Portfolio Theory and CAPM Flashcards
distribution of return
- short-run: the return distribution is close to normally-distributed
- long-run: the returns are log-normally distributed, because gains greater than 100% are possible, while losses bigger than 100% aren’t.
- convenient: normal distributions can be described with only two values, mean and variance
basic intuition of portfolio theory
- combine various assets in portfolios that offer the highest possible returns for any given level of risk
- the investor identifies his/her risk appetite and the a portfolio will secure the highest expected returns => efficient portfolios
construction portfolios in a return - standard deviation framework
- through creating a portfolio, we can have a higher return for any given risk
- this red line is called optimal frontier
adding borrowing and lending into our model
- it’s possible to leverage and deleverage our portfolios now. that means we can change the risk and the return of every portfolio
- the red line is called tanget line
Deleverage:
asset 1: 5% expected return, 0% standard deviation => risk free
asset 2: 15% expected return, 16% standard deviation
portfoliodl: 50% asset 1, 50% asset 2
expected return: 0,5*5%+0,5*15%=10%
expected risk: 0,5*0%+0,5*16%=8% => because asset 1 is riskfree, the will be no covariance
Leverage:
PortfolioL: 200% asset 2
expected return: 2*15% - 1*5% = 25%
expected risk: 2*16 = 32%
The Sharpe Ratio
- Because we can lend and borrow money, the optimal portfolio will always be on the steepest feasible line.
- This optimal portfolio maximizes the ratio of risk premium to standard deviation
- this ratio is called “Sharpe Ratio” and is an important performance index (formula in the pic)
- an investment decision has 2 steps
- 1.: finding the optimal Portfolio
- 2.: deciding based on your risk appetite if you want to lend or borrow money => “Tobin Separation Theorem”
Security Market Line
- shows the relationship between risk and return
- change the y-aches to beta instead of standard deviation and the tangent line is called SML
- beta is used instead of the SD because the perfect portfolio has no specific risk, only market risk.
- because you can (de)leverage this optimal portfolio and therefor (lower) higher the beta, beta determines your expected return
The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
- Based on the SML, we know that beta is the indicator of the expected return
- CAPM model the relationship between the expected return and the market risk
- The last part of the term is the market-risk-premium
The implication of the CAPM
- Stocks above the SML are overperformers, they have a higher return for their risk than the market. Therefore they are very popular and everybody wants to buy them, nobody wants to sell => prices go up =>future return decreases and the stocks move back to the SML
- stocks under the SML are underperformers =>everybody wants to sell, nobody wants to buy => prices deceases => future return increases => move on the SML again
- stocks with a beta < 1 is a defensive stock
- stocks with a beta > 1 is an aggressive stock
calculate beta
- Because the expected return isn’t measurable, we have to use data from the past, we get a testable version of the CAPM:
- Just transform the formula and calculate beta, formula looks like this:
adjusting beta
- the past betas of big companies are often a good indicator for future betas, because they are (often) quite stable over time
- but there is a trend
beta < 1 implies a higher beta in the future
beta > 1 implies a smaller beta in the future
- Adjustment: future beta = 1/3 + 2/3*old beta
- Explaination:
- Managers decide to hold risk levels close to the market, so they lower or higher the betas
- low beta means low risk => cheaper capital cost => more investments => more risk => beta increases
- vice versa for bigger betas
- measurement errors
empirical test CAPM
- Categorize all stocks by their betas and build 10 different portfolios with them, 1. portfolio has the 10% lowest beta, the 10. portfolio the 10% highest betas
- Analyzing multiple years 81931-1965) with rebalancing, there found a correlation between betas and the return => CAPM was proven
- they also analyzed 1966-2014 and found that there is no proof for the beta anymore => portfolio 8,9,10 performed worse than the ones with a lower beta
Aarket Anomalies
- There is a correlation between market cap and return
- the smaller the company, the bigger the return
- Good B/M value
- when companies have a solid book value but the market does not value them => probably good returns
Why is there contradicting evidence to the CAPM?
- Assumptions of the CAPM
- the only relevant risk is market risk => beta is the only measure for risk
- unlimited lending and borrowing is possible
- investors try to maximize utility in a single period
- investors have homogenous expectations
- all assets are infinitely divisible
- all information is available to all and free of charge
- no taxes, transaction cost, market frictions
Arbitrage Pricing Theory and other factor models
- assumes that stocks return depend on various factors with different sensitivity to these factors (factor loading)
- steps to get such a model
- identify the factors
- estimate the risk premium for these factors
- estimate the factor leading of the individual stocks
Multi-Factor-Models
Fama and French;
four-factor model of Carhart
Fama/French
- three Factors: size, value, and beta (market risk), see pic
four-factor model
- includes one more factor: Momentum