Pneumonia, Bronchiectasis, And Lung Abscess Flashcards

1
Q

What are the categories of the pneumonia?

A
  • Community-acquired (CAP)
  • Health care-associated (HCAP)
    —hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP)
    —ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)
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2
Q

What is health care-associated with current hospitalization for ___ hrs, or hospitalization for ____ hr in the prior ___ months, residence in a _____ home or extended-care facility, ________ therapy in the preceding 3 months

A
  • current hospitalization for 48 hrs
  • Hospitalization for 48 hr/2 days in the prior 3 months
  • nursing home
  • antibiotic therapy
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3
Q

Classic pneumonia presents as a lobar pattern and evolves through four phases. What are the four phases?

A
  1. Edema- proteinaceous exudates are present in the alveoli
  2. Red hepatization- erythrocytes and neutrophils are present in the intraalveolar exudate
  3. Gray hepatization- neutrophils and fibrin depostion are abundant
  4. Resolution- macrophages are the dominant cell type
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4
Q

What are the typical bacterial pathogens involved in CA-pneumonia( 5)

A
Gram positives: 
—s. Pneumonia
—h. Influenza
—s. Aureus 
Gram negatives:
—klebsiella
—pseudomonas aeruginosa
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5
Q

What are the atypical organism involved in CA-pneumonia(4)?

A

Mycoplasma Pneumonia
Chlamydia pneumonia
Legionella
Respiratory viruses ( influenza viruses, adenoviruses, human metapneumonvirus, RSV)

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6
Q

How does the clinical manifestations of pneumonia present?

A

Fever, chills, sweats, cough (either nonproductive or productive of mucous, purple the, or blood-tinged sputum), pleuritic chest pain, and dyspnea
—N/V, diarrhea, fatigue, headache, myalgia, arthralgia

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7
Q

How do you diagnosis pneumonia?

A

CXR: differentiate CAP from other condition
Sputum samples: >25 WBCs and <10 squamous epithelial cells er high
blood cultures: positive in 5-14% of cases
—should be performed in high risk pts (chronic liver disease)
Urine antigen tests: s. Pneumonia and legionella
PCR: nasopharyngeal swab, respiratory infections
Serology: IgM antibody can assist in the diagnosis

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8
Q

What are the two criteria to identify whether to hospitalize pt with pneumonia?

A

Pneumonia Severity Index (PSI)

CURB-65

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9
Q

What are the criteria for pneumonia severity index (PSI)?

A

Points are given for 20 variables, including age, coexisting illness, and abnormal physical and laboratory findings
Puts are assigned to one of five classes of mortality risk

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10
Q

What are the criteria for CURB-65?

A
Five variable are included:
Confusion
Urea > 7mmol/L
Respiratory rate > 30/min
BP, systolic <90 mmHg or diasystolic <60 
Age > 65 yo

Score of 0: treated at home
Score of 2: should be hospitalized
Score of >3 require management in the ICU

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11
Q

What is the empirical antibiotic treatment for an outpatient?

A
  1. Previously healthy and no antibiotics in past 3 months
    —macrolide: clarithromycin, azithromycin or doxycycline
  2. Comorbidities or antibiotics in past 3 month
    —fluoroquinoline, gemifloxacin, levofloxacin
    —beta-lactate or amoxicillin
    —or cefltriaxone, cefpodoxime, cefuroxime plus a macrolide
  3. In regions with a high rate of “high-level” pneumoncoccal macrolide resistance
    —use drugs from classic 2
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12
Q

What is the empiric antibiotic treatment in inpatients, non-ICU?

A
  1. Fluoroquinolone (moxifloxacin, or levofloxacin)

2. Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, ampicillin, cefotaxime, ertapenem plus a macrolide

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13
Q

What is the empiric treatment for inpatient, ICU patient?

A

Beta-lactam (ceftriaxone, ampicillin-sulbactam or cefotaxime plus either azithromycin or a fluoroquinoline

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14
Q

What antibiotic should be added to patient with pseudomonas?

A

Antipseudomonal beta-lactam (piperacillin/tazobactam), cefepime, imipenem, meropenem plus either ciprofloxacin or levofloxacin
—plus aminoglycoside (amikacin or tobramycin plus azithromycin)
—plus antipneumoncoccal fluoroquinolone

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15
Q

What drugs should be when considering CA-MRSA?

A

Add linezolid or vancomycin

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16
Q

What are some of the complications of pneumonia?

A

Common in severe CAP-respiratory failure, shock and multi-organ failure, coagulopathy, and exacerbation of comorbid disease
—Lung abscess ( usually CA-MRSA or p. Aeruginosa); drainage
—pleural effusion

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17
Q

Highest hazard ratio in the _____ ______ days of mechanical ventilation for acquiring VAP?

A

The first 5 days

18
Q

What 3 factor are important for the pathogenesis of VAP?

A
  1. Colonization of the oropharynx
  2. Aspiration of these organisms to the LRT
  3. Compromise of normal ost defenses mechanisms
19
Q

How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is elimination of normal flora?

A

Avoidance of prolonged antibiotic course

20
Q

How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is large-volume oropharyngeal aspiration around time of intubation ?

A

Short course of prophylactic antibiotics for comatose pt

21
Q

How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is gastroesophageal reflux?

A

Postpyloric enteral feeding; avoidance of high gastric residuals, pro kinetic agents

22
Q

How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is bacterial overgrowth of stomach?

A

avoidance of prophylactic agents that raise gastric pH;selective decontamination of digestive tract with non-absorbable antibiotics

23
Q

How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is cross-infection from other colonized pts?

A

Hand washing, especially with alcohol-based hand rub; intensive infection control education; isolation; proper cleaning of reuse-able equipment

24
Q

How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is large-volume aspiration?

A

Endotracheal intubation; rapid-sequence intubation techniques; avoidance of sedation;decompresssion of small-bowel obstruction

25
How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is endotracheal intubation?
Noninvasive ventilation
26
How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is prolonged duration of ventilation?
Daily awakening from sedation, weaning protocols
27
How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is abnormal swallowing function?
Early percutaneous tracheostomy
28
How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is secretions pooled above endotracheal tube
Head of bed elevated; continues aspiration of subglottic secretions with specialized endotracheal tube; avoidance of reintubation; minimization of sedation and pt transport
29
How do we prevent VAP when the pathogenic mechanism is lathered lower respiratory host defenses?
Tight glycemic control; lowering of hemoglobin transfusion threshold
30
What pt population is at risk for developing CA-PNA?
Extremes of age Risk factors: alcoholism, asthma, immunosuppression, institutionalizations, and age of >70 yo Other: smoking, COPD, recent hospitalization or antibiotic therapy
31
Describe primary tuberculosis?
Acquired through aerosolized transmission- suspended for hours New TB infection or active diseases in naive person -fever(low grade) -CXR: Hilar lymphadenopathy=> can develop pleural effusions —lobes involved middle and lower losers, healing= calcification
32
Describe Primary Progressive Tuberculosis?
No healing by fibrosis after infective day with M. Tuberculosis
33
What are the 3 patterns of Primary Progressive TB?
P atterns 1. Primary caseous Pneumonia- Ghon complex expands to entire lobe or segment, a seating necrosis, consolidated appearance 2. Tuberculosis Bronchopneumonia- 2nd to bronchopneumonia spread to entire lung parenchyma, patchy Fock 3. Millay Tuberculosis- 2nd to hematogenous spread, multiple nodule, millet seed appearance, spread across entire affect organ (liver, kidneys, meninges, spleen).
34
Describe Secondary Tuberculosis?
Reactivation TB Most common (90-95%) -fever, chills, cough, weight loss CXR: apical and posterior segment involvement, pulmonary cavitation present
35
What is another name for the PPD skin test and what is it?
Mantoux skin test Intradermal injection Read w/in 48-72 hrs Made from Purified protein of M. Tuberculosis— will not cause infection, will illicit a reaction if previous exposure
36
What is the BCG vaccination?
Bacilli Calmette-Guerin Made from M. Boris -given to ppl exposed to TB or those that live in a high prevalence area -can cause False Positive on TST
37
What Auramine-Rhodamine stain is use for ______?
Screening for AFB (most sensitive) | Utilizes Fluorescent microscopy
38
What is the Ziegler-Nielsen stain used for __________?
Confirmatory AFB stain, more specific for TB
39
NAAT-R testing detects resistance to which TB Drugs?
Rifampin and INH
40
Describe Mycobacterium Tuberculosis?
``` AFB- mycolic acid Aerobic, slow, growing Facultative intracellular (Macrophages) Caseating granulomas Virulence: —cord factor (releases cachectin-wt loss, inhibits phagosome) —sulfatides (inhibit phagosome-lysosomes fusion) —siderophore Fe2+ acquisition ```
41
What are the extrapulmonary manifestations of M. Tuberculosis?
Lymphadenitis- scrofula Pleural effusions- adenosine delaminates and Interferon gamma Military TB: widespread hematogenous shedding of TB Meningitis Tuberculosis spondylitis Intestinal TB
42
Describe Mycobacterium Kansasii?
``` AFB, non-motile Spread via environment —old ppl w/ lung disease or smokers —m>>w —Midwest and southwest ``` Rx: rifampin, isoniazid, ethambutal for at least 18 months