Post-Mid Mod Flashcards

1
Q

What are the characteristics of a psychotic patient

A

-Demonstrating a loss of reality
-Experiencing delusions/hallucinations/thought disorders

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2
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for psychotic patients

A

-Schizophrenia
-Brief psychotic
-Delusional
-Schizophreniform
-Schizoaffective
-Substance/medication-induced psychosis
-Mood disorders
-Other medical conditions inducing psychosis

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3
Q

Symptoms of hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized/catatonic behavior, negative symptoms (emotional blunting) WITH loss of social/occupational functioning

A

Schizophrenia

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4
Q

Symptoms of hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, disorganized/catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms for at least 1 month and less than 6 months; less socially/occupationally impaired

A

Schizophreniform Disorder

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5
Q

Symptoms of a major depressive/manic episode concurrently with the core symptoms of schizophrenia; must be present without prominent mood symptoms for at least 2 weeks

A

Schizoaffective Disorder

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6
Q

Symptoms of persistent but relatively circumscribed delusions for at least one month in the absence of other schizophrenia symptoms; able to function in daily life normally

A

Delusional Disorder

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7
Q

Symptoms of psychosis, delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech/behavior that are persistent for at least one day by for less than one month; return to full premorbid functioning

A

Brief Psychotic Disorder

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8
Q

Symptoms of hallucinations, delusions, gross disorganization that are directly caused by the effects of a medical illness (neurological, endocrine, metabolic, autoimmune, delirium)

A

Psychotic Disorder due to another medical condition

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9
Q

What is the presentation difference between delirium and schizophrenia

A

Delirium has fluctuating levels of alertness/orientation; schizophrenia patients are consistent and usually well-oriented

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10
Q

What drugs can induce psychosis

A

Adrenocorticosteroids
Atropine/Anticholinergics
Ketamine
NMDA receptor antagonists

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11
Q

Symptoms of psychosis, hallucinations, delusions, as a direct result of substance intoxication/withdrawal

A

Substance/Medication Induced Psychotic Disorder

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12
Q

What illicit substances can cause psychosis

A

Alcohol
Amphetamines
Cannabis
Cocaine
Hallucinogens
Inhalants
Opioids
Phenylcyclidine
Sedatives

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13
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Delusions and hallucinations

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14
Q

Fixed ideas based on incorrect perceptions of reality and do not stem from a shared system of cultural beliefs (i.e. internal to the individual)

A

Delusions

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15
Q

What are Schneider’s first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia (3)

A
  1. Thought broadcasting- believe that their thoughts can be perceived by others (no privacy)
  2. Thought insertion- believe that their thoughts are not their own but of someone else who inserted it into their heads
  3. Thought withdrawal- believe that thoughts are being removed from their heads (typically paranoid)
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16
Q

What is the most common perceptual symptom of schizophrenia

A

Auditory hallucinations

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17
Q

Are visual hallucinations more indicative of schizophrenia or delirium

A

Delirium

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18
Q

What are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Affective blunted/flattened expressions (robot-like)

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19
Q

How is the blunted/flattened affect of schizophrenia defined

A

Loss of volition + development of apathy (but NOT depressed)

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20
Q

What are the disorganized symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Bizarre/idiosyncratic thought processes
Loosening of associations
Clanging
Word salad (incoherent word patterning)
Disturbed word choices
Neologisms
Thought-blocking
Catatonia/Wavy flexibility

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21
Q

What are the chances of inheritance of schizophrenia

A

10% in siblings
13% in children (one parent- two parents is 30-40%)

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22
Q

What is a major risk factor for inheriting risk genes for schizophrenia

A

Advanced paternal age

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23
Q

What is the general mechanism of antipsychotic drugs

A

Block postsynaptic dopamine receptors > decrease activity in the dopamine pathways of the brain (the opposite of Parkinson’s drugs)

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24
Q

What is the action of dopamine on the tuberoinfundibular tract

A

Inhibits prolactin secretion from the posterior pituitary gland (responsible for many of the side effects of antipsychotics)

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25
Q

What part tract of the brain are affected by the dopamine signaling in schizophrenia

A

Mesolimbic (increase in DA) and mesocortical (deficiency in DA) tracts

Mesocortical acts as feedback inhibitor of mesolimbic

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26
Q

What is the state of cortical and mesolimbic activity in Schizophrenia (aka what causes the positive and negative symptoms)

A

Hypodopaminergic mesocortical activity > negative symptoms
Hyperdopaminergic mesolimbic activity > positive symptoms

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27
Q

What are the initial (prodromal) signs of schizophrenia and when do they typically emerge

A

Negative symptoms (similar to schizotypal personality disorder) in adolescents

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28
Q

What usually precipitates the long-lasting (residual) symptoms of schizophrenia

A

Social changes; major life changes; stress

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29
Q

What is usually the pattern of schizophrenia symptoms

A

A first episode followed by extended period of time in remission, then can be followed by multiple/continuous episodes; variable time tables, but symptoms progressively worsen; will eventually plateau at a variable level

Positive symptoms typically lessen over time, while negatives worsen

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30
Q

What are the common side effects of antipsychotics

A

Cardiometabolic effects (weight gain, elevated glucose/cholesterol > cardiovascular disease, metabolic syndrome)

most people with schizophrenia die of cardiovascular disease

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31
Q

What is the primary mechanism of second-generation antipsychotic drugs

A

5-HT2A-receptor (activated by serotonin) inverse agonists > inhibit cortical and limbic dopamine release

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32
Q

What is the primary mechanism of first-generation antipsychotic drugs

A

Blocks dopamine D2-receptors in the mesolimbic and striatal-frontal system

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33
Q

What diseases are first-generational (typical) antipsychotics used for

A

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)
Psychosis
Bipolar Disorder
Delirium
Tourettes
Huntington Disease
OCD

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34
Q

What are the side effect mechanism of low-potency first gen antipsychotics

A

Anticholinergic
Antihistamine
Anti-A1 adrenergic
Increased prolactin

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35
Q

What are the side effects of high-potency first gen antipsychotics

A

Pseudoparkinsonsim
Akathisia- treat with B-blockers
Acute Dystonia- treat with benztropine
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome- treat with Bromocriptine/Dantrolene
Tardive dyskinesia- treat with benztropine

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36
Q

Which antipsychotic has a high risk for agranulocytosis

A

Clozapine
Largely used for refractory schizophrenia

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37
Q

Why might atypical antipsychotics be associated with less side effects

A

Atypical antipsychotics block the D2 receptor as well, but at a lower affinity (does not interfere with DA needed for voluntary movement)

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38
Q

What antipsychotic has been used to reduce risk of suicide in schizophrenic patients

A

Clozapine

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39
Q

What antipsychotic is the most commonly prescribed in the US

A

Aripiprazole

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40
Q

If a patient develops tardive dyskinesia when using a typical antipsychotic, which atypical antipsychotics should they be switched to

A

Clozapine or Quetiapine

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41
Q

What are the symptoms and causes of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

A

Typical Antipsychotics > truncal rigidity, hyperpyrexia, and altered mental status

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42
Q

Symptoms of persistent, distinct, depressed mood* or loss of pleasure/interest in normal activities*; can include significant weight loss/gain, insomnia, psychomotor agitation, fatigue, guilty/worthless/pessimistic/angry feelings/ideations, loss of focus, recurrent thoughts of death/suicide; present for at least 2 weeks

A

Major Depressive Disorder

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43
Q

What emotions are included in the feelings of sadness associated with depression

A

Hopelessness
Helplessness
Worthlessness

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44
Q

Loss of ability to experience pleasure

A

Anhedonia

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45
Q

Depressed patients that cannot sense or articulate their sadness, and instead focus on their loss of interest

A

Alexithymia

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46
Q

What sleep abnormalities are associated with depression

A

Sleep onset insomnia (trouble falling asleep)
Sleep maintenance insomnia (waking in middle of night)
Terminal insomnia (waking early in the morning)

Also: hypersomnia is common
Decreased REM latency, Increased REM duration

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47
Q

What is the differential for patients presenting with dementia symptoms, withdrawal, apathy, and/or irritability)

A

Pseudodementia associated with depression

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48
Q

What are the two patterns of depressive symptoms

A

Diurnal variation: Consistently at one particular time of the day
Mood reactivity: Inconsistent; temporarily relieved by good things

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49
Q

Symptoms of mild depression characterized by low mood, lack of energy/interest, low self-esteem, and irritability; lasts for at least 2 years with little/no remission

A

Dysthymic/Persistent Depressive Disorder

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50
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic depressive disorders

A

Last for more than 2 years
Associated with poor response to treatment
Slower rate of improvement
Younger onset
Longer episodes
Greater burden
High rates of comorbidity
High rates of suicidality

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51
Q

Symptoms of mild depression with long-standing personality difficulties, irritable/gloomy/complaining; hardworking, eager to please, cheerful yet fearful of making mistakes

A

Depressive personality

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52
Q

Symptoms of 1 manic episode with/without 1 depressive episode

A

Bipolar I Disorder

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53
Q

Symptoms of 1 hypomanic episode with 1 depressive episode

A

Bipolar II Disorder

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54
Q

Irritability or abnormal euphoria, high energy (grandiose), impaired insight for at least one week; often a decreased need for sleep, increased sexual drive, cognitive hastening/impulsivity

A

Mania

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55
Q

What can mania be confused for and why

A

Schizophrenia- loosening of associations, clang associations, and thought-disordered speech

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56
Q

Energetic with heightened cognitive and sensual alertness- creates a slightly euphoric feeling > will develop into unrealistic expectations and questionable judgement > depression and despair

A

Hypomania

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57
Q

Symptoms of alternating mild depression and hypomanic symptoms of short durations, and continue for several weeks to several months; complaints of chronic depression with fluctuating sleep patterns, agitation, and irritability

A

Cyclothymic Disorder

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58
Q

Symptoms of depressed mood/anhedonia in women associated with breast tenderness, headaches, bloating (during last week of luteal phase) in a cycle-pattern for 2 consecutive months

A

Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder

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59
Q

What is the difference between normal bereavement and major depression symptoms

A

Bereavement has no pervasive low self-esteem, and symptoms will resolve naturally within 2-3 months (up to 1-2 years); no psychosis

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60
Q

What personality disorders typically are comorbid with depression

A

Borderline
Histrionic
Narcissistic

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61
Q

What is the major difference between personality disorders and mood disorders

A

Personality disorders are long-standing and consistent, mood disorders are abrupt and change pre-existing social functioning

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62
Q

What neurotransmitters might be associated with depressive symptoms

A

Decreased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin

Serotonergic system modulates dopaminergic neurons in VTA

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63
Q

What is the (rate-limiting) metabolic precursor to serotonin

A

Tryptophan

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64
Q

What structures of the brain are affected by depression

A

Hippocampus
Amygdala
Pre-frontal cortex
Anterior cingulate/medial orbital frontal cortex

Antidepressants increase BDNF levels- which promote neuronal growth/survival/maturation in these areas

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65
Q

What is the pathogenesis of damage to the brain by depression

A

Acute stress exposure causes prolonged glutamate release in the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus > neuroexcitotoxicity

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66
Q

What evidence has suggested the connection between prolonged stress and depressive disorders

A

Elevated serum cortisol, increased adrenal mass, decreased glucocorticoid receptor mRNA expression

Possibly explains why hx of childhood abuse can cause depression in adults

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67
Q

What hormones are decreased in patients with depression

A

Thyroid hormones
Estrogen
Testosterone

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68
Q

Which mood disorders are especially genetically-linked

A

Bipolar Disorder!
Depression Disorders

Likely has to do with biological vulnerability + trigger factors

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69
Q

What are the pertinent atypical features of depression

A

Increased sleep/appetite
Extreme fatigue/leaden limb paralysis
Mood reactivity

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70
Q

What are the pertinent psychotic features of mood disorders (esp. bipolar)

A

Delusions/Hallucinations that are mood-congruent (themes of guilt, pessimism, deserved punishment)

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71
Q

What are common features of seasonal recurrent depression

A

Lethargy and fatigue; hypersomnia and overeating

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72
Q

Symptoms of depressive symptoms (no psychotic features) for up to one year post-partum

A

Major depression with peripartum onset

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73
Q

What does “mixed feature” mood depression describe

A

Mixtures of mood, thought, and behavioral symptoms that can be simultaneous/out of sync (ex: mania, hypomania, and depressive symptoms happening concurrently and without order)

High risk of suicide

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74
Q

What type of patients is electroconvulsive therapy used for

A

Depressed patients who are psychotic, extremely suicidal, or medically ill; delusional depression

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75
Q

What is the treatment for life-threatened manic episodes

A

Electroconvulsive Therapy

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76
Q

What is the mechanism of electroconvulsive therapy

A

Downregulation of NE receptors
Increase 5-HT receptors
Regulate Ca2+ entry into neurons

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77
Q

What is a common symptom of depression in elderly patients

A

Pseudodementia- lack of comprehension, memory loss, lack of recognition; transient in nature

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78
Q

What is a major risk in geriatric patients with depression

A

Increased incidence of cardiovascular and cancer-related deaths (high risk for MI)

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79
Q

What is the cognitive theory of depression

A

Proposes that the primary defect in depression is not a mood issue, but rather distorted thinking- unrealistic, pessimistic, negative views of oneself, the world, and the future

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80
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Lithium

A

Inhibits inositol signaling (IP3-DAG pathway) (via depleting intracellular inositol); inhibits glycogen synthase kinase-3

Blocks a-adrenergic and muscarinic transmission (which are increased during a manic episode)

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81
Q

What is the optimal maintenance serum level of Lithium

A

Between 0.6 and 0.9 mEq/L

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82
Q

What type of drugs reduce renal clearance of lithium

A

Diuretics (by about 25%)
NSAIDs

Also avoid with typical antipsychotics- will worsen EPS

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83
Q

What are the common side effects of lithium

A

Tremor (use propranolol and atenolol)
Decreased thyroid function
Polydipsia/Polyuria/Diabetes insipidus
Edema
SA depression
Teratogen
Leukocytosis

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84
Q

Which antiepileptics can be used to treat bipolar disorder

A

Valproic Acid (often combined with lithium)
Carbamazepine (acute mania/prophylactic therapy)

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85
Q

What drugs are SSRIs

A

Fluoxetine
Sertraline
Citaprolam
Paroxetine
Fluvoxamine
Escitalopram

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86
Q

Are antidepressants lipophilic or hydrophilic

A

Lipophilic

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87
Q

What is the general rule of prescribing fluoxetine

A

It must be discontinued >4 weeks before starting a MAOI

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88
Q

Which SSRIs are CYP2D6 inhibitors

A

Fluoxetine and Paroxetine

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89
Q

What is the MOA of SSRIs

A

Inhibit (allosterically) serotonin transporter (SERT), and DO NOT effect histamine/acetylcholine/a adrenoreceptors

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90
Q

What are the notable drug interactions of SSRIs

A

CYP2D6 Inhibition
Interactions with MAOIs can cause serotonin syndrome

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91
Q

What are the notable side effects of SSRIs

A

Nausea
GI upset
Diarrhea
Diminished sexual function/interest/arousal
Weight gain (paroxetine)
Teratogen

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92
Q

What drugs are SNRIs

A

Venlafaxine
Desvenlafaxine
Duloxetine

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93
Q

What are some of the uses of SNRIs

A

Major Depression
Neuropathy/Fibromyalgia
Generalized anxiety
Stress urinary incontinence
Vasomotor menopause symptoms

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94
Q

What is the MOA of SNRIs

A

Bind to serotonin (SERT) and norepinephrine (NET) transporters; DO NOT have affinity for other receptors (histamine, a-adrenergic, cholinergic)

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95
Q

What are the side effects of SNRIs

A

All the SSRI side effects
Increased BP + HR
Insomnia/Anxiety/Agitation
Cardiac toxicity (venlafaxine)

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96
Q

What drugs are TCAs

A

Desipramine
Imipramine

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97
Q

What is the MOA of tricyclic antidpressants

A

Inhibit serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake; imipramine is highly anticholinergic; anti-muscarinic; anti-histamine (H1)

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98
Q

What are the pertinent side effects of TCAs

A

Dry mouth/constipation/urinary retention/blurred vision/confusion
Orthostatic hyotension
Convulsions/Coma/Cardiotoxicity

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99
Q

What drugs are 5-HT2 receptor modulators

A

Trazodone
Nefazodone

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100
Q

What is the most common use of trazodone

A

Hypnotic/Sedative

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101
Q

What is the MOA of trazodone/nefazodone

A

Inhibit the 5-HT2 receptor > antianxiety/antipsychotic/antidepressant effects

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102
Q

What are the side effects of 5-HT2 antagonists

A

Hepatotoxicity (nefazodone)
Sedation
GI Disturbances
Priapism (trazodone)
Orthostatic hypotension

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103
Q

What drugs are tetracyclics/unicyclics (more of a catch-all for other antidepressants)

A

Mirtazapine
Amoxapine
Maprotiline
Bupropion
Vilazodone

It says these are not often used… so yeah

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104
Q

What drugs are MAO Inhibitors

A

Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Tranylcypromine
Selegiline

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105
Q

What are the uses for MAO inhibitors

A

Depression
Anxiety
Panic Disorder
Parkinson’s Disease (selegiline)

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106
Q

What is the MOA of MAOI’s

A

Inhibit MAO-A and MAO-B > increase monoamine content by inhibiting their metabolism (dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin)

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107
Q

What are the common side effects of MAO inhibitors

A

CNS Stimulation
Hypertensive Crisis
Serotonin Syndrome

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108
Q

What class are the most commonly used antidepressants

A

SSRIs and SNRIs

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109
Q

What do SERTs reuptake

A

5-HT

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110
Q

What does sustained NE or 5-HT signaling do to BDNF

A

Increases expression of BDNF

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111
Q

Which antidepressants have been used to treat anxiety disorders

A

SSRIs and SNRIs

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112
Q

What antidepressants have been used to treat pain disorders

A

TCAs
Duloxetine (SNRI)
Milnacipran (SNRI)

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113
Q

What antidepressants have been used to treat premenstrual dysphoric disorder (severe PMS)

A

Fluoxetine and Sertraline (SSRIs)

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114
Q

What antidepressants have been used to treat eating disorders

A

Fluoxetine (SSRI)

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115
Q

What antidepressant is used to treat seasonal depression/smoking cessation

A

Bupropion

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116
Q

What is used to treat TCA overdoses

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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117
Q

What are the three signs of TCA overdoses

A

Cardiac toxicity (malignant arrhythmias)
Convulsions
Coma

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118
Q

Which antidepressant can cause seizures

A

Bupropion

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119
Q

What family history is a risk for SSRIs

A

Bipolar Disorder (can precipitate manic episodes)

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120
Q

What drug is used in severe cases of serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine (antihistamine, anticholinergic, antiserotoninergic)

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121
Q

When is the threshold for when anxiety becomes maladaptive

A

When it is out of proportion to the threat
Persists after the threat has been resolved
Impairs personal functioning

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122
Q

Symptoms of tachycardia, palpitations, chest pain, difficulty breathing, restlessness, insomnia, headaches, GI issues, paresthesia, dizziness, nausea

A

Anxiety

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123
Q

Anxiety symptoms that are prolonged and excessive, not focused on a specific source; for at least 6 months

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

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124
Q

What is the treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

First line: SNRIs/SSRIs, CBT
Second line: buspirone

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125
Q

Symptoms of recurrent, debilitating panic attacks w/ or w/o a trigger for at least 1 month

A

Panic disorder

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126
Q

What is the treatment for acute and long-term management of panic attacks

A

Acute: short-acting benzodiazepines (alprazolam)
Long-term: SSRIs, SNRIs, CBT, TCAs

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127
Q

What are the symptoms of a panic attack

A

Palpitations
Shortness of breath
Paresthesias
Depersonalization/Derealization
GI distress
Intense fear of dying
Intense fear of losing control
Dizziness
Diaphoresis

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128
Q

What are the requirements to diagnose panic disorder

A

Symptoms of recurrent panic attacks + persistent concern/worrying/behavioral change dictated by panic attacks

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129
Q

Symptoms of pronounced anxiety of social situations that involve scrutiny from others (fear of social interaction/performance; for at least 6 months

A

Social Anxiety Disorder

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130
Q

What is the treatment for Social Anxiety Disorder

A

CBT; SSRIs/SNRIs

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131
Q

Symptoms of persistent and intense fears of particular situations and objects for more than 6 months

A

Specific phobias

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132
Q

What is the treatment for specific phobias

A

CBT (desensitization therapy)
Benzodiazepines
SSRIs

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133
Q

Symptoms of pronounced fear/anxiety of situations that are perceived to be difficult to escape from; lasts for > 6 months in > 2 situations

A

Agoraphobia

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134
Q

What is the treatment for agoraphobia

A

CBT
SSRIs

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135
Q

Symptoms of prominent anxiety or panic attacks after using/stopping a substance/medication

A

Substance/Medication-induced Anxiety Disorder

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136
Q

What substances are typically causative of anxiety disorder

A

Alcohol
Caffeine
Corticosteroids
Amphetamines
Cannabis

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137
Q

What is the treatment for substance-induced anxiety disorder

A

Discontinue substance use
CBT
SSRIs/SNRIs

138
Q

What is the characteristic triad of panic disorder

A

Acute panic attacks
Anticipatory anxiety
Phobic avoidance

139
Q

What age group is most likely to experience onset of panic disorder

A

Between late adolescence and mid-30s

140
Q

What are the comorbidities of panic disorder

A

Major Depressive Disorder
Substance Abuse Disorders

141
Q

What situations/locations are diagnostic for agoraphobia

A

Lines/Crowds
Public Transport
Open Spaces
Closed Spaces
Being alone outside of home

142
Q

Describe the course of symptoms of Generalized Anxiety Disorder

A

Usually constant anxiety across multiple domains, but can be waxing/waning, and exacerbated during times of stress

143
Q

What is an important differential to consider in symptoms of anxiety

A

Hyperthyroidism

144
Q

How long does it take for the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal to appear

A

24-48 hours

145
Q

Symptoms of jitteriness, nervousness, mild tremor, and mild increase in HR and BP; also can cause panic attacks

A

Classic withdrawal

146
Q

Symptoms of anxiety with mild nervous, tremor, and HR/BP increase along with insomnia

A

Nocturnal withdrawal syndrome

147
Q

What is the cause of nocturnal withdrawal syndrome

A

Wearing off of depressants (usually decrease REM), results in rebound effect of increasing REM

148
Q

What is the difference in presentation of benzodiazepine and alcohol withdrawal

A

Benzodiazepine withdrawal is more rapid and more intense- mild tremulousness; anxiety disorder symptoms

149
Q

Symptoms of tachycardia, elevated BP, mydriasis, restlessness, vomiting/diarrhea, hyperthermia, hyperalgesia and respiratory depression associated with 8-12 hours after withdrawal of what?

A

Opioid withdrawal

150
Q

What patient groups are at risk for paradoxical reactions of benzodiazepines and barbiturates (cause anxiety)

A

Elderly and children

151
Q

Symptoms of intrusive/recurrent/persistent thoughts/urges that cause marked anxiety, and then lead to repetitive behaviors that alleviate the symptoms

A

Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder

152
Q

What is the degree of insight in patients with OCD

A

Some can have good insight to their situation, but others are more delusional

153
Q

What is the typical demographic of a patient with OCD

A

Male adolescent/young adult

154
Q

Symptoms of intrusive re-experiencing, avoidance, mood disorders, and changes in arousal, depersonalization, distorted cognition/memory associated with direct/indirect exposure to a traumatic experience, particularly one that is harmful

A

Posttraumatic Stress Disorder

155
Q

What is the timeline for PTSD

A

Symptoms usually begin within 3 months of the event (can be years), and symptoms must be present for 6 months

156
Q

What are the differentiating factors between acute stress disorder and PTSD

A

Acute Stress Disorder symptoms appear more rapidly post-trauma and are resolved within 1 month

157
Q

What are the differentials to include for Acute Stress Disorder

A

Delirium
Substance-induced Anxiety Disorder
Brief Psychotic Disorder
Primary anxiety disorders
Adjustment Disorder

158
Q

What are the neurotransmitter mechanisms of treatment for anxiety disorders

A

Increase serotonin availability (SSRIs)
Block noradrenergic signaling (a2 agonists)
Increase GABA signaling (benzodiazepines)

159
Q

What is the basic goal of therapy-based treatment for anxiety disorders

A

Extinction of conditioned responses associated with traumatic memories

160
Q

What cognitive distortions are usually present in patients with anxiety disorders

A

Catastrophizing
Overestimating

161
Q

What are the key components of CBT

A

Psychoeducation
Somatic management
Mindfulness
Identifying distorted ways of thinking
Exposure therapy
Coping skills
Problem solving

162
Q

What is the difference in usage of sedatives and hypnotics

A

Sedatives reduce anxiety (minimal CNS depression)
Hypnotics produce drowsiness/sleep (more CNS depression)

163
Q

Are sedatives/hypnotics usually more lipophilic or hydrophilic?

A

Lipophilic

164
Q

Describe the process of clearance of benzodiazepines

A

CYP450 in the liver oxidize the benzos (phase I) > conjugated to glucuronides (phase II)

165
Q

What is the product of the oxidization (via CYP450) of chlordiazepoxide, diazepam, prazepam, and chlorazepate; and why is it notable?

A

Desmethyldiazepam; has a half-life of over 40 hours

166
Q

Which benzodiazepines have a longer half-life and which ones have a shorter half-life

A

Longer: Diazepam, prazepam, flurazepam

Shorter: Alprazolam, triazolam, lorazepam, oxazepam

167
Q

Describe the general rate of hepatic metabolism of barbiturates and which group is the exception to this

A

Slow; thiobarbiturates (phenobarbital)

168
Q

Which hepatic enzyme is used to metabolize the hypnotic drugs

169
Q

What are the effects of decreased hepatic function on drug elimination

A

Increases drug half-life (can build up after multiple successive doses)

170
Q

What is a major difference between the metabolization of benzodiazepines/hypnotics and barbiturates

A

Barbiturates can increase the rate of hepatic metabolism; benzos/hypnotics do not do this (with continuous use)

171
Q

Describe the MOA of sedative-hypnotic agents

A

GABAa receptor agonists > pumps Cl- ions into the neuron > IPSP

172
Q

How does the difference in binding of sedatives and hypnotics to the target receptor have different results in function

A

Hypnotics are very selective of the alpha-1 subunit-containing isoform
Benzos/Barbs can bind to multiple isoforms of the receptors

Recall that benzos inc. frequency, and barbs inc. duration of channel opening

173
Q

Why are barbiturate associated with more CNS depression than benzodiazepines

A

Barbs are less selective- also depress AMPA receptor functioning

Can be used to induce surgical anesthesia

174
Q

What is the function of flumazenil

A

Blocks benzo and Z-hypnotic action (but not barbiturates or ethanol)

Used for benzo overdoses, but must be given repeatedly due to low half-life

175
Q

What are the effects of benzodiazepines/older sedative-hypnotics on sleep

A

Decreased sleep latency
Decreased Stage 2 sleep
Decreased REM sleep
Decreased Stage 4 sleep

176
Q

What are the effects of newer hypnotics on sleep

A

Decrease sleep latency
Decrease REM sleep
No change on slow-wave sleep
Increases Stage 2 sleep

177
Q

What side effect is associated with higher doses of zolpidem and zaleplon

A

Rebound insomnia

178
Q

Which sedative agents are often used for induction of anesthesia and why

A

Thiopental and methohexital; very lipid-soluble and rapidly absorbed

179
Q

What sedative agents are used in adjunct to general anesthesia for persistent post-anesthetic respiratory depression

A

Diazepam, lorazepam, and midazolam

180
Q

What are the symptoms of sedative-hypnotic withdrawal

A

Increased anxiety
Insomnia
CNS excitability
Seizures

181
Q

What are common adverse effects of sedative-hypnotics

A

Drowsiness, diminished motor skills
Anterograde amnesia
Confusion
Behavioral inhibition
Respiratory/Cardiovascular depression (high-doses)

Do NOT use with alcohol, opioids, anticonvulsants, anti-histamines, or phenothiazines

182
Q

Which benzodiazepine is the “most toxic” and at risk for overdoses

A

Alprazolam

183
Q

Which benzodiazepine is most often associated with behavioral disinhibition

184
Q

What is a notable contraindication of barbiturates

185
Q

What is the timing for the onset of postpartum depression

A

Within 4 weeks of delivery; does not resolve within 2 weeks post-delivery

186
Q

What is the mechanism/use of buspirone

A

Parial 5-HT receptor agonist; used for Generalized Anxiety Disorder (more mild than barbs and benzos)

187
Q

What is the difference between substance abuse and intoxication

A

Abuse is a pattern that results in significant impairment/distress

Intoxication is acute or chronic, and has maladaptive behavioral/psychological changes

188
Q

What is the difference between substance dependence and withdrawal

A

Withdrawal is a symptom of dependence

189
Q

What drug is associated with most drug-related ER visits

A

Cocaine (~40%)
Heroin (~30%)
Meth (~8%)

190
Q

What method of treating substance abuse disorder has been becoming more popular; describe it

A

Harm reduction model- promotes less frequent, lower doses, and safer environments for drug use

Transtheoretical model is also in play here

191
Q

What are some common triggers of drug abuse relapse

A

Re-exposure to the addictive drug
Stress
Context that recalls prior drug use (classical conditioning)

192
Q

What is the difficulty with diagnosing substance use disorder in elderly patients

A

Usual progressive neurological impairment secondary to aging can mask substance use symptoms

193
Q

Describe the brain system that is targeted by addictive drugs

A

Mesolimbic dopamine system- ventral tegmental area > nucleus acccumbens/amygdala/hippocampus/prefrontal cortex

194
Q

What is the basic mechanism of opioids

A

In the VTA, u-opioids bind to and inhibit GABAergic inhibitory interneurons > disinhibit the dopaminergic neurons

195
Q

What are some commonly abused opioids

A

Morphine
Heroin
Codeine
Oxycodone
Meperidine

196
Q

Symptoms of intense dysphoria, nausea/vomiting, muscle aches, rhinorrhea, mydriasis, respiratory depression, sweating, diarrhea, and fever

A

Opioid withdrawal

197
Q

What drug is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdoses

A

Naloxone

Will cause an acute withdrawal syndrome

198
Q

What drug is used for relapse maintenance in opioid users

A

Naltrexone

199
Q

What are some longer-acting opioids that are substituted for MAT use

A

Methadone
Buprenorphine

200
Q

What is the mechanism of exogenous cannabinoids

A

Inhibit GABA neurons in the VTA > Disinhibits dopaminergic neurons

201
Q

Symptoms of restlessness, irritability, mild agitation, insomnia, nausea, and cramping (very mild and short-lived)

A

Cannabinoid withdrawal

202
Q

What are some uses of therapeutic cannabinoids

A

Nabilone- Chemo-induced emesis
Nabixmols- MS

203
Q

Symptoms of euphoria, enhanced sensory perceptions, social elevation, amnesia > sedation and coma

A

GHB intoxication

204
Q

What is the mechanism of GHB

A

Binds to GABAb receptors (weak agonist) > inhibits GABA neurons

205
Q

Symptoms of psychosis-like manifestations, reality distortion, dizziness, nausea, paresthersias, and blurred vision

A

Hallucinogen intoxication (LSD, Mescaline, Psilocybin)

Not typically associated with dependence or addiction?

206
Q

What is the mechanism of hallucinogens

A

Enhance presynaptic serotonin receptors (5-HT2A) > increase glutmate release in the cortex

207
Q

What is the addictive mechanism of nicotine

A

Agonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (on dopaminergic neurons of the VTA)

208
Q

Symptoms of irritability, insomnia, depression, muscle cramps, and seizures

A

Benzodiazepine withdrawal

209
Q

What is the mechanism of ketamine/PCP

A

Non-competitive antagonism of NMDA receptor

Do not cause addication/dependence

210
Q

What substances are often abused as inhalants

A

Nitrites
Ketones
Aliphatic/aromatic hydrocarbons

211
Q

What is the mechanism of Cocaine

A

PNS- inhibits voltage Na+ channels > blocking action potentials

CNS- block uptake of DA/NOR/SER via transporters > inc. in NOR causes activation of sympathetic nervous system

212
Q

Symptoms of hypertension, tachycardia, ventricular arrythmias, loss of appetite, hyperactivity, insomnia, hyperthermia, coma, and death

A

Cocaine intoxication

213
Q

What is the treatment for Cocaine overdoses

A

Benzodiazepines and a-adrenergic antagonists

DO NOT give B-blockers

214
Q

What is the mechanism of amphetamines

A

Indirect sympathomimetics that cause release of endogenous amines (reverse the transporters)

215
Q

Symptoms of increased arousal, reduced sleep, abnormal movements, hyperthermia, hallucinations, and psychotic episodes

A

Methamphetamine intoxication

216
Q

What is the mechanism of MDMA-ecstasy

A

Reverse serotonin transporters > inc. extracellular serotonin

217
Q

Which addictive drugs are notably irreversibly neurotoxic

A

Amphetamines
MDMA-Ecstasy

218
Q

What is the progression of alcohol withdrawal symptoms

A

Tremors/insomnia/GI distress/diaphoresis/agitation > seizures > visual hallucinations > AMS, autonomic hyperactivity

218
Q

What is the treatment for alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide (benzo)
Diazepam if seizures occur

219
Q

What drugs are used to treat alcohol use disorder

A

Disulfiram- inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase
Naltrexone- reduces cravings avoid in liver disease
Acamprosate- reduces cravings

220
Q

What kind of genetic factors are involved in predisposition to alcohol abuse

A

Genes affecting personality traits
Genes affecting alcohol metabolism

221
Q

Why do women generally have high blood-alcohol levels after consuming a drink than men

A

They have less ADH activity (becomes even greater with chronic consumption)

Women also typically have less water space

222
Q

What is the danger of using alcohol with acetaminophen

A

Alcohol induces CYP2E1, which increases acetaminophen metabolism to toxic NAPQI

223
Q

What is the danger of using alcohol with the barbiturate phenobarbital

A

Ethanol inhibits P450 metabolism of phenobarbital, which can accumulate in the blood

224
Q

What are the pharmacological treatments for nicotine addiction

A

Nicotine replacement
Varenicline (partial agonist w/ high affinity)
Buproprion (inhibits NOR and DA reuptake)

225
Q

What are the strategies for acute pain management

A

Relaxation/Immobilization
Analgesics (NSAIDs)
Massage
TENS

226
Q

What type of pain are narcotics liberally used for

A

Malignant chronic pain (often associated with cancer)

227
Q

What is the emphasis of treatment for benign chronic pain

A

Increased activity (NOT narcotics)

228
Q

Symptoms high levels of anxiety about health, disproportionate thoughts about seriousness of one’s symptoms, excessive time/energy devoted to these symptoms for more than 6 months; disrupts daily life; commonly experiences psychogenic pain

A

Somatoform Pain Disorder

229
Q

Multiple, unexplainable symptoms; patients often undergo excessive unneeded testing, and have catastrophic/magical thinking about their illness; believe that others are blowing them off; high comorbidity with anxiety/depression

A

Multisomatoform Disorder

230
Q

Increased fear of pain returning that results in drug-seeking behavior

A

Pseudoaddiction

231
Q

What is the most common comorbidities for patients with chronic pain

A

Major Depressive Disorder
Anxiety disorders

232
Q

What are some common conditions associated with chronic pain

A

Postherpetic Neuralgia
Diabetic Peripheral Neuropathy
Parkinson’s Disease
Central Postroke Pain/Spinal Cord Injury
Migraine/Chronic Daily Headache
Fibromyalgia
Phantom Limb Pain
Complex Regional Pain Syndrome
Trigeminal Neuralgia
Lower back pain

233
Q

What is a common cause of rebound headaches

A

Overuse of analgesics

234
Q

Ongoing spontaneous pain in a region of the body that is characterized by burning sensation that is precipitated by a specific noxious trauma or cause of immobilization; hyperalgesia

A

Complex Regional Pain Syndrome

235
Q

Widespread musculoskeletal pain in all four limbs/trunk, stiffness and exaggerated tenderness

A

Fibromyalgia

236
Q

Episodic, unilateral, orbital headache that is described as excruciating; lasts minutes to hours

A

Cluster Headaches

237
Q

What is the function of endogenous opioid pathways

A

Activation of postsynaptic opioid receptors hyperpolarizes the dorsal horn interneurons to reduce the duration of an EPSP for the pain pathways

238
Q

What are the endogenous opioid peptides and where are they located

A

Enkephalin and Dynorphin; located in the interneurons of the dorsal horn

239
Q

What drugs have been used to treat neuropathic pain

A

Gabapentin (Ca2+ channel blocker)
Lidocaine (membrane stabilizer)
Baclofen (GABA inhibitor)
Ketamine (NMDA antahonist)
Opioids

240
Q

What genes have been found to be associated with difference in perception of pain

A

KCSN1 (K+ channel subunit)
GHC1 (GTP cyclohydrolase)

241
Q

What is the central tenet of the cognitive behavioral approach to pain

A

Perceived control over pain (and associated/underlying life aspects)

Coping skills

242
Q

What is the guidelines for prescribing opioids for acute use

A

Prescribe lowest effective dose of immediate-release opioids; 3 days should be sufficient, very rarely more than 7 days

243
Q

What drug is contraindicated for use with opioids

A

Benzodiazepines

244
Q

What type of receptors are all three types of opioid receptors

A

Inhibitory G-protein coupled receptors (inhibit cAMP production)

245
Q

What is the mechanism of opioid tolerance (i.e. morphine)

A

A lack of receptor internalization (recycling) > is rather, phosphorylated + down-regulated (degraded)

246
Q

Which opioids are mild-moderate mu agonists (often combined with acetaminophen to treat moderate pain)

A

Oxycodone
Hydrocodone
Codeine

247
Q

What are the risk factors for chronic pain

A

Older age
Female sex
Anxiety/Depression
Obesity
Heavy Lifting
Nicotine use
Lower socioeconomic background
Veterans
Rural areas

248
Q

What are some medications used to treat chronic pain

A

NSAIDs/Acetaminophen
Opioids
Topicals (Capsaicin, Lidocaine)
Anticonvulsants (Gabapentin)
TCAs (Topiramate, Valproate)
Corticosteroids
Muscle relaxants (Cyclobenzaprine)
Sedatives (Benzodiazepines)
Medical Marijuana

249
Q

What are the indications for co-prescribing naloxone

A

-Taking >50 morphine milligram equivalents per day
-Existing respiratory conditions
-Taking benzodiazepines
-Have another substance use disorder

250
Q

What drugs are given in cases of acute-on-chronic pain

A

Parenteral opioids (acutely)/Epidural anesthesia
NSAIDs
Gabapentinoids

251
Q

Which opioid receptors do the endogenous opioids- endorphins, enkephalins, and dynorphins bind to

A

Endorphins- mu
Enkephalins- delta
Dynorphins- kappa

252
Q

Which opioid receptors are responsible for respiratory depression

253
Q

Which opioid receptors are responsible for psychotomimetic effects

254
Q

What is the primary metabolism route of opioids

A

Hepatic CYP450 (CYP2D6 enzyme)

255
Q

What are the two synaptic effects of opioids

A
  1. Close presyn voltage Ca2+ channels (inhibits neurotransmitter release)
  2. Opens postsyn K+ channels (hyperpolarizes neurons)
256
Q

What are the two sites of opioid activity to produce an analgesic effect

A

Ascending pathway (peripheral nociceptive terminals)
Descending pathway (activates inhibitory neurons)

257
Q

What are the CNS effects of opioids

A

Analgesia
Sedation
Respiratory depression**
Cough suppression
Miosis**
Truncal rigidity
Nausea/vomiting
Hyperthermia
Sleep disturbances

258
Q

What is a major peripheral effect of opioids

A

Constipation

259
Q

Which opioid is generally safer to use during child labor

A

Meperidine

260
Q

Which opioid is commonly used to treat cough

261
Q

What are the major symptoms of opioid withdrawal

A

Rhinorrhea
Yawning
Hyperventilation/hyperthermia
Mydriasis
Anxiety/Hostility

262
Q

What is the general onset of morphine/heroin withdrawal timeline

A

Starts 6-10 hours after last dose, and peaks 36-48 hours after last dose

263
Q

Describe the formulations of the following opioid-NSAID combinations: Percocet, Percodan, Vicodin/Lortab, Vicoprofen

A

Percocet: oxycodone + acetaminophen
Percodan: oxycodone + aspirin
Vicodin/Lortab: hydrocodone + acetaminophen
Vicoprofen: hydrocodone + ibuprofen

P=Oxycodone, V=hydrocodone

264
Q

alpha-2 agonist used to treat opioid use disorder

265
Q

What is the recommended course for a pregnant patient with opioid detoxification

A

Not recommended (can precipitate dangerous withdrawal in child) > treat with methadone/buprenorphine

266
Q

Centrally acting muscle relaxants

A

Spasmolytics/Antispasmodics

267
Q

What is the MOA of baclofen

A

GABAb agonist > Inhibits action potentials (pre and post-synaptically)

268
Q

What are the side effects of high-dose baclofen

A

Somnolence
Respiratory depression
Coma

269
Q

What drugs can be used to treat spasticity

A

Baclofen
Benzodiazepines
Tizanidine
Gabapentin
Riluzole
Succinylcholine

270
Q

What is the MOA of tizanidine

A

a2-adrenergic agonist > decreases cAMP and increases K+ conductance

271
Q

What is the major use for riluzole

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis

272
Q

What is the MOA of riluzole

A

Blocks glutamate neurotransmission > reduces cytotoxicity to upper motor neurons

273
Q

What is the MOA of succinylcholine

A

Create a high concentration of ACTH in the synaptic cleft

274
Q

What are some side effects of succinylcholine

A

Muscle soreness
Hyperkalemia
Bradycardia
Malignant hyperthermia

275
Q

What drug should be used in cases of suspected malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

276
Q

Which spasmolytic is typically used for relief of acute muscle spasm caused by local tissue trauma/muscle strains

A

Cyclobenzaprine

277
Q

What is the difference in the mechanism of depolarizing vs non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agents

A

Depolarizing: Inc. ATCH in synapse
Non-Depolarizing: Block ATCH binding

278
Q

What is the treatment for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

A

Remove offending agent (usually typical antipsychotic)
Bromocriptine (DA agonist)
Dantrolene

279
Q

What are the symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A

AMS
Autonomic dysfunction
Neuromuscular excitation
GI dysfunction
Hyperrflexia
Myoclonus
Hyperthermia
Muscular rigidity (last two are less severe than in NMS)

280
Q

What drugs can precipitate hyperthermia

A

Typical antipsychotics
Antidepressants
Cocaine, meth, ecstasy, PCP
Succinylcholine

281
Q

What are two labs used to indicate malignant hyperthermia

A

Elevated serum creatine kinase
Myoglobinuria

282
Q

What drugs are used to treat acute muscle spasm pain (cramps)

A

NSAIDs/Acetaminophen

283
Q

Physical symptoms and related fears that are disproportionate to object medical findings; not intentionally produced; disruptive to daily functioning

A

Somatic Symptom Disorder

284
Q

Patients intentionally stimulate/produce symptoms of illnesses in themselves/others for the purpose of appearing ill/impaired/injured

A

Factitious Disorder

285
Q

Intentionally producing/mimicking symptoms that is motivated by external rewards

A

Malingering Disorder

286
Q

What are the three subtypes of somatic symptom disorders

A

Somatic
Dissociative
Obsessive/Cognitive

287
Q

What are key psychosocial criteria for somatic symptom disorders

A

Symptoms must be disruptive to daily functioning

Patients must have excessive thoughts/feelings/behaviors related to the somatic symptoms

288
Q

How long should symptoms of Somatic Symptom Disorder persist

A

More than 6 months

289
Q

Neurological symptoms affecting their voluntary motor/sensory function that cannot be fully explained physiologically

A

Conversion Disorder

290
Q

Pseudocyesis

A

Symptoms and signs of pregnancy, despite there being no actual pregnancy

291
Q

Preoccupation for >6 months with the fear or belief that they have or might acquire a serious disease, to the point that it interferes with daily functioning

A

Illness Anxiety Disorder

292
Q

What disorders do most hypochondriacs fit into

A

Somatic symptom disorder (75%)
Illness anxiety disorder (25%)

293
Q

Preoccupation with a perceived defect in physical appearance that is markedly out of proportion to objective findings

A

Body Dysmorphic Disorder

294
Q

Multiple hospitalization with repeated invasive testing and surgical procedures due to factitious disorder

A

Munchausen’s Syndrome

295
Q

Note that factitious disorder by proxy, imposed on a minor, is a form of child abuse (*)

296
Q

What about the course of Conversion Disorder is different than the other somatic disorders

A

Course is short, with full resolution

297
Q

What are the comorbidities for somatic disorders

A

Depression
Anxiety
Suicidality
Medication abuse
Borderline, narcissistic, OC, and histrionic personality disorders

298
Q

What is the first option in the differential for somatic symptoms

A

An unrecognized illness or coexistence with known illness

299
Q

What is a major difference between the presentation of factitious disorder and schizophrenia

A

Factitious disorder does not have psychosis

300
Q

What is a major precipitator of Illness Anxiety Disorder

A

Experience with a medical condition (in self or in loved one) > creates fear/anxiety, as well as dependence on the physician to diagnose

301
Q

What is the first step in treating somatic disorders

A

Careful medical and parallel psychosocial history (screen for depression, bipolar, schizophrenia, neurocognitive disorders, and personality disorders)

302
Q

What is a helpful strategy for managing care for a patient with somatic symptom disorder

A

Limit contact with other physicians- maintain strong ties to patient to avoid overprescribing; empathy and involvement

303
Q

What medications have been shown to be effective in treatment somatic symptom disorder

A

SNRIs
TCAs
Gabapentinoids
Ketamine

304
Q

What is the treatment for Illness Anxiety Disorder

305
Q

What is the treatment for Body Dysmorphic Disorder

306
Q

What is the treatment for Factitious Disorder

A

We don’t really have one
Avoid unnecessary/dangerous procedures

307
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary headaches

A

Primary- not caused by underlying conditions
Secondary- precipitated by another underlying condition

308
Q

What are the different types of primary headaches

A

Migraine headaches
Tension headaches
Cluster headaches

309
Q

Symptoms of headache and increased ICP often in adolescent, obese females

A

Pseudotumor cerebri

310
Q

Symptoms of headaches in elderly patients with an enlarged/sensitive temporal artery

A

Temporal arteritis/Giant cell arteritis

311
Q

What are some physiological mechanisms of secondary headaches

A

Compression of adjacent brain tissue
Raising intracranial pressure
Shift nervous system structures from one compartment to another (herniation)

Can present with seizures, vasogenic edema, and hydrocephalus

312
Q

What is the mechanism of acute headache medicaitons

A

5-HT receptor agonists

313
Q

Symptoms of bilateral, band-like pain across the forehead; not associated with nausea or vomiting, not usually associated with photophobia; more commonly in females

A

Tension-type headache

314
Q

How long do tension headaches usually last

A

Constant, usually 4-6 hrs (>30 minutes)

315
Q

Symptoms of unilateral, pulsating pain on the forehead/periorbital area; associated with nausea, photophobia; more commonly in females

A

Migraine headaches

316
Q

How long do migraine headaches usually last

A

4-72 hours (the longest of the primary headaches)

317
Q

Symptoms of unilateral, excruciating periorbital pain along with lacrimation, rhinorrhea, conjunctival injection, and Horner Syndrome; more commonly in males

A

Cluster headaches

318
Q

How long do cluster headaches typically last

A

Repetitive over 15min-3hrs

319
Q

What is the MOA and use of sumatriptan

A

Use: acute moderate/severe migraine headaches; cluster headaches; NOT prophylaxis

MOA: 5-HT agonist

320
Q

What are the side effects of sumatriptan

A

Bitter taste; paresethesia; asthenia; dizziness/fatigue/nausea

Rarely- MI, angina, cardiac arrythmia, stroke

321
Q

What are the contraindications of sumatriptan

A

-Any kind of arterial disease (vasoconstrictive)
-Any other triptan/ergot use
-MAOI/SSRI/SNRI/TCA use (serotonin syndrome)

322
Q

What is the MOA and use of Ergotamine

A

Use: acute moderate/severe migraine headaches, especially if triptan don’t work

MOA: Nonspecific serotonin agonist

323
Q

What are the side effects of ergotamine

A

Nausea/vomiting

Rare- vascular occlusion

324
Q

What are the contraindications of ergots

A

-Using other ergots/triptans
-Uncontrolled hypertension/arterial disease
-Beta blockers; dopamine; nicotine; CYP3A4 inhibitors

325
Q

What is the MOA and use of timolol and propronalol

A

Use: Migraine headache prophylaxis

MOA: Beta blockers

326
Q

What are the side effects of timolol/propranolol

A

Fatigue
Orthostatic hypotension

327
Q

What are the contraindications for timolol/propranolol

A

Heart failure
Asthma
Depression

328
Q

Which antiepileptic is used for migraine headache prophylaxis

329
Q

What antidepressants are used for migraine prophylaxis

A

Amitriptyline (TCA)
Nortriptyline (TCA)
Duloxetine (SNRI)
Venlafaxine (SNRI)

330
Q

What are the monoclonal antibodies used for severe/frequent migraine prophylaxis and what is the MOA

A

Erenumab, Fremanexumab, Galcanezumab

MOA: anti-CGRP receptor (proinflammatory mediator)

331
Q

What is the specific use of botox in treatment of headaches

A

Used for chronic migraine prophylaxis (>15 per month)

NOT effective for preventing episodic migraines

332
Q

What is the acute and prophylactic treatment for tension-type headaches

A

Acute: NSAIDs, acetaminophen

Prophylactic: Amytriptyline

333
Q

What is the acute and prophylactic treatment for migraine headaches

A

Acute: NSAIDs, sumatriptan, ergotamine, antiemetics

Prophylactic: B-blockers, amitryptiline, topiramate, valproate, botox, monoclonal antibodies

334
Q

What is the acute and prophylactic treatment for cluster headaches

A

Acute: sumatriptan, 100% O2

Prophylactic: verapamil

335
Q

What is the MOA and function of aspirin

A

COX-1 inhibitor > blocks TXA2, PGA2 synthesis

Anti-pyretic, anti-inflammatory, and analgesic

336
Q

What is the MOA and function of acetaminophen

A

Reversible COX inhibitor > blocks PGA2 synthesis

Anti-pyretic, analgesic (NOT an anti-inflammatory)

337
Q

What is the MOA and function of NSAIDs

A

Reversible COX inhibitor > blocks PGA2 synthesis

338
Q

What is often used to treat migraines during pregnancy

A

Acetaminophen (NSAIDs until end of 2nd trimester)

339
Q

What are some signs of drug abuse among physicians

A

Physical/Social/Emotional changes
Diet changes
Anxiety/Depression
Defensiveness/Disruptive behavior
Unusual drug orders
Domestic distress

Inaccessibility and social withdrawal

340
Q

What are some factors that are associated with higher levels of alcohol dependence in medical students

A

Burnout
Depression
Lower quality of life

Also: younger and single (and in hella debt lol)