Police Station Advic e Flashcards

1
Q

What is the role of a solicitor at a police station

A

To protect and advance the legal rights of their client.

No additional information.

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2
Q

When can a solicitor intervene in an interview

A

In order to seek clarification, challenge an improper question to their client or the manner in which it is put, advise their client not to reply to particular questions, or if they wish to give their client further legal advice’.

No additional information.

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3
Q

What should active defence include

A

• Obtaining as much information from the police as is possible.
• Advising your client fully and in accordance with your professional obligations.
• Advising on issues which arise during the police investigation, such as whether to provide samples, extensions of periods of detention, searches of premises and bail.

No additional information.

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4
Q

A solicitors rule is not

A

• a passive one; nor
• to sit by and take notes.

No additional information.

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5
Q

Who is not a vulnerable suspect

A

Generally, a person under the influence of drink or drugs should not be treated as vulnerable.

No additional information.

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6
Q

When should a suspect be treated as vulnerable

A

At the beginning of the suspect’s detention, the custody officer will undertake a risk assessment and identify whether the suspect is or might be ‘vulnerable’. If so, the vulnerable suspect will be provided with access to an appropriate adult.

No additional information.

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7
Q

What is relevant information when considering whether someone is vulnerable

A

• The behavior of the person;
• Their mental health and capacity;
• What the person says about themselves;
• Information from police officers, staff and records;
• Information from health and social care and other professionals who know or have had previous contact with the person.

No additional information.

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8
Q

What additional steps must a solicitor take when representing a vulnerable client

A

• Slower and clearer explanations
• Taking breaks during interview
Ensuring the tone of questions is appropriate

No additional information.

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9
Q

What are the three options for answering questions in police interviews

A

• Answer questions
• Don’t answer questions (‘go no comment’)
• Provide a written statement and ‘go no comment’

No additional information.

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10
Q

What is an adverse inference

A

Common sense conclusion that is adverse to the interests of a party in proceedings.

No additional information.

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11
Q

Can adverse inferences still be drawn if a suspects hands in a prepared statement

A

Yes. It can be difficult to ensure that sufficient information is contained in the statement as any fact relied on later that is not mentioned could still attract an adverse inference.

No additional information.

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12
Q

Should solicitors ever recommend a mixed interview

A

NO.

No additional information.

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13
Q

What factors should be considered when advising your client whether to answer questions

A

• Amount of disclosure
• Admissibility and strength of evidence- that you are aware of or that might become available in the future.
• Your client’s account/ instructions
• The state of your client
• Significant statements
• Possible adverse inferences

No additional information.

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14
Q

If the police have given little to no disclosure of the case against the suspect so that the legal advisor cannot usefully provide advice, what style of answer is best

A

No comment

No additional information.

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15
Q

If the evidence is weak against your client, why is advising them to remain silent a good option

A

• No risk of the client providing incriminating information; and
• Little risk of an inference being drawn from silence as the matter is unlikely to proceed.

No additional information.

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16
Q

What are the two possible consequences of waiting until trial to put forward a defense

A

• Adverse inferences; and
• Losing credibility.

No additional information.

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17
Q

When should a court not draw adverse inferences from silence

A

Where the suspect’s condition, such as ill-health (especially mental), confusion, intoxication or shock gives the lawyer cause for concern.

No additional information.

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18
Q

Can a significant statement be used as evidence against the suspect

A

Yes if confirmed in interview.

No additional information.

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19
Q

When does section 34 allow for an adverse inference to be drawn

A

In circumstances when the defendant later relies on a fact in their defense that was not offered at the time of questioning.

No additional information.

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20
Q

Can an inference be drawn if a suspect has not been cautioned

A

No - caution = You do not have to say anything. But it may harm your defense if you do not mention when questioned something which you later rely on in court. Anything you do say may be given in evidence.’

No additional information.

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21
Q

What will be taken into account when deciding if something was reasonable to have mentioned at the time

A

• what disclosure had been made to the suspect, or their lawyer, by the police;
• what information the prosecution can demonstrate the suspect knew at the time of questioning or charge;
• the condition and circumstances of the suspect; and
any legal advice that the suspect received.

22
Q

What is required for a section 36 and section 37 inference to be drawn?

A

A special warning.

23
Q

What must a suspect be told in a special warning?

A

The offence being investigated, the fact they are asked to account for, that this fact may relate to their participation in the offence, that a court may draw an inference if they fail to account for this fact, and that a record of the interview is being made.

24
Q

When does section 36 allow for an inference to be drawn?

A

when the suspect fails to account for an object, substance or mark found on them at the time of arrest. Section 36 might include a failure to account for bruising or a hammer in the suspect’s rucksack.

25
Q

When does section 37 allow for an inference to be drawn?

A

when the suspect fails to account for their presence on arrest at a particular place at or about the time the offence was allegedly committed. Section 37 might include failing to explain why they were found on a burglary victim’s driveway.

26
Q

When does the ability to draw inferences arise under sections 36 and 37?

A

as soon as there is a failure by the defendant to account for their possession of the object in question or presence. This contrasts section 34 where inferences can only be drawn if somthing is later releid on in a defecne

27
Q

Can a defendant be convicted solely on adverse inferences?

A

No, according to section 38 of the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994.

28
Q

Are adverse inferences relevant if a client pleads guilty or the case never goes to trial?

A

No.

29
Q

When is there a duty to hold identification procedures?

A

When an offence has been witnessed and an eye-witness has identified a suspect or is available to identify them, and the suspect disputes being the person seen.

30
Q

When does an identification procedure not need to be held?

A

If it is not practicable or would serve no useful purpose in proving or disproving the suspect’s involvement.

31
Q

What identification procedures may be used if the suspect’s identity is already known to the police?

A

Video identification, identification parade, and group identification.

32
Q

Who should be responsible for arranging eye-witness identification procedures?

A

An officer not below inspector rank who is not involved with the investigation.

33
Q

What identification procedure should be used in the first instance?

A

VIPER (video identification procedure).

34
Q

What formalities should be complied with for a video identification procedure?

A

• A record shall be made of the description of the suspect as first given by the eye-witness.
• A copy of the record shall be given to the suspect or their solicitor before any identification procedures are carried out.
• A notice must be given to a suspect and the following must be explained:
the purpose of the procedure
their entitlement to free legal advice
the procedures for holding it, including their right to have a solicitor or friend present;
that they do not have to consent to or co-operate in the procedure;
that if they do not consent to, and co-operate in, a procedure, their refusal may be given in evidence in any subsequent trial and police may proceed covertly without their consent or make other arrangements.

35
Q

Must the suspect, their solicitor, friend, or appropriate adult be given a reasonable opportunity to see the complete set of images before it is shown to any eye-witness?

A

Yes.

36
Q

Can a suspect’s solicitor be present at the video identification procedure?

A

Yes, only on request and with prior agreement of the identification officer.

37
Q

What should an eye-witness be told immediately before a video identification procedure?

A

That the person they saw on a specified earlier occasion may, or may not, appear in the images.

38
Q

What must the recording of the video identification procedure show?

A

All persons present, what the eye-witness says, and what is said to the eye-witness by the identification officer and others present.

39
Q

How many people should an identification parade include?

A

At least 8.

40
Q

Does a breach of code D (identifying a suspect) automatically lead to an exclusion of evidence?

A

No, the trial judge must decide if there has been significant prejudice to the accused.

41
Q

Who makes charging decisions?

A

In general, the CPS; the police may make charging decisions for some summary offences.

42
Q

Who issues written charges and requisitions?

A

A relevant public prosecutor, including the Crown Prosecution Service and the Environment Agency.

43
Q

What information must be contained in a written charge?

A

A statement of the offence, a reference to the statutory provision creating the offence, and sufficient particulars of the conduct complained of.

44
Q

Within what time should charges be brought?

A

For summary only offences, within six months; for indictable offences, there is no time limit.

45
Q

What offences are summary only?

A

Assault, battery, simple criminal damage where the value is £5,000 or less, and attempts to commit simple criminal damage £5,000 or less.

46
Q

Is there an offence to attempt to commit assault or battery?

A

No.

47
Q

What offences are either way offences?

A

Theft-s 1 Theft Act 1968
Burglary-s 9(1)(a) or s 9(1)(b) Theft Act 1968
Fraud:
by false representation
by abuse of position
by failing to disclose
Assault occasioning actual bodily harm- s 47 Offences Against the Person Act
(OAPA) 1861
Wounding or inflicting grievous bodily harm-s 20 0APA 1861
Simple criminal damage where the value exceeds £5,000
Simple arson
Attempts to commit either-way offences will be triable either way.

48
Q

What offences are indictable only?

A

Robbery- s 8 Theft Act 1968
Wounding or causing grievous bodily harm with intent- s 18 OAPA 1861
Aggravated burglary- s 10 Theft Act 1968
Aggravated arson
Aggravated criminal damage
Murder- where a verdict of voluntary manslaughter can be a possible outcome
Involuntary manslaughter:
unlawful act manslaughter
manslaughter by gross negligence
Attempts to commit indictable only offences will be triable only on indictment.

49
Q

What offence is an exception to the rule that offences only fall into one category?

A

Criminal damage - can be summary only or either - way. (Above £5000 will be either - way)

50
Q

Where the value of criminal damage is not known, what will happen?

A

the defendant is asked if they consent to be tried summarily. If so, that will take place and the maximum sentence will be limited to three months or a level 4 fine

51
Q

How will the value of criminal damage be calculated?

A

The cost of replacement for destroyed property or the cost of repair or replacement for damaged property.

52
Q

What type of offence is low-level shoplifting not exceeding £200?

A

Summary only. Statute does still allow for it to be Treated as theft though so don’t rule out crown court and either - way offence.