Post-op complications part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the term for acute mechanical failure of wound closure?

A

wound dehiscence

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2
Q

what percentage of all post-op infections in hospitalized patients are wound infections?

A

14-16 percent

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3
Q

most post-op wound infections require _________

A

surgical debridement

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4
Q

is induration a normal sign of healing or a sign of infection?

A

induration = normal

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5
Q

signs of wound infection?

A

1) redness
2) swelling
3) localized heat and erythema
4) worsening pain (esp after day)
5) dehiscence
6) tachycardia
7) fever (late)

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6
Q

what types of procedures typically cause clean (no gross contamination) wound infections?

A

non-abdominal (like a hand surgery)

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7
Q

what is the source of infection of a “clean” wound infection?

A

patient skin OR environment, surgical team

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8
Q

are the contaminants seen in “clean” wound infections typically gram negative or gram positive?

A

gram positive (thats what we have living on our skin!)

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9
Q

clean-contaminated (lightly contaminated) wound infections are most likely due to what?

A

endogenous colonization during an elective GI surgery (gallbladder we picked at starts to leak contents)

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10
Q

what type of organisms typically cause “clean-contaminated” infections?

A

polymicrobial, typically gram negative (so tx differently than clean!)

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11
Q

this type of infection is typically caused by a “spill” during elective surgery; ie you go in and poke the gallbladder and its so friable it starts spewing its contents everywhere

A

contaminated wound infection

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12
Q

a perforated gastric ulcer is an example of what type of wound infection?

A

contaminated wound infection

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13
Q

how do we prevent wound infection?

A

ABX must be PRESENT at time of the contamination (given less than 60 minutes from time of incision) active against anticipated pathogens

re-dose 4-6 hours later, no more than 3 post-op doses

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14
Q

an intestinal infarction is most likely to cause what type of wound infection?

A

dirty (infected)

spillage of intestinal contents into the gut

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15
Q

an intra-abdominal abscess drainage will cause what type of wound infection?

A

dirty

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16
Q

which two antibiotics have the strongest association with C. difficile?

A

clindamycin and fluoroquinolones

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17
Q

is c. difficile gram negative or gram positive?

A

gram positive spore forming anaerobic bacillus

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18
Q

c. difficile is carried by _____ percent of adults in hospitals or LTC facilities

A

20-50 percent

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19
Q

what are 5 common facultative anaerobes?

A

1) staph
2) strep
3) enterococcus
4) e. coli
5) listeria

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20
Q

how is c. diff transmitted? why do we have such a hard time eliminating it?

A

fecal/oral

spores are resistant to heat, acid, alcohol, and antibiotics! hand sanitizer alone will not kill c.diff!

21
Q

treatment of c. diff colitis?

A
PO metronidazole
PO vancomycin (not IV!)

or PO vancomycin PLUS IV metronidazole

22
Q

you may recommend your patient coming in for surgery washes in a _______

A

chlorhexadine bath (broad spectrum topical ABX)

23
Q

are dressings of much help in preventing post operative infection?

24
Q

should we used an open or a closed drain system if we want to prevent post-op infection?

A

closed!

separate stab for exit

25
what is the most frequently acquired nosocomial infection?
urinary tract infection
26
what are the 3 biggest risk factors for UTI?
1) pre-existing urinary tract contamination 2) urine retention (like BPH) -- anesthesia also causes urinary retention! 3) instrumentation
27
what percentage of patients will have bacteriuria less than 48 hours after cath is placed?
5 percent develop bacteriuria 1 percent develop UTI
28
this type of UTI presents with dysuria and mild fever
cystitis
29
this type of UTI presents with high fever, flank tenderness, and occasionally ileus
pyelonephritis
30
what is the best way to prevent UTI in surgical patient?
get catheter out ASAP!
31
treatment of UTI in post-op patient?
hydration, bladder drainage, specific antibiotics
32
temporary paralysis of a portion of the bowels is known as what?
postoperative ileus
33
signs and symptoms of postoperative ileus?
nausea, vomiting, vague abdominal discomfort
34
diagnostic modality for postoperative ileus?
abdominal x-ray
35
what will we hear on auscultation of a patient's abdomen with ileus?
quiet bowel sounds
36
treatment of postoperative ileus? (3)
1) NPO 2) NG tube 3) IVF/nutrition: D5IV -- don't jump to TPN support and wait!
37
what is the name of the autosomal dominant genetic hypermetabolic condition of muscle?
malignant hyperthermia
38
how will a patient with malignant hyperthermia present?
1) violent sustained muscle contractions 2) possible masseter rigidity 3) increased body temp (maybe delayed up to 36 hours following trigger) 4) tachycardia 5) cyanosis 6) muscle rigidity
39
what are the two known triggers of malignant hyperthermia?
1) extreme stress | 2) anesthetic agents (inhaled halothane, succinylcholine)
40
what are 4 life-threatening late effects of malignant hyperthermia?
1) compartment syndrome 2) rhabdomyolysis 3) acidosis (metabolic and respiratory) 4) arrhythmias/sudden cardiac arrest (associated with hyperkalemia)
41
an abrupt ______ in ETCO2 may be your first sign of malignant hyperthermia
INCREASE in ETCO2
42
how do we prevent malignant hyperthermia?
check family history! a muscle biopsy with stimulated contraction studies may be ordered
43
what is the DOC for treating malignant hyperthermia?
DANTROLENE (muscle relaxer which blocks Ca release from sarcoplasmic reticulum, disrupts excitation-contraction coupling)
44
what other two body systems should you provide support for in a malignant hyperthermia episode?
renal support respiratory support
45
you should provide _____ when your patient is in malignant hyperthermia
cooling blankets
46
always be sure to search for ________ in your patient with malignant hyperthermia
occult compartment syndrome
47
why do we worry so much about patients with renal disease developing bradycardic with volume depletion?
their kidneys can't increase the volume bc they aren't working they can go into PEA!
48
is our patient following volume depletion more likely to go into hypernatremia or hyponatremia?
hyponatremia; once we volume deplete them they have a surge of ADH production (retain water)
49
how do we fix hyponatremia in our patient?
normal saline! has a higher level of sodium in it