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4th Year Exams > PMVPH > Flashcards

PMVPH Flashcards

1
Q

What age do you want to service a heifer? When is the ideal age for her first calving?

A

15 months

24 months

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2
Q

If there is a low-fat content in a cow’s milk, what are some likely reasons?

A

Acidosis
SARA
Insufficient fibre in diet

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3
Q

When assisting in calving, describe the scores from 0 to 4.

A 
0 - no calf touching 
1- hands but no ropes
2- ropes used gently 
3- ropes used and pulled hard 
4- C-section
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4
Q

How much colostrum should a calf consume in the first 12 hours of life?

A

~6 Liters

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5
Q

When there are cases of calf diarrhea, we do not want to bug and drug. What are some ways we can discover the cause of diarrhea?

A

Look at the environment
What they are being fed
Immune status of other calves on the farm
Management/husbandry

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6
Q

What are the top reasons for culling dairy cows?

A

Lameness, repeated high cell count, kicks in parlour, infertility
Allows older and less productive cows to be removed and to be replaced with younger heifers of higher genetic merit/potential

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7
Q

What is a calving interval and what is the ideal amount of time for it?

A

Time between her last two calvings

Ideal = 365 days - often difficult to achieve so anything under 400 days is successful

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8
Q

What is the voluntary wait period? Why would it be used? What is the target amount of days for this?

A

The interval during the postpartum period in which producers decide not to breed cows even if estrus occurs - target = ~ 42 days
Farmers would decide to do it because:
- allow uterine recovery
- allow cow to recover from metabolic problems
- allow return of normal cyclic ovarian activity

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9
Q

How does IBR affect a herd?

A 
Acute upper resp infection 
Mild to fatal pneumonia  - Rarely fatal 
Due to secondary lung pathogens 
Decreased milk yield 
Often unnoticed 
Loss of appetite 
Pyrexia 
Abortion throughout gestation 
Vaginitis 
Conjunctivitis 
Nasal discharge -Initially serous, Later muco-serous
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10
Q

How does lepto affect a herd?

A

Often sub-clinical - Esp. if not pregnant/lactating
Weak/still-borne calves
Decreased milk yield
Flaccid udder if lactating

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11
Q

How does BVD affect a herd?

A 
Often mild & unnoticed 
D+ uncommon 
Decreased milk yield 
Pyrexia 
Loss of appetite 
Still-borne/weak calves 
Immunosuppressive 
Secondary pneumonia 
Scours 
Mild pneumonia 
Creation of persistently infected animal - In utero infection in 1st trimester/Birth of immunotolerant calf  = 1-2% calves
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12
Q

Do you expect fat or protein to be higher in milk?

A

FAT!

If lower- there may be a lack of fiber in the diet

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13
Q

What are some litter size limiting factors in sows?

A

Ovulation rate
Fertilization rate
Concurrent disease
Nutrition

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14
Q

What are infectious/non-infectious causes of lameness in pigs?

A

Infectious - Erysipelas, Brucellosis, Clostridial dx, FMD

Non-infectious - Fractures, porcine stress syndrome, trauma

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15
Q

What are some common clinical signs seen with PRRS?

A

Weak & poorly piglets
Shaky piglets
Mummified piglets
Transient blue ears

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16
Q

What are the top two reasons for culling sows?

A

Reproductive issues

Lameness

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17
Q

What are two emerging diseases in pig populations?

A

African Swine Fever - highly contagious/virulent
Porcine Epidemic Diarrhea Virus - coronavirus that affects the small intestine
BOTH NOTIFIABLE

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18
Q

How would you define underperformance at the herd level in beef cows vs. dairy cows?

A 
Beef = growth rates, carcass quality, fertility
Dairy = fertility, milk, longevity, mobility/lameness
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19
Q

What is the target for egg production for a commercial layer?

A

1 egg/25 hours

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20
Q

What are some common bacterial diseases that affect commercial layers?

A

E. Coli
Salmonella
Clostridia
Campylobacter

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21
Q

What is the conventional broiler lifespan?

A

32-42 days :(

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22
Q

What are some common nutritional deficiencies that affect commercial broilers?

A

Vit D3, Vit B, Dehydration/heat stress

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23
Q

Describe how/if you could observe FMD in both AM/PM inspections.

A

AM inspection:
Clinical signs easy to detect, BUT not specific
E.g. lameness - Often not suspected

PM inspection:
In sheep- feet & heads not inspected
Lesions missed
In cattle- heads inspected but lesions mild/healed - so Diff. to detect/suspect

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24
Q

What causes dark, firm, dry meat? (DFD)

A

Glycogen levels depleted prior to death - less glycogen to be converted to lactic acid after slaughter –> ultimate pH remains high (does not get acidic enough)
Ex: over-exertion, injury, transport stress from long distances, fighting, long periods without feed, long periods in lairage, over-stocking

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25
Q

What causes pale, soft, exudative meat? (PSE)

A

Stress immediately pre-slaughter - using muscle glycogen stores VERY FAST –> Massive pH decrease
Lactic acid build-up
common with pigs

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26
Q

What are 4 methods of stunning?

A

Electrical
Penetrative captive bolt - guarantees non-recovery
Non-penetrative captive bolt
Gas stunning

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27
Q

What are signs of an effective captive bolt stunning?

A 
Immediate collapse w/hindlimbs flexed 
Tonic body spams 
Immediate loss of normal rhythmic breathing 
Immediate loss of corneal & palpebral reflex 
No eyeball rotation 
Relaxed jaw 
No righting reflex 
Convulsive kicking
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28
Q

What is the most used and accepted food safety management system in the world?

A

Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Point (HACCP) - ensures that animals are slaughtered and dressed under conditions that mean the meat will carry minimal public health risk

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29
Q

True or false: you need good hygienic practice (GHP) as a pre-requisite for HACCP.

A

TRUE - GHP incorporates several pre-req programs =

  • Plant maintenance
  • Cleaning and sanitation
  • Water
  • Waste disposal
  • Pest control
  • Suppliers and customers
  • Staff
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30
Q

What are the 7 principles of the HACCP approach?

A
  1. Hazard analysis - ID all PH hazards
  2. ID critical control points
  3. Establish critical limits at each CCP - define what is acceptable vs. unacceptable
  4. Monitor each CCP
  5. Corrective actions at each CCP
  6. HACCP verification/validation - proving that the measures are working
  7. HACCP documentation - record-based proof
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31
Q

Whose responsibility is it to ID the possible contamination points in the milk production process and implement control measures?

A

FOOD BUSINESS OPERATOR

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32
Q

What are some reasons for foremilking?

A

Assists early detection for mastitis (see clots)
Removes potentially contaminated milk from the teat canal
Stimulates milk let down

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33
Q

What are the 3 stages of production?

A

Stage I- During this stage, the total production is increasing at a high rate. Productivity is therefore increasing during this stage

Stage 2 - production of the output continues to increase but at a diminishing rate

Stage 3 - the production of the output declines

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34
Q

Describe medicated early weaning.

A

The sows are isolated and then the piglets moved at 5-7 days old to a clean farm. Generally this works for bacterial issues but is also used for EP and APP. Both the piglets and the sows are medicated

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35
Q

Describe a batch system for pigs.

A

Batch systems are as the name suggests - all the pigs are in one batch - the most common being a 3-week batch which is the farrow/ weaning/ service routine.

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36
Q

Describe a continuous system for pigs.

A

A continuous system might be one where the Sows farrow weekly and all the jobs are done every week. Continuous stocking is a problem as the pens might not get empty between pigs.

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37
Q

Describe an all-in all-out system for pigs.

A

All in all out tends to be weaner-finisher units where all pigs arrive at the same time then all leave at the same time meaning you can totally clean everything in between

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38
Q

True or false: zinc in piglet diets can prevent post weaning diarrhea.

A

TRUE - however it is due to be banned in 2022 since it is a heavy metal that can lead to soil/water contamination

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39
Q

What is the accepted level of incidence for salmonella at the abattoir in pigs according to the FSA?

A

The accepted level of incidence is 3 positives out of 50 samples over a 10-week period. This is the equivalent of 6% salmonella prevalence

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40
Q

What is technical vs. economic optimum?

A

Technical optimum = max. amount of production
Economic optimum = max. profit
not always different

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41
Q

What is forward vs. backward food item traceability?

A

Forward - re-call food from stores/shops

Backward - find source of problem

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42
Q

Describe the aims of the General Food Law.

A

It sets out an overarching and coherent framework for the development of food and feed legislation both at Union and national levels. It lays down general principles, requirements and procedures that underpin decision making in matters of food and feed safety, covering all stages of food and feed production and distribution.

major EU legislation, ensures that:

1) food contributes to animal, human health and environment protection (RESPONSIBILITY OF FOOD SAFETY LIES WITH THE FOOD BUSINESS OPERATOR)
2) free movement of food with the EU
3) facilitate global trade with other countries

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43
Q

How many people fall ill due to foodborne disease? How many deaths per year?

A

1 in 10 fall ill

420,000 deaths/year

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44
Q

What is the number one symptom/illness seen from foodborne disease?

A

Diarrheal disease from unsafe food

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45
Q

How would you measure underperformance in replacement heifer rearing?

A

Monitor breeding/insemination - ensure fertilization good
Ensure max productivity by calving at 24 months
Manage calving - ensure on time, growing properly

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46
Q

If you see a cow/heifer straining during parturition, how long should you wait before intervening?

A

Cow - 1 hour

Heifer - 1.5 hours

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47
Q

What is the 120 day in calf rate? What is the ideal % to aim for?

A

% of cows in calf again 120 days post calving

Ideal percentage > 64%

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48
Q

What is the 210 day not in calf? What is the ideal % to aim for?

A

% of cows not in calf 210 days post calving

Aim for < 7%

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49
Q

True or false: seeing enzootic pneumonia (mycoplasma hypopneumoniae) on a pig farm is a huge deal and should be addressed immediately.

A

FALSE - this is a widespread disease that is usually unimportant leading to mild effects
HOWEVER if other infections present, such as PRRS, it can lead to complicated pneumonia and consildation of cranial lung lobes, mild cough

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50
Q

What kind of system is the best to rid of salmonella in a pig herd?

A

ALL IN ALL OUT

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51
Q

True or false: post weaning multisystemic wasting syndrome is in ~90% of pig herds.

A

TRUE - will see many systems affect on PME

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52
Q

What is a clinically important ectoparasite in commercial layers?

A

RED MITE - can cause mortality from blood-sucking and can spread E. Coli

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53
Q

What viral disease in commercial broilers leads to gizzard erosion and inclusion body hepatitis?

A

ADENOVIRUS

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54
Q

What would be a key sign for bovine TB at the abattoir?

A

TB granulomas seen in the LNs

Can test on the farm to aid eradication

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55
Q

What are some ways to test for lepto at a farm?

A

Serology - AB titre in aborted mother
Placental/fetus PCR
PCR herd’s urine
Serology from pooled milk

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56
Q

What is the only way to test for BSE?

A

Brainstem sampling

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57
Q

What are common causes of DOA for pigs?

A

Hyperthermia

Metabolic acidosis

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58
Q

What are common causes of DOA for sheep?

A

Smothering

Ill health

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59
Q

What are common causes of DOA for broilers?

A

CHF - genetics/high growth rates, Trauma - associated with capture, loading, transport = dislocated hip, ruptured liver, head trauma

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60
Q

True or false: lacerations of skin can decrease meat quality or cause spoilage.

A

TRUE

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61
Q

What makes meat more pink?

A

After slaughter, muscle glycogen stores are converted to lactic acid –> decreased pH
Low pH meat becomes MORE PINK and we want to see this
sudden decline is not good

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62
Q

What are some PM signs of dehydration?

A

Difficult skin removal
Sticky meat
Darker, tougher meat
Smaller loin muscle area

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63
Q

What species do we use captive bolt most often in?

A

Cattle

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64
Q

True or false: you always have to report a second shot when stunning/slaughtering.

A

TRUE

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65
Q

With shooting positions, what anatomical location are we aiming for when stunning?

A

BRAINSTEM

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66
Q

What is the aim of electrical stunning? What occurs within the brain in this method?

A

To produce brain dysfunction/unconsciousness

Causes rapid depolarization of membrane potentials of nerves within the brain –> synchronized activity

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67
Q

True or false: EEG waveform after electrical stunning is similar to a grand mal seizure.

A

TRUE

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68
Q

What part of electrical stunning actually induces the stunning?

A

The ELECTRICAL CURRENT

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69
Q

Do we want increased frequencies with electrical stunning?

A

No - increased frequency leads to decreased carcass damage because there is less convulsing but no cardiac arrest and duration is less/probability of success worse

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70
Q

True or false - you can use water bath stunning in waterfowl.

A

FALSE - their feathers are hydrophobic

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71
Q

What is the benefit of adding inert gases to CO2 with gas stunning?

A

Inert gases = nitrogen and argon

Cause O2 displacement –> hypoxia, which is more welfare friendly but more expensive

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72
Q

What are advantages/disadvantages to gas stunning?

A

Advantages - no stress from handling/shackling/inversion
Improves product quality, increased line speed
Disadvantages = expensive, welfare - gas is noxious/burning, respiratory distress, not instant stunning

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73
Q

Describe low atmospheric pressure stunning.

A

Decompression of the chambers to decrease oxygen tension/levels –> cerebral hypoxia –> unconsciousness

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74
Q

When would you use mechanical vs. manual cervical neck dislocation?

A

Mechanical for birds <5kg
Manual for birds <3kg
only a backup method - used to cull not stun

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75
Q

When slaughtering without stunning, where is the ideal location to cut on the neck and why?

A

Higher up on the neck because it takes a lower amount of time for them to lose consciousness

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76
Q

What is the incubation period for campylobacter and where does it colonize?

A

2-5 days

SMALL INTESTINE –> enteritis –> V/D/cramps

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77
Q

What population is mostly affected by listeria related foodborne disease?

A

Young, old, pregnant, immunocompromised

Adults are usually resistant to the disease

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78
Q

What are some of the OV duties at an abattoir?

A

Enter premises, prevent sale of unfit meat, stop operations if meat safety/animal welfare compromsied

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79
Q

When are AM inspections required to be done?

A

<24 hours after arrival to the abattoir
AND
<24 hours before slaughter

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80
Q

When is the most ideal time to do AM inspections?

A

At unloading

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81
Q

What are the differences in PM inspection in sheep based on age?

A

Sheep <12 months - visual only

Sheep >12 months - palpation and incision of liver

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82
Q

What are the differences in PM inspection in cattle based on age?

A

<8 months - some palpations, no incisions
>8months - palpate lungs, gastric/mesenteric LNs, incisions to masseter, heart, retropharyngeal/mediastinal/bronchial LNs

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83
Q

What are animal byproducts? What are the categories?

A

Everything left over from the carcass not for human consumption
Cat 3 = LOWEST RISK - fit for human consumption but unwanted by operator because no market (lung, spleen)
Ex: organ changes, discoloration, pneumonias
USED FOR PET FOOD

Cat 2= High risk materials - rejected
STAIN BLACK –> INCINERATION

Cat 1 = ruminant materials linked to TSEs - head and spinal cord
STAIN BLUE –> INCINERATION

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84
Q

What are edible co-products?

A

Foods that are unsuitable for hc at production but processed to be made fit for hc
Ex: stomachs and intestines of red meat –> sausage casings
Gelatin

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85
Q

What is the key substrate for food spoilage?

A

PROTEINS

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86
Q

What is the aim of food technology in regards to proteins?

A

Prevent and decrease rate of protein breakdown

BEST WAY = COLD STORAGE

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87
Q

What is the aim of food technology aim in regards to carbohydrates?

A

Provide ideal conditions to promote desirable fermentation - add desirable microorganisms/enzymes
Carbohydrates are broken down into acids via enzymes - which decreases the pH –> decreased spoilage rate and increased shelf life

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88
Q

What is the aim of food technology aim in regards to fats?

A

Prevent or decrease the breakdown of fats into acids/esters

BEST WAY = COLD STORAGE or add antioxidants

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89
Q

What stage of growth are microorganisms most vulnerable?

A

Exponential growth phase

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90
Q

Describe what free water is bitch.

A

Not the same as water content you moron.
Products containing free water give off moisture in vapor form to the air in the environment, only when the vapor pressure in the air is below that of the product. The vapor pressure of a salt or sugar solution is reduced in comparison to that of pure water.
Microorganissm need this in order to grow
TO REDUCE IT - heat –> evaporation
chemicals - salt/sugar

91
Q

How does salt kill bacteria?

A

Salt inactivates enzymes –> increased osmotic pressure within the bacteria cell –> damage –> leakage and death

92
Q

What is curing meat?

A

Addition of salt and sugar for food preservation

93
Q

What is the temp/time for prevention of clostridium botulinum proliferation?

A

< or = 3ºC for 10+days

94
Q

True or false: You can use stunning for halal meat.

A

FALSE WTF ARE YOU THINKING

95
Q

What is meant by food access?

A

Affordability, allocation, preference

Food price, household income, preferences, cultural and social norms

96
Q

What is meant by food availability?

A

Production, distribution, and exchange

Labor, land, transportation, infrastructure, storage

97
Q

What is meant by food utilization?

A

nutrition/social value

Food prep, intra-household allocation, water, sanitation, health care practices

98
Q

Describe biosecurity vs. biocontainment.

A

Biosecurity - not infected but preventing enter to farm

Biocontainment - infected but preventing spread within the farm

99
Q

What are the 2 most common pathogens associated with chicken meat?

A

Campylobacter

Salmonella

100
Q

What is the most common pathogen in eggs and its subspecies?

A

Salmonella - S. enteritidis

101
Q

How does listeria contaminate milk?

A

Grows in biofilms on food equipment

102
Q

How does bacillus cereus infect milk?

A

Produces spores that survive pasteurization - can grow at 5ºC

103
Q

How does staphylococcus aureus infect milk?

A

If improper temperatures or sitting for a while before pasteurization, it can release enterotoxins that can survive pasteurization

104
Q

What are common pathogens of pork?

A

Salmonella, Yersinia enterocolitica, Hepatitis E

105
Q

What is the most common pathogen related to beef?

A

E. Coli O157

106
Q

What are 2 viruses associated with fish/shellfish?

A

Hep. A virus - tropical regions

Norovirus - raw seafood

107
Q

What pathogen is associated with honey?

A

Clostridium botulinum –> infant botulism = ingest spores that germinate and infect LI producing toxins

108
Q

What are some chemical hazards that infect food?

A

Heavy metals
Insecticides, herbicides, growth hormones, abx, DIOXINS = environmental pollutants that accumulate in fat
Mycotoxins

109
Q

What is the ideal fibre length for ruminants?

A

2-4cm
If larger - pH will fall –> affected microbe population
Long fibers –> VFAs (acetate, butyrate, propionate)

110
Q

What is the aim for milk fat and protein in %?

A

Fat ~ 4.2%

Protein ~ 3.4%

111
Q

If doing a major diet change with cows, how long do you need to wait before sampling and what three sample groups should you use?

A

10 days
Early lactation
Mid lactation
Dry cows

112
Q

What mineral deficiency leads to grass staggers?

A

Magnesium - mainly in post-calving
signs = hyperesthesia, sensitive to sound, muscle tremors, sudden death
Usually from low levels in diet or poor absorption

113
Q

True or false - cows need to be in negative energy balance to facilitate Ca/Mg absorption.

A

TRUUUUE CHAINZ

114
Q

What mineral deficiency causes milk fever? When does it usually occur?

A

Calcium- post-calving

115
Q

What are the methods of entry for microorganisms into the mammary gland?

A

Galactogenic infection - gain entry from teat canal
Hematogenous
Percutaneous

116
Q

True or false - clinical cases of mastitis are more common than subclinical.

A

FALSE BITCH FOCUS

Subclinical is 10-40 times more prevalent than clinical

117
Q

Describe environmental vs. contagious mastitis.

A

Environmental - spread between milking and during dry period

Contagious - spread in the parlor - usually subclinical

118
Q

Which pathogen is mostly likely to cause peracute mastitis?

A

Staph aureus –> gangrenous mastitis

119
Q

What are the common pathogens associated with contagious mastitis?

A

Strep. agalactiae/dysgalactiae, uberis, Staph aureus

120
Q

What are the common pathogens associated with environmental mastitis?

A

E. coli, Strep. uberis (if in wet straw/outside), Klebsiella, coliforms

121
Q

What are the SCC numbers usually around for subclinical mastitis?

A

> 200,000 cells/ml

122
Q

What are the SCC numbers usually around for clinical mastitis?

A

Several hundred thousand cells/ml

Will see clots, blood, pain

123
Q

What are the methods for dry cow therapy?

A

Teat sealant alone or used in combination with antibiotics where necessary

124
Q

What is considered a “problem cow” for mastitis? What options do we have with them?

A

> 3 cases in the same lactation

Cull, isolate, or treat

125
Q

What are the clinically relevant multi-drug-resistant pathogens in humans?

A 
ESKAPE
Enterococcus fecium
Staph. aureus/pseudointermedius
Klebsiella
Acinetobacter baumanii
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Enterobacter species
126
Q

Who has the lead responsibility for feed and food law?

A

Food standards agency (FSA)

127
Q

Who controls the use of Veterinary Medicine in the UK?

A

Veterinary Medicines Directorate

128
Q

A 45 kg Black Labrador (BCS 7/9) needs to lose weight because the excess weight is exacerbating orthopedic problems. Given that the ideal body weight for this dog is 35 kg, what is the best initial strategy to get the dog to lose weight?

A

Calculate this dog’s RER based on current weight, and feed this amount of calories as long as this is less than what the dog is currently eating.

129
Q

Which characteristics are associated with Streptococcus uberis?

A

A Gram-positive coccus which is a major cause of bovine lactating mastitis. It is catalase-negative, has no Lancefield group and hydrolyses aesculin to yield a black colour. It has no obvious known pathogenicity factors except a polysaccharide capsule. It is considered to cause “environmental” mastitis.

130
Q

Which bacteria causes of bovine mastitis is resistant to β-lactam antimicriobials, widespread among dairy cattle, is frequently missed in common bacteriological culture and shows a pleomorphic cell structure.

A

Mycoplasma bovis - has no cell wall peptidoglycan, so it is resistant to all β-lactam antimicriobials (which attack at this site) and has no definite cell shape. It is frequently missed in culture because it is fastidious (requires special medium to grow well), slow-growing and forms very small colonies. It is perhaps regularly overlooked as a cause of raised SCC, milder mastitis and loss of milk production.

131
Q

What is the relationship between risk assessment and risk management when considering food safety risks at primary production level?

A

Risk management is the leading process receiving input from risk assessment

Risk management builds on outcomes from risk assessment but also includes other factors such as practicality and costs. Effective risk management is also dependent on risk communication.

132
Q

To be able to give adequate advice on the roles and responsibilities to a farmer who keeps livestock for meat production you would need to know:

A

European legislation, the related national legislation and reserved powers, plus any private regulations that go beyond the public legislation
All legally binding information is available to define the farmer’s roles and responsibilities plus there is information on what is needed to maintain their market to a private company.

133
Q

What is the primary objective of surveillance of salmonella cases in poultry?

A

To protect the health of consumers- This is the primary objective. Secondary objectives are to promote unrestricted international trade, to assure market access and hereby optimise production economics.

134
Q

One of your clients comes into your practice with a dead chicken from his small backyard flock of 10 hens. Two further animals aren’t eating as much as usual. You decide to submit the carcass to the nearest VLA Regional Laboratory. What can you expect?

A

A post mortem examination will be carried out inclusive of all necessary and reasonable laboratory testing.
VLA - do not report advice on treatment

135
Q

You visit a farm to investigate a problem of weight loss in adult ewes. The farm has 750 ewes – how many would you body condition score in order to get an appreciation of the mean and range of body condition scores within the flock?

A

Random selection of 10% of the flock

136
Q

How is body condition scoring of sheep carried out?

A

Feel for fat/muscle cover over the lumbar spine

137
Q

Why does a fast-growing lamb (300g/day growth) require more food per day than a slow-growing lamb (100g/day growth)?

A

Fast-growing lambs have a higher daily energy requirement.

Lambs require approximately 1.5 MJME/day for every 50g/day of growth. Hence a lamb growing at 300g/day requires 6 MJME per day more than a lamb growing at 100g/day. Taking into account energy required for maintenance as well, a lamb growing 300g/day requires 1.6 x as much energy as a lamb growing 100g/day. However because fast growing lambs are slaughtered at a younger age their lifetime food intake is substantially less than a slow-growing lamb.

138
Q

Which trace element is an essential part of an enzyme involved in metabolism?

A

Cobalt is an essential part of Vitamin B12 which itself is an essential part of an enzyme that is involved in the transformation of propionate to glucose.

139
Q

You are contacted by a beef cattle farmer who has a group of 80 eight-month-old Hereford steers grazing on pasture. The steers are failing to gain weight as rapidly as expected (in fact some of them don’t seem to be growing at all) and a number have diarrhea. Which trace element(s) could be involved in this problem?

A

Copper + Selenium/Vit E

140
Q

Why is measuring serum copper levels NOT a good way of evaluating copper sufficiency in grazing ruminants?

A

Serum copper levels only decrease when liver copper levels are exhausted

141
Q

When considering nematodes, under which climatic conditions is larval development most rapid?

A

WARM & MOIST BABY

For this reason the pre-patent period is shortest during warm, moist conditions e.g. moist summers and early autumn

142
Q

Faecal egg counts can either be carried out on individual animal samples or on pooled samples. What is a DISADVANTAGE of undertaking pooled FEC?

A

Variation in the sample cannot be estimated.

143
Q

What is the most commonly diagnosed cause of “sudden” death in beef cows based on recent VLA data?

A

Hypomagnesaemia

144
Q

Why is it highly recommended to vaccinate grazing animals against Clostridial diseases?

A

Clostridial organisms are ubiquitous in the environment and as commensal organisms inside animals, so the potential for disease is always present.

145
Q

In July, while working as a veterinarian in a mixed-animal practice you are contacted by a farmer who has had 5 lambs out of a group of 150 die over the past 3 days. How many lambs would you submit for post-mortem examination?

A

3 lambs – the freshest three
, 3 should be sufficient in most cases (and the lab pricing structure means it is most cost-effective to do 3). Also, the lambs have died over the last 3 days and it is summer, so it is unlikely that all of them will still be fresh enough to be of diagnostic value.

146
Q

What is productivity?

A

Productivity is the efficiency of the conversion of inputs to outputs

147
Q

What would provide the most reliable method of assessing the effectiveness of colostrum management on a dairy farm?

A

Regular sampling of healthy calves aged 2-7 days and checking for Total Protein levels

If TP > 55g/L -> colostrum intake sufficient

148
Q

What is the approximate minimum post-partum anoestrous (PPA) period for a beef suckler cow?

A

35-40 days
If everything at calving time is perfect (optimal BCS, no dystocia or post-parturient problems) then beef suckler cows can be expected to return to cyclicity in about 40 days. However, poor BCS or any problems during or after calving will increase the PPA and reduce the likelihood of the cow maintaining a 365-day calving interval.

149
Q

Dystocia due to foetal-maternal disproportion is a common cause of beef calf mortality. What can be done to reduce the levels of dystocia due to this? (think back to the reproduction strand).

A

Use appropriate breed of bull compared with the cows

Use breeding values to select bulls which sire calves with a low birth-weight or high calving ease

150
Q

Mortality rates on a pig finishing herd have recently changed from 15 to 10%. How do you view this?

A

The improvement is good, but still some way to get to an acceptable target
Should be around 3%

151
Q

A client asks you if it is worth undertaking a genetic selection program for a low heritability trait. What is your reply?

A

It depends on more than just the heritability of the trait

152
Q

Gumboro disease can affect chicken laying flocks as a result of ____.

A

Causing immune-suppression in rearing pullets (young hen - what a stupid word)

153
Q

Describe the relative timing of the respiratory and gait cycles in the horse.

A

Expiration occurs during the stance phase of the forelimbs at canter and gallop.
The horse has a so-called “visceral piston” whereby continued forward movement of the abdominal viscera during the stance phase of the forelimbs compresses the thorax, assisting with expiration. This means that we can differentiate abnormal respiratory noises that occur during exercise as inspiratory or expiratory.

154
Q

Which condition is considered a dynamic expiratory obstruction of the upper respiratory tract of the horse?

A

Dorsal displacement of the soft palate- It occurs most commonly during high-speed exercise and results in a sudden gurgling or choking noise and drop in speed. This is an expiratory obstruction, since the airflow ‘catches’ under the trailing edge of the palate and causes it to billow upward.

155
Q

A flock of broilers has a high frequency skin blemishes on the hips. What are possible causes?

A

Birds climbing on top of each other during catching - If the birds panic during catching they migrate to one end of the shed and pile on top of each other
Insufficient space at the feeders or drinkers

156
Q

Poultry meat is one of the most popular types of meat. It is because of its rich nutrient content, easy preparation and quick cooking. What other factors are associated with poultry meat?

A

Nutritional status taking into account degree of fat and muscle tissue it is the main indicator of poultry meat quality.

157
Q

You visit a dairy farm to discuss the herd health plan. When arriving at the farm, the farmers tells you about an increase in abortion and early calving over the last 3 weeks. One of you differential diagnosis is Brucella abortus. What do you do?

A

Contact Animal Health.

158
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

a large number of cases in wider geographic area

159
Q

A quality assurance scheme is

A

A system of ensuring production under specific standards.

160
Q

A risk pathway is an element of risk analysis. The main objective for developing a risk pathway is to:

A

Provide a framework to identify risk management needs
The risk pathway indicates where things can go wrong and therefore where risk management may be required and effective. Risk pathways can be used in all types of risk assessments, not just in important risk. For example the risk of giving a student a loan can also be represented as a risk pathway

161
Q

Which organisation(s) establishes and implements the legislation for the import of livestock into England?

A

DEFRA implement livestock import legislation that has been established by the EU. It does this through its agencies and in some cases private veterinarians with OVI status

162
Q

What does the “Little Red Tractor” logo indicate when it appears on a carton of Fresh Milk in a supermarket?

A

That the product is sourced from a farm which has a recognised Farm Assurance Scheme in place.

163
Q

What is a net present value (NPV) and what does it indicate?

A

Net present value is the present value of the benefits minus the present value of the costs for an investment. NPV indicates the economic profitability of an investment and if it has a value greater than zero then the investment is worthwhile

164
Q

Suppose a farm has not a lot a cash to start disease control. What aspect should he focus his choice on when deciding to tackle a disease?

A

Net Present Value and Cash flow - An investment has to pay of and needs to be affordable

165
Q

In biosecurity, what is the main driver for disease introduction?

A

Direct animal contact

166
Q

How is disease control best summarised?

A

Find it, fix it, kill it

167
Q

In the control of Johnes disease in a 300 cow dairy unit, what is the best approach to reduce the incidence in infected calves?

A

Assess the status of the individual dams to identify best hygiene practice for the calves that will be born and possible cull strategies.

168
Q

Food chain vs food security vs food systems

A

Food chain = all the activities that bring food from farm to fork. Food harvesting, processing, retail.
Food security = all the activities AND outcomes of the food chain. So it includes all the above plus their implications for society (public health, employment, rural development..)
Food systems = activities farm to fork + their outcomes relative to food safety, availability to society as a whole and to the environment. Plus it encompasses all the enterprises, institutions that make it possible.

169
Q

How does food safety relate to food security?

A

Food safety is part of food security.
Food security is the sum of
1) food availability
- Encompasses all activities to produce food and bring it to the supermarket shelf
2) food access
- encompasses all the conditions for people to buy food from the shelf. Includes things like food price, costumer preference, product allocation..
3) food use
- Relates to the value of the food the consumer buys. Is this food safe and nutritious? Does it contribute or damage the consumer health?

Therefore food safety is part of food utilization (one component of food security)

170
Q

What is the difference between Food Acceptability Criteria and Process Hygiene Criteria?

How does risk assessment relate to them?

A 
FAC = what is the max contamination that can be present in food for it to be sold
PHC = what are the measures along the production chain to ensure that product contamination stays with the acceptable range

Risk assessment is what decides what the acceptable microbiological contamination levels are

171
Q

What are the responsibility of the government towards the consumer when it comes to food safety?

A

implement legislation
verification/controls
communication regarding food safety and risks

172
Q

Surveillance vs Monitoring

A

Monitoring = passive collection of information
Surveillance = collection of information TO TAKE ACTION. If the number of cases reported for a certain disease goes over a threshold then action is taken to contain the outbreak and prevent epidemic.
Main aims of surveillance: monitor prevalence of a disease, monitor a disease-free state, monitoring new emerging diseases (notifiable diseases)

173
Q

Describe steps involved in an outbreak investigation

A

1) Detect the cases (people falling sick and going to the hospital)
2) Find more cases (contact other people that visited the same location)
3) Generate hypothesis regarding the course
4) Test the hypothesis (TRACE BACKWARDS)
5) Once the source of contamination is found you need to stop it from spreading (recall products, TRACE FORWARD)
6) Take action to prevent recurrence (PREVENTION)

174
Q

What are the 4 main epidemic models?

A

1) CONTINUOUS (contamination in the water/feed) - exposure is not confined to one point in time - cases spread over a period of time depending how long the exposure lasts
2) POINT SOURCE (all the flock exposed at once) - all exposed by one meal or at an event like a wedding
3) INTERMITTENT COMMON SOURCE - similar to continuous but exposure is intermittent with multiple peaks (ex: contaminated food product sold over a period of time)
4) PROPAGATED (in waves) - does not have a common source but caused by a spread of the pathogen from one person/animal to another - may be direct contact or through an intermediate host

175
Q

Profitability vs Productivity

A

Productivity = how efficient is the conversion of inputs into outputs.

Profitability = productivity taking into account the costs of production (input)

176
Q

Profit maximisation point vs technical optimum

A

They aren’t the same

Technical optimum is the point where the farmer’s inputs yield the highest production. ANIMAL WELFARE COINCIDES WITH TECHNICAL OPTIMUM. This is what you want to achieve as a vet

Profit max point is where the profitability is the highest, this is what the farmer is interested in. Doesn’t require as much input as the technical optimum.

177
Q

What are the major variables influecing pig farm profitability?

A
  • weaned pigs/sow/year
  • growth rates (based on Feed Conversion Ratio)
  • prevalence of disease (influences FCR, trade, cost of production and carcass value)
  • meat prices
178
Q

Name 3 endemic notifiable diseases in the UK

A

bovine TB
scrapie
bat rabies

179
Q

T or F: all tumors in cattle are reportable

A

T.

This is because Enzootic Bovine Leukosis is a notifiable disease

180
Q

Describe how a disease is controlled after a notifiable disease has been confirmed:

A

1) Culling of the affected animal
2) Restriction of movement for all the animals with a certain radius
3) Surveillance of all animals with the area
4) Trace back all possible contacts with that animal -> culling of these animals
5) close footpaths within and near the surveillance area
6) stop exports -> major trade implications
7) dispose of the carcasses (incineration)
8) cleaning and disinfection

181
Q

Animal arrives dead at the abattoir. Whose responsibility is it?

A

The transporter.

Once an animal is loaded they are responsible for their welfare. they can refuse to load animals if they look sick

182
Q

T or F: lame animals cannot be transported with other animals

A

T

They can however be transported individually if supported. Or the farmer can arrange for slaughter to happen at the farm. both options are quite expensive

183
Q

T or F: CCTV is a legal requirement in all UK abattoirs

A

T

184
Q

What kind of bacteria is commonly used in fermentation of milk products?

A

Lactic Acid Bacteria

185
Q

What is the percentage of food borne illnesses that relate to dairy products?

A

only 8%, thanks to pasteurization

186
Q

What is the main source for Norovirus infections? And how long do symptoms last in infected humans?

A

Human contact or human residues/waste entering the food chain. 2-3 days

187
Q

What is a source of hepatitis E contamination in fish farms?

A

Pig slurry contaminating the water

188
Q

What is curing? What does it achieve?

A

Add salt, sugar, nitrate, nitrite.

Salt reduces the amount of water, nitrite is an antibacterial/antioxidant
reaction with nitrate and myoglobin gives meat the pink color

189
Q

What does packaging achieve?

A
  • reduced contamination

- no meat discoloration

190
Q

What is Modified Atmosphere Packaging?

A

introduction of CO2 and nitrogen within the meat package to inhibit bacterial growth.

191
Q

Why isn’t stunning allowed before halal slaughter?

A

Because it was believed that stunning reduces the amount of bleeding

This has now been proven untrue by many studies.

192
Q

What is the most common food borne zoonotic parasite that you are likely to acquire through the consumption of raw salmon (sashimi)?

A

-Diphyllobothrium latum-

Zoonotic tapeworm- final hosts are humans and fish- eating mammals and birds. Intermediate host is fish

193
Q

Which antimicrobial substance is banned for use in livestock, domestically-produced and imported farmed fish and shellfish due to potential risks for public health?

A

Chloramphenicol is banned for systemic use in food-producing animals including fish and shellfish produced in aquaculture systems
Humans get aplastic anemia

194
Q

What are the main sources of contamination of shellfish with viruses?

A

Animal slurry, human sewage, contamination by food handlers

195
Q

What is the Codex Alimentarius Commission?

A

It’s an international organisation that sets out FOOD STANDARDS to ensure food safety, guarantee broader food access, enable international trade

196
Q

T or F: foodborne diseases cause a comparable public health issue as diseases such as AIDS, malaria and tuberculosis

A

True. A recent study by the WHO found that the global burden of foodborne disease is comparable to those of the major infectious diseases, HIV/AIDS, malaria and tuberculosis.

197
Q

How does Vibrio cholerae contaminate shellfish?

A

untreated human sewage contaminating producing sites of shellfish im vomiting

198
Q

Why does shellfish poisoning occur?

A

biotoxins from contaminated shellfish produced by phytoplankton

199
Q

A food safety hazard is defined by the Codex Alimentarius as:

A

a biological, chemical or physical agent in, or condition of, food with the potential to cause an adverse health effect

200
Q

What is Scombroid intoxication?

A

aka histamine poisoning, results from eating fish that have been incorrectly chilled after harvesting

201
Q

What are the different categories of animal by-products?

A

CAT 3: pet food (low risk)
CAT 2: high risk -> incineration
CAT 1: head and spinal cord of older ruminants (BSE risk)

202
Q

T or F: joint ill results in total condemnation of carcass

A

True- carcass rejected as category 1 (Usually identified ante-mortem so SRM not yet removed)

203
Q

Lungs with hydatid cysts from Echinococcus granulosus are put into which category byproduct?

A

Category 2- can infect dogs

204
Q

Why are lungs with melanosis put into category 3?

A

They are unaesthetic so humans won’t eat them

205
Q

What category is a carcass with traumatic pericarditis?

A

Carcass to be rejected as Specified Risk Material or SRM (Cat 1 by-product) if the spinal cord has not been removed; if the spinal cord has been removed then the carcass can be rejected as Category 2 (High Risk material). Offal to be rejected as Category 2 material.

206
Q

What happens if you find endocarditis?

A

Local rejection of the heart - Category 2 - High risk material.
Total rejection of the carcass and organs if embolic pneumonia or pyemia/ septicemia present (generalized conditions)- Category 2 Material. If the carcass still has Specified Risk Material (SRM) in it (e.g., spinal cord), then to be disposed of as SRM or Category 1 material.

207
Q

Kidneys with amyloidosis, what category?

A

Local rejection of affected organ - Category 3- Low Risk Material
Total rejection of carcass as category 2 if pyemia or septicemia is observed or as Category 1 if Specified Risk Material (SRM) such as spinal cord is still present in the carcass.

208
Q

Fatty liver in sheep, what category?

A

It is not fit for human consumption due to aesthetical reasons. However, there would be no risks for human consumption. Local rejection of the affected organ (Cat 3- Low Risk Material). It can go for pet food. The rest of the carcass is usually normal at post-mortem inspection.

209
Q

Ovine heart with several parasitic cysts on surface, what is the likely cause and category?

A

These cysts are caused by the larval stage of Taenia ovis (Cysticercus ovis). The final host is the dog. It is not zoonotic.
local rejection of the heart as Category 2 (High risk material) as infectious to other animals (dogs).
Inspect carcass- if generalized (more than 25 cysts observed in muscles across carcass), total rejection is required (cat 2 by-product).

210
Q

Bovine lungs with Dictyocaulus viviparous, what category?

A

Cat 3, not zoonotic and low risk

211
Q

Ascites is a common post mortem rejection reason at post mortem inspection in broiler. Sometimes birds die from ascites before that (at transport or in the lairage). What is the pathophysiology of ascites in this case?

A

Respiratory distress -> Heart insufficiency -> (right) heart failure -> increase of hydrostatic pressure inside circulatory system -> leakage of fluid inside abdominal cavity

212
Q

Chicken liver with necrotic foci, what happens to the carcass?

A

If this the only abnormality detected on this carcass, the liver is rejected and the rest of the carcass can go for human consumption

213
Q

Chicken with pericarditis, what category?

A

If no other lesions are detected the hearts are rejected and the carcass and other offal can go for human consumption. If there are more lesions the carcass and offal are rejected as cat.2 by products. One exception where the birds come from a Salmonella positive flock: in that case everything is rejected

214
Q

Which pathogens are commonly associated with generalized septic disease, commonly expressed with peritonitis, in broilers?

A

The two main pathogens linked to septicemia and peritonitis (which can be expressed in the form of pericarditis or peri-hepatitis in birds) areSalmonellaandE. coli(colibacillosis).

215
Q

Which category does an emaciated chicken go in?

A

Cat 2- possibility of infectious disease

216
Q

Fatty liver in sheep, what category?

A

It is not fit for human consumption due to aesthetical reasons. However, there would be no risks for human consumption. Local rejection of the affected organ (Cat 3- Low Risk Material). It can go for pet food. The rest of the carcass is usually normal at post-mortem inspection.

217
Q

Ovine heart with several parasitic cysts on surface, what is the likely cause and category?

A

These cysts are caused by the larval stage of Taenia ovis (Cysticercus ovis). The final host is the dog. It is not zoonotic.
local rejection of the heart as Category 2 (High risk material) as infectious to other animals (dogs).
Inspect carcass- if generalized (more than 25 cysts observed in muscles across carcass), total rejection is required (cat 2 by-product).

218
Q

Bovine lungs with Dictyocaulus viviparous, what category?

A

Cat 3, not zoonotic and low risk

219
Q

Ascites is a common post mortem rejection reason at post mortem inspection in broiler. Sometimes birds die from ascites before that (at transport or in the lairage). What is the pathophysiology of ascites in this case?

A

Respiratory distress -> Heart insufficiency -> (right) heart failure -> increase of hydrostatic pressure inside circulatory system -> leakage of fluid inside abdominal cavity

220
Q

Chicken liver with necrotic foci, what happens to the carcass?

A

If this the only abnormality detected on this carcass, the liver is rejected and the rest of the carcass can go for human consumption

221
Q

Chicken with pericarditis, what category?

A

If no other lesions are detected the hearts are rejected and the carcass and other offal can go for human consumption. If there are more lesions the carcass and offal are rejected as cat.2 by products. One exception where the birds come from a Salmonella positive flock: in that case everything is rejected

222
Q

Which pathogens are commonly associated with generalized septic disease, commonly expressed with peritonitis, in broilers?

A

The two main pathogens linked to septicemia and peritonitis (which can be expressed in the form of pericarditis or peri-hepatitis in birds) areSalmonellaandE. coli(colibacillosis).

223
Q

Which category does an emaciated chicken go in?

A

Cat 2- possibility of infectious disease

224
Q

What are the only two toxicants that are legal in the UK?

A

Alpha chloralose

Anticoagulants (1st and 2nd generation)

4th Year Exams (8 decks)

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