Approach to surgical patient Flashcards

1
Q

what is the purpose of the preoperative evaluation?

A

to evaluate the patient at higher risk of complication and implement interventions to mitigate or reduce that risk

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2
Q

what is the KEY factor in improving outcome and lowering length of hospital stay in our patients?

A

mitigating or decreasing stress response to surgery and anesthesia

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3
Q

when will complete gastric emptying occur in normal individuals?

A

90 minutes

between 90-120 in the rest

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4
Q

why is keeping gastric emptying time in mind important when prepping your patient for surgery?

A

keep them NPO when necessary and possible, but if they need food give it outside this range

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5
Q

a patient’s _______ _______provides valuable prognostic information regarding likelihood of developing intra-operative and post-operative complications

A

patient’s functional capacity

question the patient with regards to exercise tolerance

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6
Q

what are the four components of a preoperative physical exam review?

A

1) BP (both arms)
2) thorough lung exam
3) cardiac exam with pulses
4) EKG looking for rhythm abnormalities

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7
Q

it is important to try to avoid surgery for several months if patient has had a recent _____

A

MI

recent hx of MI markedly increases risk for a postoperative recurrent MI and mortality

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8
Q

do patients with a 20+ pack year who stop smoking 2 months prior to surgery reduce their risk of peri and postoperative complications by much?

A

yes! significantly

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9
Q

how long must a patient with a 20+ pack year stop smoking prior to surgery in order to have rates of complications similar to non-smokers?

A

6 months

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10
Q

what is the predominant pathogen seen in endocarditis?

A

staph aureus

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11
Q

what 2 factors must be present for endocarditis to occur?

A

1) endothelial injury or defect

2) PLUS bacteremia

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12
Q

under what 6 circumstances do we give ABX PPX for high risk patients for endocarditis?

A

1) acquire valve disease with stenosis or regurgitation
2) those with congenital heart defect
3) those with prosthetic heart valve (all types)
4) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
5) prior HX of endocarditis
6) heart transplant recipients

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13
Q

if patient reporting for surgery has a HX of recurrent epistaxis, gum bleeding, and exceptionally heavy menses, how should you proceed?

A

inquire as to family hx of bleeding disorders

if bleeding diathetsis suspected: CBC, platelet count, PT/PTT/INR

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14
Q

what is the ASA classification system?

A

system utilized for assessing fitness of patients before surgery

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15
Q

a normal healthy patient with no operative risk is considered what class and grade?

A

class 1, grade 1a

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16
Q

a patient with mild systemic disease or a normal healthy patient with some operative and anesthetic risk is considered what class and grade on the ASA system?

A

class 1, grade 1a

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17
Q

who falls under class 4 on the ASA classification system?

A

patient with an incapacitating systemic disease that is a constant threat to life; patient with severe systemic disease that limits activity

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18
Q

who falls under class 5 on the ASA classification system?

A

moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours with or without operation

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19
Q

under the current guidelines, what types of patients should receive beta blockers prior to surgery?

A

1) CAD
2) angioplasty
3) CABG
4) use of nitrates for chest pain
5) TIA or CVD
6) serum creatinine more than 2
7) pts with poorly controlled T2DM

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20
Q

what is the benefit to using a beta blocker prior to surgery?

A

lower the heart rate which in turn reduces heart muscle O2 demand during stress of surgery and anesthesia

21
Q

who gets an echocardiogram prior to surgery?

A

all patients with clinical signs of heart failure and MURMUR

22
Q

describe the murmur of aortic stenosis

A

mid-systolic crescendo-descrescendo ejection murmur heard best over the right 2nd intercostal space with radiation into the right neck

23
Q

a palpably slow rise of the carotid upstroke may make you consider what valve dysfunction?

A

aortic stenosis

24
Q

aortic stenosis is a progressive disease, describe the typical course of symptoms throughout a patients life

A

mnemonia = ASC

1) Angina (early; usually stable)
2) Syncope (later; w exercise)
3) CHF (bc of hypertrophied LV)

25
what will EKG of late aortic stenosis show?
left ventricular hypertrophy with LV strain bc of pressure overload
26
has mild to moderate asthma been shown to pose a significant perioperative pulmonary risk?
no
27
your patient just had an acute exacerbation of their asthma or COPD, what should you tell them in regards for their upcoming tonsillectomy?
wait you should delay purely elective surgery for patients with recent acute exacerbation
28
if a patient has COPD or severe asthma, what should you give post op?
scheduled nebulizers with albuterol and ipratropium q4 hours
29
your COPD patient is post-op hip replacement and goes into an acute COPD exacerbation. should you give steroids?
discuss with surgical team remember that steroids may impair wound healing!
30
what do we do for prophylaxis for acute withdrawal syndrome/delerium tremens should a suspected alcoholic require a surgical procedure?
combination of 1) benzos 2) clonidine 3) chlormethiazole 4) haldol most hospitals have set protocol for these patients at high risk
31
jaundice and clay-colored schools should raise suspicion for what GI disorder?
choledocolithiasis
32
diagnosis and treatment of choledocolithiasis?
ERCP to TX/DX cholecystectomy down the line
33
obstruction of the common bile duct or cystic duct will cause _____ type pain
colicky pain
34
where is the gallstone if you are getting inflammation of just the gallbladder?
obstruction of the cystic duct cholecystitis
35
what are the risk factors for cholecystitis?
- increased age - female sex (2x MC) - pregnancy - certain meds - obesity
36
DX and TX of cholecystitis?
``` DX = ultrasound TX = cholecystectomy ```
37
you should always perform a _____ on a patient with a perianal abscess
DRE
38
true or false, when documenting anatomical findings near the rectum you should use numbers according to a clockface
FALSE use proper anatomical terms
39
management of simple perianal abscess?
1) incision and drain | 2) discharge home for warm tub soaks, bulk-forming fiber laxatives, +/- analgesics
40
abscesses with associated signs of sepsis or extensive abscesses should be managed the same way as a perianal abscess, true or false?
false get these people in the OR (likely a fistula) -- much more complicated and requires surgery
41
initial treatment of acute pancreatitis?
1) keep patient NPO 2) aggressive IV fluids 3) pain control
42
how do we manage advanced cases of pancreatitis?
require admission and subsequent surgery if an obstructive etiology is the cause
43
how will a patient with acute pancreatitis present?
1) severe epigastric pain 2) radiates to back or should blade 3) nausea, vomiting 4) anorexia 5) fever, chills
44
what will more advanced stages of pancreatitis look like?
hemodynamic instability, tachycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression
45
most common causes of pancreatitis?
alcohol, gallstones, smoking, metabolic disorders (hereditary pancreatitis, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, malnutrition)
46
what might you find on PE of a patient with acute pancreatitis?
1) grey-turners (flank hemorrhage) | 2) cullens sign (umbilicus hem.)
47
what is couvoiresier's sign?
if obstruction is due to a cause other than a stone in the gallbladder, would be able to dilate and thus be palpable on examination (in RUQ)
48
are grey-turner's/cullens sign specific to pancreatitis?
nope also retroperitoneal hemorrhage, blunt trauma, ruptured AAA, ruptured ectopic PG, spontaneous bleeding
49
if patient stops breathing in and winces to "catch" a breath while gently applying pressure to the RUQ and asking them to inspire, what might be going on?
positive murphy signs gallbladder pathology