Policy Number 987 Section 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the aim of effective communication at incidents?

A

To integrate communications and decision-making between the incident commander, operational personnel, and fire control rooms.

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2
Q

Why is effective communication fundamental to incident resolution?

A

It provides the incident commander with knowledge about the situation and progress of tasks, underpinning situational awareness and decision-making.

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3
Q

What are the key elements effective communication should provide?

A
  • Clear
  • Relevant and concise
  • Timely
  • Easily understood
  • Delivered confidently
  • Active listening
  • Aligned verbal and non-verbal communications
  • Question assumptions
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4
Q

What are the key principles to consider when establishing a communication strategy?

A
  • Appropriate for the size, type, and location of the incident
  • Effective and resilient
  • Accurate, appropriate, and timely information
  • Reliable and credible sources
  • Use of secure communication methods if necessary
  • Provide relevant information to appropriate recipients
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5
Q

True or False: A single communication system is suitable for all incidents.

A

False

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6
Q

What does the mnemonic PACE stand for in communication planning?

A
  • Primary
  • Alternative
  • Contingency
  • Emergency
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7
Q

What is the importance of a good flow of information for an incident commander?

A
  • Gather information
  • Issue orders
  • Receive situation reports
  • Assess needs of other agencies
  • Carry out risk assessments
  • Brief personnel on tasks and hazards
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8
Q

What is the structured briefing model recommended for incident commanders?

A

IIMARCH (Information, Intent, Method, Administration, Risk assessment, Communications and Humanitarian issues)

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9
Q

What is the M/ETHANE message protocol used for?

A

To exchange information about the incident with other responders via Brigade Control and other agencies’ control rooms.

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10
Q

What should be included in safety briefings as incidents develop?

A

Comprehensive information to ensure safety as the risk of injury increases.

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11
Q

What are some roles of command support under the guidance of the incident commander?

A
  • Establish communication links with Brigade Control
  • Assign radio channels and call signs
  • Establish communications with other agencies
  • Use talk groups
  • Request support of a communications tactical adviser
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12
Q

What does correct radio discipline entail?

A
  • Use correct voice procedure
  • Maintain awareness of radio traffic
  • Ensure correct channel use
  • Answer calls without delay
  • Limit transmissions to necessary information
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13
Q

What is the purpose of using a phonetic alphabet in communications?

A

To ensure consistent and accurate pronunciation of letters, especially for difficult words.

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14
Q

What are the characteristics of the Tait TP9355 incident ground radio?

A
  • Not intrinsically safe
  • Set to 4 Watts ERP
  • Fully interoperable with other radios
  • Not for use in flammable or explosive atmospheres
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15
Q

What is the difference between the Tait TP9361 Atex IIA and IIC radios?

A
  • Atex IIA is suitable for most flammable or explosive atmospheres
  • Atex IIC provides an additional level of intrinsic safety
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16
Q

What does the incident ground radio channel plan contain?

A

21 channels for use at operational incidents.

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17
Q

What should personnel do with their assigned radio channel during incidents?

A

Remain on their assigned channel except in emergencies or when ordered otherwise.

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18
Q

What is required for successful transmission between analogue and digital channels?

A

All users must be on the same mode.

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19
Q

What are the channel numbers that have digital and analogue equivalents?

A

Channels 1 to 8 and 17 and 18 (digital) correspond to channels 9 to 16 and 19 and 20 (analogue).

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20
Q

True or False: The London Fire Brigade is currently using both digital and analogue channels.

A

False

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21
Q

What is the purpose of the Received Signal Strength Indicator (RSSI) in Tait incident ground radios?

A

It measures the amount of power present in a radio signal.

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22
Q

Fill in the blank: A _______ is a deployable aerial in cable form that emits and receives radio signals.

A

[leaky feeder]

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23
Q

What is the benefit of using fixed repeaters?

A

They provide known coverage before they need to be used.

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24
Q

What should personnel do if they encounter legacy communication systems using previous channel plan numbers?

A

Use channel 13 instead of channel 5 or 8.

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25
What is the maximum acceptable dBm for communications to remain effective?
-100 dBm
26
How does a leaky feeder enhance communication in buildings?
It extends the effective range of repeaters when deployed.
27
What is the primary use of interagency talk-groups?
To facilitate communications between multiple emergency services.
28
True or False: Digital radios can transmit on multiple talk-groups simultaneously.
False
29
What is the main function of Brigade Control’s audio interrupt feature?
To override an incoming transmission and communicate with the talk-group.
30
What should be checked during pre-planned ORD visits regarding communication systems?
The status and signage of any installed communications system.
31
What is the purpose of mobile-to-mobile talk-groups?
To allow voice communications between operational appliances attending an incident.
32
Fill in the blank: Digital main scheme radios communicate via a national network of _______.
[masts and base stations]
33
What are the advantages of the digital radio system?
* Clear radio voice quality * Greater system resilience and security * Wider radio interoperability * Data communications
34
What should be done if additional talk-groups are required at an incident?
They should be requested from Brigade Control.
35
What mode do radios operate in when using a repeater?
Half-duplex mode.
36
What is the operational level use of interagency talk-groups?
To share safety information and coordinate activities at incidents.
37
What should personnel do if their communication system is not functioning effectively?
Test the correct channels before use.
38
What happens if the incorrect channel is used on a legacy communication system?
The user will not be able to communicate effectively.
39
What actions should teams take when deploying a repeater?
* Conduct regular communication tests * Monitor RSSI * Retreat if communications issues begin
40
Fill in the blank: Digital radios conform to the European _______ standard.
[TETRA (Terrestrial Trunked Radio)]
41
What is the procedure for initiating mobile to mobile talk-group communications?
Use the mobile call-sign followed by 'Go ahead with talk through on talk-group...' and switch to the relevant talk-group. ## Footnote Brigade Control will allocate either MTM1 or MTM2 for this communication.
42
What should both appliances do after completing mobile to mobile communications?
Return to the operational talk-group related to the incident they are attending.
43
How is a point-to-point call initiated on the digital main-scheme radio?
Press and hold key 1 (PRTS), await call from Brigade Control, and answer by pressing the PTT switch.
44
What type of information is suitable for point-to-point calls?
Operational messages containing sensitive information such as firefighter injuries or multiple fatalities.
45
What happens if the ISSI number for another radio user is known?
Point-to-point calls can be made to avoid congesting talk-groups.
46
What is the primary purpose of the digital main scheme radios?
Provide access to a national inter-agency communications infrastructure.
47
Who supports the incident commander with communication problems?
The Brigade duty radio officer.
48
What is the role of tactical advisors in an incident?
Advise and assist the incident commander without taking command.
49
What is the default communication method when BA is being used?
Tait TP9361 IIA radio.
50
What are the four main factors that affect communication systems?
Equipment Failure, Propagation (signal strength), Interference, Congestion. ## Footnote This is summarized by the mnemonic EPIC.
51
What should be done if electronic equipment fails during an incident?
Replace the defective equipment as soon as possible to limit the impact on communications.
52
What does propagation refer to in the context of radio communications?
The distance that a signal can travel.
53
What is 'free space path loss'?
The reduction in signal intensity by a factor of four each time the distance doubles.
54
What is the maximum radiated power for fireground radios according to Ofcom?
Five watts for handheld devices.
55
What is the effect of radio-frequency interference?
Reduced range, messages not being received, distortion, or unwanted signals.
56
What must be ensured when operating base stations and repeaters?
Two base stations should not operate on the same channel within range of each other.
57
What causes congestion in communication systems?
Too many users attempting to access a single radio channel or talk-group.
58
What is the definition of an explosive atmosphere according to DSEAR?
A mixture of dangerous substances with air under atmospheric conditions that can spread combustion.
59
What should be done if gases in group IIC are suspected to be present?
Use the Tait TP9361 IIC radio.
60
What actions must incident commanders take regarding intrinsically safe communication equipment?
Ensure that intrinsically safe communications equipment is used in potentially explosive atmospheres.
61
What should personnel do when transmitting radio messages?
Use the correct call sign and maintain radio discipline.
62
What is the M/ETHANE message protocol used for?
To exchange information about the incident with other responders via Brigade Control.
63
Fill in the blank: The role of the Operational Communications Tactical Advisor is to assist in the devising and implementation of an appropriate _______.
communications plan.
64
True or False: Digital main scheme radios can transmit safely around electronically sensitive equipment without any precautions.
False.
65
What should be done to avoid communication failures due to congestion?
Monitor channels to ensure they are clear and use alternative channels if necessary.