MOSBY

Question 1

The impression material that is mainly composed of sodium or potassium salts of alginic acid is _____.

A. Polyether
B. Irreversible hydrocolloid
C. Polyvinyl siloxane
D. Polysulfide

Answer 1

B. Irreversible hydrocolloid

Question 2

A complete denture patient presents with angular cheilitis. A review of recent medical examination revealed that vitamin deficiency is not a factor. A possible predisposing factor is

A. Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion
B. A closed or insufficient vertical dimension of occlusion
C. Improper balance of the occlusion
D. Poor contour of the denture base

Answer 2

B. A closed or insufficient vertical dimension of occlusion

Question 3

Each of the following is a feature of papillary hyperplasia except one. Which one is not true?

A. It is a proliferative bone disease
B. It can be caused by wearing the dentures at night
C. It can be caused by poor oral hygiene
D. It can be caused by an ill-fitting denture

Answer 3

A. It is a proliferative bone disease (Paget’s disease)

NOTES:
PAPILLARY HYPERPLASIA
- It can be caused by wearing the dentures at night
- It can be caused by poor oral hygiene
- It can be caused by an ill-fitting denture

Question 4

For optimum esthetics when setting maxillary denture teeth, the incisal edges of the maxillary incisors should follow the _____.

A. Lower lips during smiling
B. Upper lips during smiling
C. Lower lips when relaxed
D. Upper lips when relaxed

Answer 4

A. Lower lips during smiling

Question 5

Excessive monomer added to acrylic resin will result in _____.

A. Increased expansion
B. Increased heat generation
C. Increased shrinkage
D. Increased strength

Answer 5

C. Increased shrinkage

Question 6

Which is the purpose of adjusting the occlusion in dentures?

A. To obtain balanced occlusion.
B. To stabilize dentures.
C. To obtain even occlusal contacts.
D. All of the above.

Answer 6

D. All of the above.

Question 7

Which may be a consequence of occlusal trauma on implants?

A. Widening of the periodontal ligament.
B. Soft-tissue sore area around the tooth.
C. Bone loss.
D. All of the above.

Answer 7

C. Bone loss (seen on the most coronal aspect on the implant)

Question 8

Which of the following is true of an occlusal rest for a removable partial denture?

1. One-third facial lingual width of the tooth
2. 1.5 mm deep for base metal
3. 2.0 mm labiolingual width of the tooth
4. Floor inclines apically toward the center of the tooth

A. All of the above
B. 1, 3, and 4
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 3 and 4

Answer 8

C. 1, 2, and 4

Question 9

A patient is unhappy with the esthetics of an anterior metal-ceramic crown, complaining that it looks too opaque in the incisal third. The reason for this is most likely _____.

A. Using the incorrect opaque porcelain shade.
B. Inadequate vacuum during porcelain firing.
C. Not masking the metal well enough with the opaque.
D. The tooth was prepared in a single facial plane.

Answer 9

D. The tooth was prepared in a single facial plane.

Question 10

An endodontically treated tooth was restored with a cast post-and-core and a metal-ceramic crown. Three months later, the patient complains of pain, especially on biting. Radiographic findings and tooth mobility tests are normal. The most probable cause of pain is _____.

A. A loose crown
B. Psychosomatic
C. A vertical root fracture
D. A premature eccentric contact

Answer 10

C. A vertical root fracture

Question 11

For an occlusal appliance used for muscle relaxation to be effective, the condyles must be located in their most stable position from a musculoskeletal perspective. This is _____.

A. Centric occlusion
B. At the vertical dimension of rest
C. Centric relation
D. Maximum intercuspal position

Answer 11

C. Centric relation

Question 12

A diagnostic wax-up is indicated when _____.

A. Re-establishing anterior guidance
B. A provisional fixed prosthesis is to be fabricated
C. Uncertainty exists regarding esthetics
D. All of the above

Answer 12

D. All of the above

Question 13

Which of the following is the single most important predictor of clinical success of a cast post and core?

A. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure.
B. Post length.
C. Post diameter.
D. Positive horizontal stop.

Answer 13

A. Amount of remaining coronal tooth structure.

Question 14

Which of the following are factors associated with bone loss?

A. Initial implant instability.
B. Excessive occlusal force.
C. Inadequate hygiene.
D. Inadequate prosthesis fit.
E. All of the above.

Answer 14

E. All of the above.

Question 15

Which of the following statements is(are) true concerning the evaluation of the occlusion on a cast restoration?

A. The restoration is in proper occlusion if it holds shim stock.
B. The restoration is in proper occlusion if the adjacent teeth hold shim stock.
C. The restoration is in proper occlusion when articulating paper marks multiple points of contact on the restoration.
D. A, B, and C.
E. None of the above.

Answer 15

D. A, B, and C.

Question 16

In a Kennedy Class I arch in which all molars and the first premolar are missing and the rest of the teeth have good periodontal support, the preferred choice of treatment is _____.

A. A removable partial denture replacing all missing teeth
B. A fixed dental prosthesis replacing the missing premolar and a removable partial denture replacing the molars
C. Implant supported crowns replacing the first premolars and a removable partial denture replacing the molars
D. A and B are preferred choice of treatment over C.
E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over A

Answer 16

E. B and C are preferred choice of treatment over A

Question 17

Which of the following is(are) uses for the surveyor?

A. To aid in the placement of an intracoronal retainer.
B. To block out a master cast.
C. To measure a specific depth of an undercut.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A and B are correct.

Answer 17

D. All of the above.

Question 18

A dentist is preparing all maxillary anterior teeth for metal-ceramic crowns. Which of the following procedures is necessary in order to preserve and restore anterior guidance?

A. Protrusive record.
B. Template for provisional restorations.
C. Custom incisal guide table.
D. Interocclusal record in centric relation.

Answer 18

C. Custom incisal guide table.

Question 19

A radiolucency near the apex of tooth #28 is seen radiographically. The tooth is asymptomatic and does not have caries or periodontal problems. Which is most likely the cause of the radiolucency?

A. Submandibular fossa.
B. Periapical granuloma.
C. Complex compound odontoma.
D. Mental foramen.

Answer 19

D. Mental foramen.

Question 20

The minor connector for a mandibular distal extension base should extend posteriorly about

A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge
B. Half the length of the edentulous ridge
C. One-third the length of the edentulous ridge
D. As long as possible

Answer 20

A. Two-thirds the length of the edentulous ridge

Question 21

Which are characteristics of a major connector that contribute to health and well-being?

A. It is rigid and provides unification of the arch stability.
B. It does not substantially alter the natural contour of the lingual surface of the mandibular alveolar ridge or the palatal vault.
C. It contributes to the support of the prosthesis.
D. All of the above.
E. Only A and B.

Answer 21

D. All of the above.

Question 22

When does a fixed dental prosthesis (FDP), which was cast in one piece, need to be sectioned?

A. When a cantilever pontic is used.
B. When the fit cannot be achieved or verified with a one-piece cast.
C. When single crowns are adjacent to the FDP.
D. Always, in order to achieve a good fit.

Answer 22

B. When the fit cannot be achieved or verified with a one-piece cast.

Question 23

When soldering a fixed partial denture, what is the effect of flux when heated on the area to be soldered?

A. To remove oxides from the metal surface.
B. To displace metal ions from the area.
C. To change the composition of the alloy.
D. To reduce the surface tension of the metal

Answer 23

A. To remove oxides from the metal surface.

Question 24

The component of an RDP that is spoon-shaped and slightly inclined apically from the marginal ridge of a tooth is the _____.

A. Indirect retainer
B. Minor connector
C. Rest
D. Lingual bar

Answer 24

C. Rest

Question 25

Metamerism invariably involves _____. A. A color difference between two objects under one or more illuminant(s) B. One object having a lower chroma than another C. One object having a lower lightness than another D. A significant color change of one object as it moves from one illuminant to another

Answer 25

A. A color difference between two objects undertone or more illuminant(s)

Question 26

The incisive papilla provides a guide for the anteroposterior placement of maxillary anterior denture teeth. The labial surfaces of natural teeth are generally 8 to 10 mm anterior to this structure. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false. C. The first statement is false, and the second statement is true. D. Both statements are false.

Answer 26

A. Both statements are true.

Question 27

Which of the following statements is true concerning vertical dimension of rest (VDR)? A. VDR = physiologic rest position. B. VDR = position of the mandible when opening and closing muscles are at rest. C. VDR is a postural relationship of the mandible to maxilla. D. VDR = the amount of jaw separation controlled by jaw muscles when they are in a relaxed state. E. All of the above.

Answer 27

E. All of the above.

Question 28

The following are characteristics of a posterior palatal seal of complete dentures, except which one? A. Compensates for shrinkage of the acrylic resin caused by its processing. B. May reduce the gag reflex. C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture. D. It is most shallow in the midpalatal suture area

Answer 28

C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture❌

Question 29

Which of the following is the most likely cause of an occlusal rest fracture? A. Inadequate rest-seat preparation B. Improper rest location C. Structural metal defects D. Occluding against the antagonist tooth

Answer 29

A. Inadequate rest-seat preparation

Question 30

The primary purpose of a maxillary denture occlusal index is to _____. A. Maintain the patient’s vertical dimension B. Maintain both the correct centric and vertical relation records C. Maintain the patient’s centric relation D. Preserve the facebow record

Answer 30

D. Preserve the facebow record

Question 31

An edentulous patient with a diminished vertical dimension of occlusion is predisposed to suffer from which of the following conditions? A. Epulis fissuratum B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Papillary hyperplasia D. Angular cheilosis

Answer 31

D. Angular cheilosis

Question 32

When performing a diagnostic occlusal adjustment on diagnostic casts, the mandibular cast should be mounted to the maxillary cast in an articulator using which of the following? A. A centric relation interocclusal record B. A hinge articulator C. A maximum intercuspation wax record D. A facebow transfer

Answer 32

A. A centric relation interocclusal record

Question 33

When border molding a mandibular complete denture, the extension of the lingual right and left flanges are best molded by having the patient _____. A. Purse the lips B. Wet the lips with the tongue C. Open wide D. Swallow E. Count from 50 to 55

Answer 33

B. Wet the lips with the tongue

Question 34

The main function of the direct retainer of a removable partial denture is _____. A. Stabilization B. Retention C. Support D. Add strength to the major connector

Answer 34

B. Retention

Question 35

Lack of reciprocation of a removable partial denture (RPD) clasp is likely to cause _____. A. Tissue recession due to displacement of the RPD B. Insufficient resistance to displacement C. Fracture of the retentive clasp D. Abutment tooth displacement during removal and insertion

Answer 35

D. Abutment tooth displacement during removal and insertion

Question 36

Centric relation is the maxillomandibular relationship in which the condyles are in their most _____. A. Posterior position with the disc interposed at its thickest avascular location B. Posterior position with the disc interposed at its thinnest locale C. Superior position with the disc in its most anterior position D. Superior anterior position with the disc interposed at its thinnest location

Answer 36

D. Superior anterior position with the disc interposed at its thinnest location

Question 37

The denture base of a mandibular distal extension RPD should cover _____. A. The retromolar pads B. All undercut areas and engage them for retention C. The hamular notch D. The pterygomandibular raphe

Answer 37

A. The retromolar pads

Question 38

A good landmark for the anteroposterior positioning of the anterior maxillary teeth in a complete denture is the _____. A. Residual ridge B. Incisive papilla C. Incisal foramen D. Mandibular wax rim

Answer 38

B. Incisive papilla

Question 39

Which is one of the purposes or characteristics of the post palatal seal? A. Provide a seal against air being forced under the denture. B. Usually should extend posterior to the fovea palatinae. C. Improves the stability of the maxillary denture. D. It is carved deeper in the midpalatal suture area.

Answer 39

A. Provide a seal against air being forced under the denture.

Question 40

The _____ is used as a guide to verify the occlusal plane. A. Ala-tragus line B. Interpupillary line C. Camper’s line or plane D. All of the above

Answer 40

D. All of the above

Question 41

Balanced occlusion is less important during chewing than during nonchewing events. This difference occurs because the time teeth are in contact during nonchewing events is much greater than the time teeth are in contact during chewing. A. Both statements are true. B. The first statement is true, and the second statement is false. C. The second statement is true, and the first statement is false. D. Both statements are false.

Answer 41

A. Both statements are true.

Question 42

Which of the following conditions can be caused in an edentulous patient by an ill-fitting denture flange? A. Papillary hyperplasia B. Epulis fissuratum C. Candidiasis D. Fibrous tuberosity

Answer 42

B. Epulis fissuratum

Question 43

Inadequate rest-seat preparation for a removable partial prosthesis can cause _____. A. Tooth mobility B. Ligament widening C. Occlusal rest fracture D. Occlusal rest distortion

Answer 43

C. Occlusal rest fracture

Question 44

Which of the following is the main disadvantage of resin-modified glass ionomer compared to conventional glass ionomer? A. Reduced fluoride release B. Increased expansion C. Reduced adhesion D. Cost

Answer 44

B. Increased expansion

Question 45

You are planning to replace a maxillary central incisor with a fixed prosthetic device (FPD). The edentulous space is slightly wider than the contralateral tooth. In order to achieve acceptable esthetics, you should ensure that _____. A. The line angles of the pontic are placed in the same relationship as the contralateral tooth B. The pontic should be made smoother than the contralateral tooth C. The pontic should have a higher value than the contralateral tooth D. The line angles should be shaped to converge incisally on the pontic

Answer 45

A. The line angles of the pontic are placed in the same relationship as the contralateral tooth

Question 46

Polycarboxylate cement achieves a chemical bond to tooth structure. The mechanism for this bond is _____. A. Ionic bond to phosphate. B. Covalent bond to the collagen. C. Chelation to calcium. D. These cements do not form a chemical bond.

Answer 46

C. Chelation to calcium.

Question 47

Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a base metal alloy in numerical value? A. Hardness B. Specific gravity C. Casting shrinkage D. Fusion temperature

Answer 47

B. Specific gravity

Question 48

Which of the following impression materials has the highest tear strength? A. Polyether B. Polysulfide C. Addition silicone D. Condensation silicone

Answer 48

B. Polysulfide

Question 49

Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates _____. A. The degree of translucency B. The degree of saturation of the hue C. Combined effect of hue and value D. How dark or light is a shade

Answer 49

B. The degree of saturation of the hue NOTES: HUE is the name of a color. VALUE is the amount of light in a color (lightness or darkness) CHROMA is the degree of strength (saturation) in a color

Question 50

In order for an alloy to be considered noble metal, it should _____. A. Contain at least 25% Ag B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd C. Contain 40% Au D. Contain at least 80% gold

Answer 50

B. Contain at least 25% Pt or Pd

Question 51

The purpose of fabricating a provisional restoration with correct contours and marginal integrity is _____. A. For protection B. To supervise the patient’s dental hygiene and give them feedback during this stage C. To preserve periodontal health D. All of the above

Answer 51

D. All of the above

Question 52

A compomer cement _____. 1. Is indicated for cementation of metal-ceramic crowns. 2. Is indicated for cementation of all-ceramic restorations. 3. Is indicated for some all-ceramic crowns, inlays, and veneers with some contraindications. 4. Has low solubility and sustained release of fluoride. A. All are correct. B. 1, 2, and 3 are correct. C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct. D. 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Answer 52

C. 1, 3, and 4 are correct. NOTES: Is indicated for cementation of metal-ceramic crowns. Is indicated for SOME all-ceramic crowns, inlays, and veneers with SOME contraindications. Has low solubility and sustained release of fluoride.

Question 53

Heating the metal structure in a furnace prior to opaque application in a metal-ceramic crown is necessary to _____. 1. Harden the metal. 2. Oxidize trace elements in the metal. 3. Eliminate oxidation. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 and 3 D. 2 only E. 3 only

Answer 53

D. 2 only (Oxidize trace elements in the metal)

Question 54

Which of the following are probably NOT clinically significant in terms of influencing the retention of a cemented restoration? 1. Tooth preparation 2. Surface texture 3. Casting alloy 4. Tooth taper 5. Luting agent A. 1, 3, and 4 B. 1, 2, 3 C. 1, 2, 3, 5 D. 3 and 5

Answer 54

D. 3 and 5 NOTES: RETENTION FOR RESTORATION: - Tooth preparation - Surface texture - Tooth taper

Question 55

Which articulator is capable of duplicating the border mandibular movements of a patient? A. Nonadjustable B. Arcon-type C. Nonarcon-type D. Fully adjustable

Answer 55

B. Arcon-type NOTES: ARCON- TYPE (same as TMJ) = mandibuAR CONdyle Upper: condylar guidance Lower: condyle NON-ARCON Upper: condyle Lower: condylar guidance

Question 56

Tooth #30 is endodontically treated after a conservative access cavity was made through a typical MO amalgam restoration. The restoration of choice is a _____. A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation B. Custom cast post and core C. Wire post and core D. Parallel-sided prefabricated post with cast core

Answer 56

A. Chamber-retained amalgam foundation

Question 57

Potential problems in connecting implants to natural teeth include all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. Stress is concentrated at the superior portion of the implant B. Breakdown of osseointegration C. Cement failure on the natural abutment D. Screw or abutment loosening E. Fracture in the connector area of the prosthesis

Answer 57

E. Fracture in the connector area of the prosthesis❌

Question 58

Which is true of a minor connector of an RPD? A. Should be thin to not interfere with the tongue B. Should be located on a convex embrasure surface C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure D. All of the above E. A and C only

Answer 58

C. Should conform to the interdental embrasure

Question 59

The design of a restored occlusal surface is dependent upon the _____. 1. Contour of the articular eminence. 2. Position of the tooth in the arch. 3. Amount of lateral shift in the rotating condyle. 4. Amount of vertical overlap of anterior teeth. A. 1 and 3 B. 2, 3, and 4 C. 2 and 4 only D. 3 and 4 only E. All of the above

Answer 59

E. All of the above

Question 60

Which is a main function of a guide plane surface contacted by a minor connector of an RPD? A. Provides a positive path of placement and removal for an RPD B. Can provide additional retention C. Aids in preventing cervical movement D. All of the above E. Only A and B

Answer 60

E. Only A and B

Question 61

From the following list of components of an RPD, which must be rigid? A. Major connector, minor connector, and retentive clasp B. Wrought wire clasp, rests, and minor connector C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector

Answer 61

C. Minor connector, rest, and major connector

Question 62

Which type of clasps are generally used on a tooth-supported removable denture? A. Circumferential cast clasp B. Combination clasp C. Wrought wire clasp

Answer 62

A. Circumferential cast clasp

Question 63

Which of the following disinfectants can be used with alginate impressions? A. Alcohol B. Iodophor C. Glutaraldehyde D. All of the above E. B and C only

Answer 63

E. B and C only NOTES: Disinfectants for Alginate: - Iodophor - Glutaraldehyde

Question 64

A dentist replaces an amalgam on tooth #5 and notices a small pulpal exposure. He elects to use a direct pulp cap procedure. Which of the following best predicts success? A. Size of the lesion B. Isolation of the lesion C. Use of calcium hydroxide D. Age of the patient

Answer 64

B. Isolation of the lesion

Question 65

In a tooth-supported RPD with a circumferential cast clasp assembly, there is _____. A. More than 180 degrees of encirclement in the greatest circumference of the tooth B. A distal rest on the tooth anterior to the edentulous area C. A mesial rest on the tooth posterior to the edentulous area D. Only B and C E. All of the above

Answer 65

E. All of the above

Question 66

What is a nonrigid connector? A. An appliance composed of a key and keyway that is used to connect one piece of a prosthesis to another B. An appliance that is used to connect two crowns rigidly fixed C. A bar appliance that is used to maintain a space for a tooth that has not erupted D. None of the above

Answer 66

A. An appliance composed of a key and keyway that is used to connect one piece of a prosthesis to another

Question 67

The distance between the major connector on a maxillary RPD framework and the gingival margins should be at least _____. A. 3 mm B. 2 mm C. 6 mm D. 15 mm

Answer 67

C. 6 mm

Question 68

The component that is responsible for connecting the major connector with the rest and clamp assembly is: A. The bar B. The minor connector C. The proximal plate D. The guide plane

Answer 68

B. The minor connector

Question 69

The three dimensions of the Munsell Color Order System, the basis for shade guides such as Vita Lumin™, are _____. A. Absorption, scattering and translucency B. Color, translucency, and gloss C. Size, shape, and interactions with light D. Hue, value, chroma

Answer 69

D. Hue, value, chroma

Question 70

The purpose of applying a layer of opaque porcelain in a metal-ceramic restoration is to _____. A. Create a bond between the metal and porcelain B. Mask the metal oxide layer as well as provide a porcelain–metal bond C. Create the main color for the restoration D. A and B are correct E. All of the above

Answer 70

D. A and B are correct