Lack of reciprocation of a removable partial
denture (RPD) clasp is likely to cause _____.

A. Tissue recession due to displacement of the
RPD
B. Insufficient resistance to displacement
C. Fracture of the retentive clasp
D. Abutment tooth displacement during removal and insertion

A

D. Abutment tooth displacement during removal and insertion

36
Q

Centric relation is the maxillomandibular relationship in which the condyles are in their
most _____.

A. Posterior position with the disc interposed at its thickest avascular location
B. Posterior position with the disc interposed at its thinnest locale
C. Superior position with the disc in its most
anterior position
D. Superior-anterior position with the disc
interposed at its thinnest location

A

D. Superior-anterior position with the disc
interposed at its thinnest location

37
Q

The denture base of a mandibular distal extension RPD should cover _____.

A. The retromolar pads
B. All undercut areas and engage them for
retention
C. The hamular notch
D. The pterygomandibular raphe

A

A. The retromolar pads

38
Q

A good landmark for the anteroposterior positioning of the anterior maxillary teeth in a complete denture is the _____.

A. Residual ridge
B. Incisive papilla
C. Incisal foramen
D. Mandibular wax rim

A

B. Incisive papilla

39
Q

Which is one of the purposes or characteristics of the post palatal seal?

A. Provide a seal against air being forced under the denture.
B. Usually should extend posterior to the fovea palatinae.
C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture.
D. It is carved deeper in the midpalatal suture area.

A

A. Provide a seal against air being forced under the denture.

40
Q

The _____ is used as a guide to verify the occlusal plane.

A. Ala-tragus line
B. Interpupillary line
C. Camper’s line or plane
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

41
Q

Balanced occlusion is less important during
chewing than during nonchewing events. This
difference occurs because the time teeth are in contact during nonchewing events is much
greater than the time teeth are in contact during chewing.

A. Both statements are true.
B. The first statement is true, and the second
statement is false.
C. The second statement is true, and the first
statement is false.
D. Both statements are false.

A

A. Both statements are true.

42
Q

Which of the following conditions can be
caused in an edentulous patient by an ill-fitting denture flange?

A. Papillary hyperplasia
B. Epulis fissuratum
C. Candidiasis
D. Fibrous tuberosity

A

B. Epulis fissuratum

43
Q

Inadequate rest-seat preparation for a remov-
able partial prosthesis can cause _____.

A. Tooth mobility
B. Ligament widening
C. Occlusal rest fracture
D. Occlusal rest distortion

A

C. Occlusal rest fracture

44
Q

Which of the following is the main disadvantage of resin-modified glass ionomer compared to conventional glass ionomer?

A. Reduced fluoride release
B. Increased expansion
C. Reduced adhesion
D. Cost

A

D. Cost

45
Q

You are planning to replace a maxillary central incisor with a fixed prosthetic device
(FPD). The edentulous space is slightly wider
than the contralateral tooth. In order to
achieve acceptable esthetics, you should
ensure that _____.

A. The line angles of the pontic are placed in the same relationship as the contralateral tooth
B. The pontic should be made smoother than the contralateral tooth
C. The pontic should have a higher value than the contralateral tooth
D. The line angles should be shaped to converge incisally on the pontic

A

A. The line angles of the pontic are placed in the same relationship as the contralateral tooth

46
Q

Polycarboxylate cement achieves a chemical bond to tooth structure. The mechanism for this bond is _____.

A. Ionic bond to phosphate.
B. Covalent bond to the collagen.
C. Chelation to calcium.
D. These cements do not form a chemical bond.

A

C. Chelation to calcium.

47
Q

Which of the following properties of a gold
alloy exceeds a base metal alloy in numerical
value?

A. Hardness
B. Specific gravity
C. Casting shrinkage
D. Fusion temperature

A

B. Specific gravity

48
Q

Which of the following impression materials
has the highest tear strength?

A. Polyether
B. Polysulfide
C. Addition silicone
D. Condensation silicone

A

B. Polysulfide

49
Q

Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates
_____.

A. The degree of translucency
B. The degree of saturation of the hue
C. Combined effect of hue and value
D. How dark or light is a shade

A

B. The degree of saturation of the hue

50
Q

In order for an alloy to be considered noble
metal, it should _____.

A. Contain at least 25% Ag
B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd
C. Contain 40% Au
D. Contain at least 80% gold

A

B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd

51
Q

The purpose of fabricating a provisional
restoration with correct contours and marginal integrity is _____.

A. For protection
B. To supervise the patient’s dental hygiene and give them feedback during this stage
C. To preserve periodontal health
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

52
Q

A compomer cement _____.

  1. Is indicated for cementation of metal-ceramic crowns.
  2. Is indicated for cementation of all-ceramic
    restorations.
  3. Is indicated for some all-ceramic crowns, inlays, and veneers with some contraindications.
  4. Has low solubility and sustained release of
    fluoride.

A. All are correct.
B. 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct.
D. 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

A

C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct.

53
Q

Heating the metal structure in a furnace prior
to opaque application in a metal-ceramic
crown is necessary to _____.

  1. Harden the metal.
  2. Oxidize trace elements in the metal.
  3. Eliminate oxidation.

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 only
E. 3 only

A

D. 2 only

54
Q

Which of the following are probably not clinically significant in terms of influencing the
retention of a cemented restoration?

  1. Tooth preparation
  2. Surface textur
  3. Casting alloy
  4. Tooth taper
  5. Luting agent
    A. 1, 3, and 4
    B. 1, 2, 3
    C. 1, 2, 3, 5
    D. 3 and 5
A

D. 3 and 5

55
Q

Which articulator is capable of duplicating the
border mandibular movements of a patient?

A. Nonadjustable
B. Arcon-type
C. Nonarcon-type
D. Fully adjustable

A

B. Arcon-type

56
Q

Tooth #30 is endodontically treated after a conservative access cavity was made through a typical MO amalgam restoration. The restoration of choice is a _____.

A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation
B. Custom cast post and core
C. Wire post and core
D. Parallel-sided prefabricated post with cast core

A

A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation

57
Q

Potential problems in connecting implants to
natural teeth include all of the following except _____.

A. Stress is concentrated at the superior portion of the implant
B. Breakdown of osseointegration
C. Cement failure on the natural abutment
D. Screw or abutment loosening
E. Fracture in the connector area of the prosthesis

A

E. Fracture in the connector area of the prosthesis

58
Q

Which is true of a minor connector of an RPD?

A. Should be thin to not interfere with the tongue
B. Should be located on a convex embrasure surface
C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure
D. All of the above
E. A and C only

A

C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure

59
Q

The design of a restored occlusal surface is
dependent upon the _____.

  1. Contour of the articular eminence.
  2. Position of the tooth in the arch.
  3. Amount of lateral shift in the rotating condyle.
  4. Amount of vertical overlap of anterior teeth.

A. 1 and 3
B. 2, 3, and 4
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 3 and 4 only
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

60
Q

Which is a main function of a guide plane sur-
face contacted by a minor connector of an RPD?

A. Provides a positive path of placement and
removal for an RPD
B. Can provide additional retention
C. Aids in preventing cervical movement
D. All of the above
E. Only A and B

A

E. Only A and B

61
Q

From the following list of components of an
RPD, which must be rigid?

A. Major connector, minor connector, and retentive clasp
B. Wrought wire clasp, rests, and minor connector
C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector

A

C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector

62
Q

Which type of clasps are generally used on a
tooth-supported removable denture?

A. Circumferential cast clasp
B. Combination clasp
C. Wrought wire clasp

A

A. Circumferential cast clasp

63
Q

Which of the following disinfectants can be
used with alginate impressions?

A. Alcohol
B. Iodophor
C. Glutaraldehyde
D. All of the above
E. B and C only

A

E. B and C only

64
Q

A dentist replaces an amalgam on tooth #5 and notices a small pulpal exposure. He elects to use a direct pulp cap procedure. Which of the following best predicts success?

A. Size of the lesion
B. Isolation of the lesion
C. Use of calcium hydroxide
D. Age of the patient

A

B. Isolation of the lesion

65
Q

In a tooth-supported RPD with a circumferential cast clasp assembly, there is _____.

A. More than 180 degrees of encirclement in the greatest circumference of the tooth
B. A distal rest on the tooth anterior to the
edentulous area
C. A mesial rest on the tooth posterior to the
edentulous area
D. Only B and C
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

66
Q

What is a nonrigid connector?

A. An appliance composed of a key and keyway that is used to connect one piece of a prosthesis to another
B. An appliance that is used to connect two
crowns rigidly fixed
C. A bar appliance that is used to maintain a space for a tooth that has not erupted
D. None of the above

A

A. An appliance composed of a key and keyway that is used to connect one piece of a prosthesis to another

67
Q

The distance between the major connector on a maxillary RPD framework and the gingival margins should be at least _____.

A. 3 mm
B. 2 mm
C. 6 mm
D. 15 mm

A

C. 6 mm

68
Q

The component that is responsible for connecting the major connector with the rest and clamp assembly is:

A. The bar
B. The minor connector
C. The proximal plate
D. The guide plane

A

B. The minor connector

69
Q

The three dimensions of the Munsell Color
Order System, the basis for shade guides such
as Vita Lumin™, are _____.

A. Absorption, scattering and translucency
B. Color, translucency, and gloss
C. Size, shape, and interactions with light
D. Hue, value, chroma

A

D. Hue, value, chroma

70
Q

The purpose of applying a layer of opaque
porcelain in a metal-ceramic restoration is to
_____.
A. Create a bond between the metal and porcelain
B. Mask the metal oxide layer as well as provide a
porcelain–metal bond
C. Create the main color for the restoration
D. A and B are correct
E. All of the above

A

D. A and B are correct