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General Investigations > Pneumonics > Flashcards

Pneumonics Flashcards

1
Q

Which Pneumonic is used in acute asthma exacerbation treatment?

A

O SHIT ME

O = oxygen
S = Salbutamol 2.5-5mg NEB
H = Hydrocortisone 100mg IV or prednisolone 40mg PO
I = Ipatropium 500mcg NEB
T = Theophylline - aminophylline infusion 1g in 1L saline 0.5ml/kg/ht
M = Magnesium sulphate 2g IV over 20mins
E = escalate care - intubation and ventilation
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2
Q

What is 33, 92 CHEST used for?

A

Classifying asthma severity:

33 = PEFR <33% predicted
92 = Sats <92%
C = Cyanosis
H = Hypotension
E = Exhaustion
S = Silent chest
T = Tachycardia
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3
Q

How would you assess a child with Epiglottitis?

A 
A = Airway closed
I = Increased pulse
R = Restlessness
R = Retractions
A = Anxiety
I = Inspiratory stridor
D = Drooling
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4
Q

What is CRASH + Burn for?

A 
Kawasaki's Disease:
C = conjunctivitis
R = Rash
A = Adenopathy
S = Strawberry tongue
H = Hands = erythematous
\+
B = Burn = Fever >5days
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5
Q

Viral Causes of meningitis?

A 
P = Poliomyelitis
E = Echovirus
M = Mumps
C = Coxsackie
H = Herpes/HIV
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6
Q

Bacterial Causes of meningitis?

A 
N = Neisseria meningitidis
H = Haemophilus influenza type B
S = Streptococcus pneumonia
L = Listeria (newborn)
E = E.Coli (newborn)
G= Group B strep (newborn
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7
Q

What is the pneumonic for taking a paediatric history?

A 
B = Birth
I = Immunisations
N = Nutrition
D = Development
S = Social
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8
Q

In ventilation assessment, what is ATOM FC for?

A 
A = Airway obstruction
T = Tension pneumothorax
O = Open chest wound
M = Massive Haemothorax
F = Flail chest
C = Cardiac tamponade
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9
Q

What is ALARMS?

A 
A = anaemia
L = loss of weight
A = anorexia
R = recent onset of progressive Sx
M = malaena or haematemesis
S = Swallowing difficulties
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10
Q

What is the pneumonic for acute pancreatitis?

A 
Idiopathic
Gallstones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
Mumps
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hypothermia
Emboli
Drugs
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11
Q

What is CURB >65?

A 
Confusion
Urea >7mmol
Respiratory rate >30
Blood pressure systolic <90, diastolic <60
>65 yrs old
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12
Q

ATHLETICS

A 
Action
Time 
How to take
Length of treatment
Effects
Tests
Important SE
Complications/contraindications
Supplementary Advice
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13
Q

SCOFF

A 
Sick
Control over the amount you eat
One stone lost over 3 months
Fat when not fat
Food domination over life
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14
Q

IUGR Pneumonic

A
  • Starved small
  • Wrong small
  • Abnormal small
  • Normal small
  • Smoking/drugs
  • Hypertension - pre-eclampsia
  • IUGR previously
  • Twins
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15
Q

What is the pneumonic for shoulder dystocia management

A 
Suprapubic pressure
Internal rotation
Screw manouvre
Try to recover posterior arm
Extreme measures - Zavanelli
Repair, record, relax
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16
Q

4 T’s for post-partum haemorrhage

A

Tone - atonic uterus
Trauma - Genital tract
Tissue - Retained products of conception
Thrombin - coagulopathy

17
Q

When to give 75mg aspirin in pregnancy from 12/40

A 
Existing (chronic) hypertension
Chronic kidney disease
Lupus
Antiphospholipid syndrome
Maternal diabetes
Previous pregnancy with HTN
18
Q

What are the risks of Pre-Eclampsia?

A 
Stroke
HELLP syndrome
Abruption of placenta
Multi-organ failure +/- DIC or death
Eclampsia
19
Q

What are the risks of diabetes in pregnancy?

A 
Shoulder dystocia
Macrosomia
Amniotic fluid excess
Stillbirth
Hypertension + neonatal hypoglycaemia
20
Q

What are the causes for Menorrhagia?

A 
PID
Endometrial cancer/Endometriosis
Really bad Hypothyroidism
Intra-tuerine contraception - copper not mirena
Ovarian cancer
Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
Submuscosal Fibroids
21
Q

Causes of IMB/Irregular bleeding

A

Polyp
Adenomyosis
Leiomyoma - fibroids
Malignancy

Coagulopathy
Ovulatory dysfunction - anovulation
No cause found
Endometriosis

22
Q

6 P’s and an E for IUD/IUS counselling

A 
Pregnancy - failre + ectopic
Periods 
Perforation
PID - STI test before
Procedure
Progestogenic side effects - weight gain, acne, loss of libido, vaginal dryness, breast tenderness
23
Q

Post-MI Complications

A 
Death
Arrhythmias
Recurrence/Regurge
Tamponade
Heart failure
Valve disease
Aneurysm
Dressler's syndrome
Embolism - VTE
Rupture
24
Q

Acute COPD management?

A

COSICAR

Controlled Oxygen
Salbutamol 5mg
Ipatropium bromide 500mcg
Corticosteroids - 30mg oral pred or 200mg IV hydrocortisone
Aminophylline
Respiratory support - BiPAP
25
Q

Pulmonary Oedema X-Ray?

A
  • Alveolar oedema - Bat wings
  • Kerley B lines
  • Cardiomegaly
  • Diversion to upper lobes
  • Effusions
26
Q

Management for Pulmonary Oedema

A

Pain - 2.5mg - 10mg IV morphine
Pee - 40mg IV furosemide
Puff - GTN - 2puffs or IV, if BP >90
PAP - C-PAP to open alveoli

If BP <100 = cardiogenic shock

27
Q

Innocent Murmur

A
  • Symptom free
  • Soft
  • Short
  • Systolic
  • Site - left sternal edge
  • Sitting/standing - murmur changes position
28
Q

Side effects of Sodium valproate

A
  • Appetite
  • Liver failure
  • Pancreatitis
  • Reversible hair loss - reduced efficacy of COCP
  • Oedema
  • Ataxia
  • Teratogenicity, tremor, thrombocytopaniea
  • Encephalopathy
29
Q

Causes for AF?

A 
Pulmonary - PE, COPD, Pneumonia
Iatrogenic
Rheumatic heart disease
Atherosclerotic - MI, Angina, CAD
Thyroid - Hyperthyroidism
Endocarditis
Sick sinus syndrome/substances
30
Q

What are the 3C’s of Measles?

A

Cough
Conjunctivitis
Coryza

General Investigations (6 decks)

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