PMP Exam Quiz Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Another name for functional managers

A

Resource managers

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2
Q

Scrum teams are made up of people from ____________________ functional groups.

A

different

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3
Q

When there is a member of a scrum team performing poorly, who should address the issue first?

A

The team member’s teammates

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4
Q

When there is a member of a scrum team performing poorly, who should address the issue if the teammates can’t improve the situation?

A

The Scrum Master

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5
Q

When there is a member of a scrum team performing poorly, who should address the issue if the teammates and the Scrum Master can’t improve the situation?

A

The Resource/Functional manager

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6
Q

Component teams can usually only deliver a component of a ________________.

A

feature

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7
Q

What is variable when using release trains?

A

Scope

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8
Q

How often is scrum of scrums held?

A

A few times a week

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9
Q

Based on the work of Leffingwell, what two aspects of a release train are fixed?

A

Dates and Scope

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10
Q

In Scrum, what is the name given to a member of the component team who collects changes the feature teams need to make within the components?

A

A harvester

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11
Q

In Scrum, what is the name given to a member of the component team who spreads among feature teams the knowledge of the component areas to help better promote shared code ownership?

A

A pollinator

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12
Q

What is generally the best blend of feature teams and component teams?

A

Mostly feature teams with a few component teams where required or needed.

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13
Q

What is the highest level of planning for a project?

A

Strategy

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14
Q

What is the output of portfolio planning?

A

Portfolio backlog

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15
Q

One way to visualize a release is to draw a line in the ___________.

A

Product backlog (Essential Scrum, Chap. 15, Fig. 15.3)

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16
Q

When does sprint planning occur?

A

The beginning of each sprint

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17
Q

When are decisions made in an Agile project?

A

The last responsible moment

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18
Q

When are decisions made during a Predictive project?

A

Up front/Early on

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19
Q

After product ideation has occurred, an idea must then do what?

A

Pass through the strategic filter

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20
Q

Name the 5 individuals or groups who attend a sprint review.

A

1) Development team
2) Scrum Master
3) Product owner
4) Internal stakeholders
5) External stakeholders

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21
Q

A general rule is that the duration of a sprint review should be how many hours for each week of a sprint?

A

One (ex. A two-week sprint will have a two-hour sprint review)

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22
Q

A general rule is that the duration of a sprint planning meeting should be how many hours for each week of a sprint?

A

Two (ex. A two week sprint will have a four-hour sprint planning meeting)

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23
Q

When should the product owner approve product backlog items?

A

As product backlog items are completed

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24
Q

Items reviewed at a sprint review must have met this threshold?

A

The definition of done

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25
Q

Why might a project’s sprint reviews be poorly attended?

A

The project is a lower priority than an organization’s other projects

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26
Q

What is the primary purpose of the sprint review?

A

To provide feedback to the Scrum team.

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27
Q

Principle Three of the Agile Manifesto states that a project team should deliver working products (software) _________.

A

frequently

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28
Q

Principle Eight of the Agile Manifesto states that sustainable development means that developers can continue _________________.

A

the pace indefinitely

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29
Q

_____________ and ___________ are considered subset of Lean.

A

Agile and Kanban

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30
Q

Agile and Kanban are considered subsets of ___________.

A

Lean

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31
Q

A project manager leading a project with low requirements uncertainty and a low technical degree of uncertainty will most likely use this type of development life cycle.

A

Predictive

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32
Q

A project manager leading a project with little opportunity for interim deliverables or prototypes will most likely use this type of development life cycle.

A

Predictive

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33
Q

What development life cycle allows a project team to revisit and improve unfinished work?

A

Iterative

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34
Q

What development life cycle provides versions of a product that are usable with more functionality added with successive versions?

A

Incremental

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35
Q

For which development life cycle approach is the primary goal often focused on the correctness of the solution?

A

Iterative

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36
Q

For which development life cycle approach is the primary goal often focused on speed?

A

Incremental

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37
Q

For which development life cycle approach is the primary goal to satisfy the customer through early and continuous delivery of valuable software and obtaining feedback?

A

Agile

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38
Q

A blended development life cycle may include what types of approach?

A

Scrum, Kanban, and XP

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39
Q

When a project team working in sprints are not colocated, what is a means for facilitating team members’ engagement?

A

Fishbowl window

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40
Q

A software development approach where a whole team works on the same item at the same time at the same work station.

A

Mobbing

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41
Q

What percentage of productivity do developers lose when they task switch?

A

20-40%

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42
Q

What is another phrase for “programming out loud”?

A

Paired programming

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43
Q

Servant leadership approaches project work in what three-P order?

A

1) Purpose
2) People
3) Process

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44
Q

What are the places called where team members have a place to think?

A

Caves

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45
Q

What are the places called where team members collaborate?

A

Commons

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46
Q

What does a typical burnup chart show?

A

Story points done

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47
Q

A general rule is that the duration of a backlog refinement should be how many hours for each week of a sprint?

A

One

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48
Q

____________ is a social contract for the project team.

A

A team charter

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49
Q

What is the time from when work is added to a queue until the work starts?

A

Response time

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50
Q

What is it called when a project looks like it’s on track from those observing the project, but looks like it is not from those who are working on the project?

A

A watermelon (green on the outside, red on the inside)

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51
Q

What is an example of qualitative data?

A

People’s feelings

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52
Q

What term is used to describe the average number of stories a team completes during each iteration?

A

Velocity

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53
Q

What is a task designed to answer a question or gather information, rather than produce a product?

A

A spike

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54
Q

An agile team will choose to include ________ in their sprint to support or prepare for future work if that work requires more information before it can be started.

A

A spike

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55
Q

Does a sprint retrospective come before or after a sprint review and demo?

A

After

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56
Q

In Agile, Earned Value (EV) is based on _______________.

A

Finished features

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57
Q

This refers to the alternative course of action a party will pursue if negotiation fails to reach a satisfactory agreement.

A

BATNA: Best Alternative to a Negotiated Agreement

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58
Q

This term represents a range or overlap between a negotiating team’s walkaway point and a vendor’s walkaway point.

A

ZOPA: Zone of Possible Agreement

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59
Q

The creation of this stakeholder-related document helps a project manager evaluate the engagement needs of stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern about a project’s outcomes.

A

Power/Interest grid

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60
Q

_______________ is the process of guiding a group of people to reach a common goal.

A

Facilitation

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61
Q

________________ is the process of organizing and running a meeting.

A

Meeting management

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62
Q

PMI’s best practices suggest that project managers should evaluate and classify stakeholders based on these three factors with regard to a project.

A

1) Interest
2) Influence
3) Impact

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63
Q

In general, it is preferred that a project manager meets with stakeholders like this first.

A

Individually

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64
Q

This exercise aims to create a shared understanding of a product vision by having participants create a representation of the final product.

A

A product box exercise

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65
Q

This is a process of comparing an organization’s performance or practices to those of its peers or competitors to identify best practices, improve performance, and achieve greater efficiency.

A

Benchmarking

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66
Q

This is a qualitative research method used in project management to gather insights and opinions from project stakeholders.

A

Focus groups

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67
Q

_______________ define the specific conditions that must be met for a user story or feature to be considered complete from a stakeholder or user perspective.

A

Acceptance criteria

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68
Q

This is a structured communication process used to gather expert opinions and build consensus on a specific topic.

A

The Delphi technique

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69
Q

What is another name for the 80/20 rule, suggesting that 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes?

A

The Pareto Principle

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70
Q

A SWOT analysis is a strategic planning tool used to identify these four things about an organization.

A

1) Strengths
2) Weaknesses
3) Opportunities
4) Threats

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71
Q

What is a key element of the Delphi technique that makes it effective among a disparate group of people?

A

Anonymity

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72
Q

No change can be implemented into a project without first doing these 2 things.

A

1) Submitting a change request
2) Getting approval from the Change Control Board (CCB)

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73
Q

When a team has completed all project activities and obtained confirmation and validation that the final product meeting the customer’s acceptance criteria, what is the project manager’s next step?

A

Archive project documents and identify lessons learned

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74
Q

What does SPI stand for?

A

Schedule Performance Index

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75
Q

What does CPI stand for?

A

Cost Performance Index

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76
Q

What does an SPI value greater than 1 (>1) mean?

A

That a project is ahead of schedule.

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77
Q

What does an CPI value greater than 1 (>1) mean?

A

That a project is under budget.

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78
Q

What does an SPI value lesser than 1 (<1) mean?

A

That a project is behind schedule.

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79
Q

What does an CPI value lesser than 1 (<1) mean?

A

That a project is over budget.

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80
Q

Which backlog does the Product Owner manage and prioritize?

A

Product backlog

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81
Q

This risk response strategy is used when a project team utilizes an outside vendor to mitigate risk?

A

Transfer

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82
Q

What is the best means of communication for a project team as well as others involved in a project like stakeholders?

A

Face-to-face conversations

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83
Q

___________ action is the action taken to get back on the project baseline.

A

Corrective

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84
Q

_______________ action is action taken to stay on the baseline.

A

Preventive

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85
Q

What a change request is made during a project, what is the first thing to be done?

A

Evaluate the change (regardless of who it came from)

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86
Q

Who may request changes on a project?

A

Any stakeholder involved with the project

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87
Q

A formal and standardized way of communicating resource requirements, project details, and evaluation criteria to potential suppliers.

A

Request for Proposal (RFP)

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88
Q

This contract type is ideal when a procurement materials for a project whose scope is not well defined or subject to frequent changes.

A

Cost-reimbursable contract

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89
Q

This type of contract is often used for staff augmentation, subject matter expertise, or other outside support.

A

Time and materials contract

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90
Q

A means of collecting information from potential suppliers before initiating a bid process.

A

Request for information

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91
Q

This type of contract is used when there is a clear understanding of the product, service, or result, and all specifications are well-defined.

A

Fixed-price contract

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92
Q

What project lifecycle approach allows feedback for unfinished work to improve and modify that work?

A

Iterative

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93
Q

What project lifecycle approach provides finished deliverables throughout the project that the customer may be able to use immediately?

A

Incremental

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94
Q

What project lifecycle approach is both iterative and incremental and used to refine work items and deliver frequently?

A

Adaptive or Agile

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95
Q

What project lifecycle approach is more traditional with the bulk of planning occurring upfront, then executing in a single pass, often as a sequential process?

A

Predictive or Waterfall

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96
Q

________________ refer to specific limits or boundaries established for particular aspects of the project.

A

Thresholds

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97
Q

What are four types of thresholds that might be applied to a project?

A

1) Cost
2) Quality
3) Risk
4) Escalation

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98
Q

The ___________ model is a tool that is used to analyze the external factors that could impact a project.

A

PESTEL

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99
Q

The __________ model helps to identify potential risks and opportunities that could impact a project.

A

PESTEL

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100
Q

What type of analysis will help to assess how changes in the external environment might impact project scope, positively or negatively?

A

SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats)

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101
Q

What does SWOT stand for?

A

Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats

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102
Q

What document described the operating guidelines for a team, including how to deal with team conflict?

A

The team charter

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103
Q

These types of tools are appropriate for quick questions with virtual teams.

A

Chat tools

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104
Q

What would be an effective tool for helping teams build relationships and stay engaged with each other when teams are spread across multiple locations?

A

Periodic in-person meetings or team retreats

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105
Q

This is a project management tool that helps to visualize workflow, limit work in progress, manage the flow of work, enhance collaboration and communication, and encourage continuous improvement.

A

A Kanban board

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106
Q

This detailed list regarding project team behavior should be included in the team charter.

A

Ground rules

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107
Q

Team ground rules as detailed in the team charter should be reviewed in this meeting.

A

The kickoff meeting

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108
Q

These are high-level guidelines that apply to an entire organization.

A

Organizational principles

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109
Q

What organizational principle should a project manager prioritize to address challenges when teams struggle with communication, collaboration, and accountability?

A

Collaboration

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110
Q

What is a means by which a stakeholder can gain better understanding of the technical aspects of a project?

A

Mentoring

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111
Q

What leadership style demonstrates a commitment to putting others first?

A

Servant leader

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112
Q

In what type of meeting should feedback on team members’ performance usually be provided?

A

One-on-one

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113
Q

This document, which is an element of the project management plan, documents the strategies that will be used to manage stakeholder engagement throughout a project’s lifecycle.

A

Stakeholder engagement plan

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114
Q

What document is the output of stakeholder analysis, documenting information about each stakeholder, including name, role, interests, expectations, level of influence, and potential impact.

A

Stakeholder register

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115
Q

This tool/technique involves identifying and categorizing stakeholders based on their level of interest and influence or other criteria in the project.

A

Stakeholder analysis

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116
Q

Mentoring needs to be ______________, as it contributes to the success of the mentor-mentee relationship and overall growth and development of the mentee.

A

consistent

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117
Q

This term gained prominent when Goleman published a book on the topic in 1995.

A

Emotional intelligence

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118
Q

Emotional intelligence gained prominence in 1995 when this psychologist published a book on the topic.

A

Daniel Goleman

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119
Q

Individuals on agile teams who have a primary area of expertise but also possess a broad range of skills in other areas.

A

Generalized specialists

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120
Q

Another word for team members who are generalized specialists.

A

T-shapes OR Cross-functional

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121
Q

What types of teams are generalized specialists often associated with?

A

Self-organized teams

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122
Q

Which stakeholder classification model describes classes of stakeholders based on power, urgency, and legitimacy?

A

Salience model

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123
Q

Often, this is an indicator that one or more key stakeholders was not involved from early in the project.

A

A higher than expected number of change orders

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124
Q

A project charter is issued by this individual.

A

The project sponsor

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125
Q

The project charter should identify these two project team members.

A

1) The project sponsor
2) The project manager

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126
Q

This method involves including stakeholders in project activities.

A

Co-creation

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127
Q

An issue is a problem that has happened, requiring formal analysis and resolution. Issues are associated with which project management approach?

A

Predictive

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128
Q

An impediment is something blocking progress right now, requiring quick and flexible action to overcome. Impediments are associated with which project management approach?

A

Agile

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129
Q

This is a potential problem that might occur in the future during a project.

A

A risk

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130
Q

This is a problem that has already occurred during a project.

A

An issue

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131
Q

This is knowledge that is hard to put into words.

A

Tacit

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132
Q

This is knowledge that can be easily communicated or written down.

A

Explicit

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133
Q

This is vital to continuing project progress when a project team member departs the team or the organization.

A

Knowledge transfer

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134
Q

Of the standard five steps of a knowledge transfer lifecycle, which step is often the one least likely to be in place in an organization?

A

Assessing the benefits of the transferred knowledge

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135
Q

What is the best way to develop a comprehensive knowledge transfer plan that ensures all aspects of knowledge transfer are considered and aligned with the project’s needs?

A

Collaboratively

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136
Q

What is the ultimate measure of a project’s success?

A

Delivering value

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137
Q

What is the last thing to do on a project?

A

Release resources

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138
Q

This is fostered by encouraging project team members to reflect on their decision-making processes, learn from their experiences, and improve their problem-solving skills.

A

Metacognition

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139
Q

These two activities provide structured opportunities for team members to develop metacognitive skills.

A

1) Regular retrospectives
2) Lessons learned sessions

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140
Q

This type of pattern for decision making encourages a project team to generate multiple ideas then use a structured evaluation process to narrow down the options.

A

Diverge/converge pattern

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141
Q

What development approach anticipates that requirements may change as user feedback is gathered?

A

Iterative

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142
Q

This development approach is more appropriate when the requirements are well-defined, and the project can be divided into smaller, manageable pieces that are delivered sequentially.

A

Incremental

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143
Q

This type of delivery involves a flexible approach to delivering a product in small, frequent increments.

A

Continuous delivery

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144
Q

This development approach balances the need for structure and flexibility in an innovative project.

A

Hybrid

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145
Q

This development approach is more appropriate for projects where changes are difficult and costly, so would benefit from gathering and finalizing all requirements up front, and ensuring the project scope is well-defined early on.

A

Predictive

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146
Q

What factors make up the triple bottom line?

A

Social, environmental, and financial impacts

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147
Q

_______________ consists of social, environmental, and financial impacts of a project.

A

Triple bottom line

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148
Q

What are the traditional triple constraints of project management?

A

Time, cost, and scope

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149
Q

_______________ refers to the work (tasks, activities, and resources) needed to create an end product.

A

Project scope

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150
Q

__________________ refers to the features, functions, and characteristics of the end product itself.

A

Product scope

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151
Q

Part of the estimation process, this refers to the mathematical difference between the largest and smallest value.

A

Range

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152
Q

Part of the estimation process, this represents the difference between the estimate and the actual value.

A

Accuracy

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153
Q

Part of the estimation process, this refers to the degree of consistency in repeated measurements.

A

Precision

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154
Q

Part of the estimation process, this refers to the likelihood that an estimate will fall within a specified range.

A

Confidence

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155
Q

These types of estimates are based on specific information and use actual numbers such as hours or days.

A

Absolute estimates

156
Q

These types of estimates compare the size and complexity of items, and only have meaning within a given context.

A

Relative estimates

157
Q

This is a technique used for relative estimating in Agile methodologies.

A

Planning Poker

158
Q

This action, taken to shorten a project schedule, involves adding resources such as labor, equipment, or materials to critical path tasks to shorten project duration.

A

Crashing

159
Q

This action, taken to shorten a project schedule, rearranges tasks to be done concurrently rather than sequentially to save time.

A

Fast tracking

160
Q

This factor, which may affect the project timeline, allow activities to start before the completion of a predecessor activity.

A

Leads

161
Q

This factor, which may affect the project timeline, introduce a delay between activities.

A

Lags

162
Q

This type of project activities have a duration that depends on the amount of resources assigned.

A

Effort-driven activities

163
Q

This type of project activities have a predetermined duration regardless of resources.

A

Fixed-duration activities

164
Q

This type of communication encourages a co-located environment where team members can overhear and absorb information from ongoing discussions without actively participating.

A

Osmotic communication

165
Q

Prioritizing key performance indicators that are easy to measure but not relevant to the project’s objectives is a common example of this.

A

Measurement pitfall

166
Q

This measurement pitfall occurs when a person interprets data or information in a way that supports their preconceived beliefs, disregarding evidence that contradicts those beliefs.

A

Confirmation bias

167
Q

A project manager assuming that an increase in productivity is directly caused by a new process, without considering other potential contributing factors is an example of which measurement pitfall?

A

Correlation versus causation

168
Q

A project manager frequently emphasizing a team’s shortcomings without recognizing their achievements is an example of which measurement pitfall?

A

Demoralization

169
Q

A project manager tracking the number of social media followers to gauge the success of a software development project is an illustration of which measurement pitfall?

A

Vanity metric

170
Q

A project team’s productivity increasing when its members become aware they are being closely monitored, which leads to inaccurate conclusions about the effectiveness of a new process is an example of which measurement pitfall?

A

The Hawthorne effect

171
Q

A project manager using a metric that measures the number of lines of code written to evaluate the quality of a software development project is an example of which measurement pitfall?

A

Misusing metrics

172
Q

This technique, also known as the 80/20 rule, is used to prioritize tasks or problems based on their impact or frequency.

A

Pareto Analysis

173
Q

This technique is used to track, measure, and forecast project performance by comparing planned versus actual progress.

A

Earned Value Management (EVM)

174
Q

This risk analysis technique is used to model the probability of different outcomes in a project or decision-making process by running multiple simulations with random variables.

A

Monte Carlo Simulation

175
Q

In the context of requirements gathering, this technique can help project teams and stakeholders identify, discuss, and document various requirements, ensuring all perspective are considered and nothing is overlooked.

A

Brainstorming

176
Q

These are visual representations of a product or system that can help clients better understand and articulate their requirements, which allows them to give feedback, identify gaps, and refine their requirements iteratively.

A

Storyboards and/or prototypes

177
Q

This is a one-page visual representation of a business model, specifically designed for start-ups and entrepreneurs following the Lean Start-up methodology.

A

The Lean Canvas

178
Q

This should list the top 3 problems and top 3 solutions to help a team understand and communicate their business model effectively.

A

The Lean Canvas

179
Q

This is a project management technique used to identify the longest sequence of tasks in a project, determining the shortest possible project duration.

A

Critical path analysis

180
Q

This is a problem-solving technique used to identify the underlying causes of issues or defects in a system or process.

A

Root cause analysis

181
Q

This element of the Lean Canvas refers to a unique, hard-to-replicate, and sustainable competitive edge that sets the company or its product apart from its competitors.

A

The Unfair Advantage

182
Q

This is a project management technique used to create project schedule networks, illustrating the sequence of activities and their dependencies.

A

Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)

183
Q

This is a project management technique used to compare an organization’s processes, products, or services against those of other organizations, typically industry leaders.

A

Benchmarking

184
Q

This is a project management technique used to break down project scope into smaller, more manageable components.

A

Scope decomposition

185
Q

This is a project management technique used to shorten the project schedule without affecting the project scope.

A

Schedule compression

186
Q

This is a planning technique that involves planning in incremental stages, with more detail added as the project progresses and more information becomes available.

A

Rolling wave planning

187
Q

These high-level requirements descriptions allow the development team to engage with stakeholders and collaborate on refining the details and gathering more information as a project progresses (aka, they are meant to be promise for a conversation between a development team and stakeholders).

A

User stories

188
Q

These are the specific conditions that a specific user story or feature must meet to be accepted by stakeholders.

A

Acceptance criteria

189
Q

This is a shared understanding of when a user story is fully implemented, tested, and potentially releasable.

A

Definition of Done

190
Q

This refers to the criteria that a user story or feature must meet (e.g., well-formed, clear, actionable, with sufficient details and acceptance criteria) before it can be included in a sprint backlog and worked on by the team.

A

Definition of Ready

191
Q

In a stable environment, it is crucial to have this process in place to avoid scope creep and ensure the project stays on track when additional features and functionalities not initially agreed upon are requested by stakeholders.

A

Change control process

192
Q

These two terms refer to changes in a project’s scope, objectives, or requirements due to an uncertain and rapidly changing environment.

A

1) Moving targets of completion
2) Done drift

193
Q

This term refers to ongoing effort to enhance processes, products, or services by identifying and implementing incremental improvements.

A

Continuous improvement

194
Q

An example of this type of knowledge is documentation like written reports.

A

Explicit knowledge

195
Q

A method for this type of knowledge transfer is on-the-job training.

A

Tacit knowledge

196
Q

This mapping exercise typically consists of creating a current state map and a future state map.

A

A value stream mapping exercise

197
Q

These activities are the steps in a process that directly contribute to the final product or service and are valued enough by the customer that customers are willing to pay for them.

A

Value-adding activities

198
Q

These activities do not directly contribute to a final product or services and do not have value to the customer.

A

Non-value-adding activities

199
Q

Defects, Overproduction, Waiting, Unused Talent, Transportation, Inventory, Motion, and Extra-processing are identified as these in LEAN management.

A

Wastes

200
Q

Lean management identifies 8 types of waste reflected in what acronym?

A

DOWNTIME

201
Q

Which bid document should a project manager use if s/he is looking for a vendor to provide a solution to a complex problem in which technical expertise and innovative approaches are essential?

A

Request for proposal

202
Q

This bid document is used to gather general information about the services and capabilities of potential vendors.

A

Request for information

203
Q

This is a strategy that breaks down a complex system into smaller, more manageable units that can be worked on independently, allowing for better control and oversight.

A

Decoupling

204
Q

These types of budget reserves are for known unknowns of a project.

A

Contingency reserves

205
Q

These types of budget reserves are for unknown unknowns of a project.

A

Management reserves

206
Q

It is beneficial to have sufficient budget contingency and management reserves for these types of projects.

A

Projects in volatile environments

207
Q

Which meeting identifies a high level plan for for releasing or transitioning a product, deliverable, or increment of value?

A

Release planning

208
Q

Planning poker, a collaborative estimate technique used in Agile, particularly in Scrum, to determine the relative effort or complexity of user stories or backlog items, is a variation on this technique.

A

Wideband Delphi

209
Q

This is a collaborative estimate technique used in Agile, particularly in Scrum, to determine the relative effort or complexity of user stories or backlog items and is a variation on the Wideband Delphi technique.

A

Planning Poker

210
Q

This is a method used to classify or group items based on their similarities or likenesses.

A

Affinity grouping

211
Q

This Lean technique is used to analyze and visualize the flow of materials, information, and activities required to deliver a product to customer, and provides a holistic view for the entire effort, including waste, bottlenecks, and improvement opportunities.

A

Value stream mapping

212
Q

This analysis technique is used in quantitative risk analysis to assess the impact of varying specific factors or variables on project outcomes.

A

Sensitivity analysis

213
Q

What method ensures that constraints and assumptions are integrated into project plans?

A

Assumption and constraint analysis

214
Q

What is the primary purpose of value stream mapping?

A

To identify and eliminate waste in the process

215
Q

The purpose of this is to visualize the relationships between variables and their impacts on a project.

A

Influence diagram

216
Q

Internal rate of return; earned value method; net present value; cost-benefit analysis; payback period; and return on investment are commonly used to justify this.

A

The start of a project

217
Q

What technique is used to estimate the cost or duration of a project by comparing it to a similar project completed in the past?

A

Relative estimating

218
Q

Name a diagramming and calculation method for evaluating the implications of a chain of multiple options in the presence of uncertainty.

A

Decision tree analysis

219
Q

This method looks at measures associated with scope, schedule, and cost to determine the schedule and cost performance on a project.

A

Earned value method

220
Q

_________________ is the esimated value of an outcome expressed in monetary terms, with the equation being probability that the even will occur x the economic impact should the even occur.

A

Expected monetary value

221
Q

Which methods use the opinions and judgments of SMEs to create estimates or predictions of future conditions and events?

A

Qualitative forecasting methods

222
Q

Which methods use the models of past performance to predict future performance?

A

Quantitative forecasting methods

223
Q

Which method is a graphical representation of situations showing causal influence, time ordering of events, and other relationships between variables and outcomes?

A

Influence diagram

224
Q

Which method is a tool used to evaluate the total environmental impact of a product, process, or system?

A

Life cycle assessment

225
Q

Which method is an analytical technique where a series of input variables are examined in relation to their corresponding output results in order to develop a mathematical or statistical relationship?

A

Regression analysis

226
Q

This is the best financial metric to evaluate the profitability of a project over time.

A

Net present value (NPV)

227
Q

Which method uses models to show the combined effect of uncertainties in order to evaluate their potential impact on project objectives?

A

Simulations

228
Q

What method involves systematically gathering and analyzing quantitative and qualitative information about project stakeholders to determine whose interest should be taken into account throughout a project?

A

Stakeholder analysis

229
Q

Which method estimates an activity based on one past activity or project?

A

Analogous estimating

230
Q

Which strategic planning method serves as a visual roadmap for an organization during product development?

A

Impact mapping

231
Q

What does MoSCoW stand for?

A

Must have, should have, could have, won’t have

232
Q

What is MoSCoW an example of?

A

Prioritization schema

233
Q

This chart shows how many story points are being completed over time and also contains a line to represent overall scope, thus telling when scope has been added to removed.

A

Burnup chart

234
Q

This chart shows how much work (i.e., story points) have been completed versus the project plan.

A

Burndown chart

235
Q

This document describes why a project exists.

A

Project mission

236
Q

This conflict resolution strategy works well when there is ample time and trust among participants.

A

Collaborating

237
Q

This conflict resolution strategy works well when both parties have high confidence in each other’s problem-solving ability.

A

Confronting

238
Q

This conflict resolution strategy works well when problems might solve themselves over time or in a no-win scenario.

A

Withdrawal/Avoiding

239
Q

This conflict resolution strategy tends to be used more when there is an immediate need to resolve a conflict, and one party has more power.

A

Forcing

240
Q

This system is used to ensure that the right organization or person is doing the right work at the right time and in the right sequence.

A

Work authorization system

241
Q

This process analysis technique focuses on eliminating waste in a process.

A

LEAN

242
Q

This process analysis technique focuses on reducing variability and improving quality.

A

Six Sigma

243
Q

Dependency determination and precedence diagramming are associated with sequencing activities in the construction of this document.

A

A schedule

244
Q

This document typically focuses on a shorter timeframe; it’s more tactical than the strategic product roadmap document.

A

Release plan

245
Q

This document provides a high-level visual summary that maps out the vision and direction of a product offering over time.

A

Product roadmap

246
Q

These types of resources have deep knowledge and expertise in a specific discipline.

A

I-shaped people

247
Q

These types of resources have deep knowledge and expertise in a specific discipline as well as possessing a broader set of skills across multiple disciplines.

A

T-shaped people

248
Q

This type of estimating involves estimating individual tasks or work packages in detail and then aggregating these estimates to come up with a total. This method provides a details analysis, making it more accurate and beneficial for tasks that are unique or haven’t been done before.

A

Bottom-up estimating

249
Q

This is delivered when customers/end users/beneficiaries utilize project benefits.

A

Value

250
Q

_______________ indicators help project managers foresee potential issues while ________________ indicators provide a measure of past performance.

A

Leading; lagging

251
Q

This type of indicator cannot be measured numerically; rather, it is often descriptive or an opinion.

A

Qualitative

252
Q

In this type of system, items are only produced in response to demand.

A

Pull system

253
Q

In this type of system, items are produced based on future (aka, forecasted) demand rather than actual demand.

A

Push system

254
Q

In a pull system, production is driven by __________________ while in a push system, production is driven by __________________.

A

actual demand; prediction or forecasts

255
Q

This model is used to classify stakeholders based on power, urgency, and legitimacy.

A

Salience model

256
Q

What are the three attributes used to classify stakeholders in a Salience Model?

A

Power, Urgency, Legitimacy

257
Q

This may be required when a person is able to complete a task on time but refuses to do so.

A

Counseling

258
Q

This exercise is usually utilized for costs, resources, effort, and durations.

A

Project estimating

259
Q

________________ is a thinking strategy to explain a process, framework, or phenomenon.

A

Model

260
Q

What are the five management process groups?

A

1) Initiating
2) Planning
3) Executing
4) Monitoring and controlling
5) Closing

261
Q

Which management style most likely would be adopted for a team that consists of inexperienced, poorly self-motivated junior members who require close supervision?

A

Theory X

262
Q

When one party adopts a martyr perspective, willingly choosing to lose so that others can win, it often results in this type of outcome.

A

Win-lose

263
Q

The OSCAR coaching model is built around these five contributing factors or sections.

A

1) Outcome
2) Situation
3) Choices
4) Actions
5) Review

264
Q

In product development, this is the difference between the intention of the users and what the developed product (ex. system) allows users to do/how well it supports the user actions.

A

Gulf of execution

265
Q

In product development, this is the difficulty of assessing the state of a product (ex. system) and how well the artifact supports the discovery and interpretation of that state.

A

Gulf of evaluation

266
Q

If a system does not present itself in a way that lets the user derive the sequence of actions that will lead an an intended goal or system state, this is large.

A

Gulf of evaluation

267
Q

When a system provides information about its state in a form that is easy to get, is easy to interpret, and matches the way the person thinks of the system, this is small.

A

Gulf of execution

268
Q

What is a mnemonic device for Theory X and Theory Y?

A

1) X: Stick figure crossing his arms (aka, person refusing to work)
2) Y: Stick figure \o/ (aka, person cheering opportunity to work)

269
Q

This theory is based on negative assumptions regarding the typical worker.

A

Theory X

270
Q

This theory is based on positive assumptions regarding the typical worker.

A

Theory Y

271
Q

This theory focuses on increasing employee loyalty to a company by providing a job for life with a strong focus on the well-being of the employee, both on and off the job.

A

Theory Z of Ouchi

272
Q

This motivation theory, also known by this name) states that there are certain factors in the workplace that cause job satisfaction while a separate set of factors cause dissatisfaction, all of which act independently of each other.

A

Two-factor theory (aka, Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory)

273
Q

In two-factor/Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory, these give positive satisfaction, arising from intrinsic conditions of the job itself, such as recognition, achievement, or personal growth.

A

Motivators

274
Q

In two-factor/Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory, these do not give positive satisfaction or lead to higher motivation, though dissatisfaction results from their absence.

A

Hygiene factors

275
Q

Challenging work, recognition for one’s achievement, responsibility, opportunity to do something meaningful, involvement in decision making, sense of importance to an organization are examples of what in two-factor/Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory.

A

Motivators

276
Q

Status, job security, salary, fringe benefits, work conditions, good pay, paid insurance, vacations are examples of what in two-factor/Herzberg’s motivation-hygiene theory.

A

Hygiene factors

277
Q

This conflict style is characterized by joking, changing the topic, or even denying that a problem exists, and is used when an individual has withdrawn in dealing with the other party, when one is uncomfortable with conflict, or due to cultural contexts.

A

Avoidance

278
Q

This conflict style is characterized by a high level of concern for others and a low level of concern for oneself.

A

Accommodating

279
Q

This conflict style maximizes individual assertiveness (i.e., concern for self) and minimizes empathy (i.e., concern for others).

A

Competitive/Forcing

280
Q

This conflict style is typical of individuals who possess an intermediate level of concern for both personal and others’ outcomes.

A

Conciliation/Compromising

281
Q

This conflict style is characterized by an active concern for both pro-social and pro-self behavior, and is typically used when an individual has elevated interests in their own outcomes as well as in the outcomes of others.

A

Cooperation/Collaboration

282
Q

This conflict resolution approach may be appropriate when someone needs to stand up for his/her own rights, resist aggression and pressure. It may be also considered a suitable option when a quick resolution is required and using force is justified, and as a very last resort to resolve a long-lasting conflict.

A

Forcing

283
Q

This conflict resolution approach may be appropriate when consensus and commitment of other parties is important.

A

Collaborating/Win-win

284
Q

This conflict resolution approach may be appropriate when the goals are moderately important and not worth the use of more assertive or more involving approaches.

A

Compromising

285
Q

This conflict resolution approach may be appropriate when it is not the right time or place to confront the issue, when more time is needed to think and collect information before acting or when not responding may bring still some winnings for at least some of the involves parties.

A

Withdrawing

286
Q

This conflict resolution approach may be appropriate when someone accepts that s/he is wrong and furthermore there are no other possible options than continuing an unworthy competing-pushing situation.

A

Smoothing

287
Q

This motivation theory is often visualized as a pyramid in which the more basic needs at the bottom form the foundation for higher needs.

A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

288
Q

What are the five building blocks of successful change for an individual according to the Prosci ADKAR Model?

A

1) Awareness of the need for change
2) Desire to participate and support in the change
3) Knowledge of what to do during and after the change
4) Ability to realize or implement the change as required
5) Reinforcement to ensure the results of a change continue

289
Q

What are John Kotter’s 8-Step Process for Leading Change?

A

1) Create a Sense of Urgency
2) Build a Guiding Coalition
3) Form a Strategic Vision and Initiatives
4) Enlist a Volunteer Army
5) Enable Action by Removing Barriers
6) Generate Short-Term Wins
7) Sustain Acceleration
8) Institute Change

290
Q

Clear, complicated, complex, chaotic, and a center of confusion are the five contexts or domains of what decision-making framework?

A

Cynefin

291
Q

In the Cynefin framework, this domain represents known knowns.

A

Clear

292
Q

In the Cynefin framework, this domain represents known unknowns.

A

Complicated

293
Q

In the Cynefin framework, this domain represents unknown knowns.

A

Complex

294
Q

In the Cynefin framework, this domain indicates that cause and effect are unclear.

A

Chaotic

295
Q

In the Cynefin framework, this domain represents situations where there is no clarity about which of the other domains apply.

A

Confusion (aka, Disordered)

296
Q

Name Tuckman’s stages of group development.

A

Forming–storming–norming–performing(-adjourning)

297
Q

In risk management this refers to the funds set aside to guard an organization against possible defined risks.

A

Contingency reserve

298
Q

In risk management this refers to the cost or time reserve that is applied to manage the undefined risks.

A

Management reserve

299
Q

When a person has a high level of ____________________, s/he understands the business and how their behavior and actions may affect other business units.

A

Business acumen

300
Q

Relying on this is often the riskiest way of capturing knowledge.

A

Human memory

301
Q

What is the calculation formula for communication channels?

A

n(n-1)/2

302
Q

What is the estimation calculation to use unless stated differently during the PMP exam?

A

PERT estimate

303
Q

What is the PERT equation?

A

(P + 4ML + O)/6
where P=pessimistic number, ML=most likely number, O=optimistic number

304
Q

What types of diagram is useful for sensitivity analysis–comparing the relative importance of variables?

A

Tornado diagram

305
Q

If new stakeholders are identified during a project, what is the first document the project manager should update?

A

The stakeholder register

306
Q

What is a document that provides a high-level overview of a project’s goals, deliverables, and processes?

A

Project brief

307
Q

What is a document that provides a one-page visual summary of a project or a business, describing the value proposition, infrastructure, customers, and finances?

A

Business model canvas

308
Q

This project document guides a project team in managing and optimizing project schedules.

A

A schedule management plan

309
Q

This is the most formal of the “request for” documents and is used when a problem in the project does not have an easily determined solution.

A

Request for proposal

310
Q

In a cumulative flow diagram, cycle time represents what?

A

The time required to process an item

311
Q

This is an effective tool that details the physical components of a particular product, or system, under consideration.

A

Product breakdown structure

312
Q

This project document is used to collect data in real time at the location where the data is generated.

A

Check sheet

313
Q

This is the period of time that may elapse after a risk has occurred and before its impact has been detected.

A

Dormancy

314
Q

What data representation technique of plan quality management can be used to help identify where data integrity issues may occur?

A

Logical data model

315
Q

What is a likely tool for identifying risks?

A

Checklists

316
Q

This is the estimating formula that utilizes the PERT technique.

A

Beta distributions

317
Q

The purpose of this project document is to identify the potential impact or support each stakeholder could generate.

A

Stakeholder register

318
Q

This contract type generally more cost risk than the seller.

A

Cost plus fixed fee

319
Q

These types of charts are used to represent three dimensions of data.

A

Bubble chart

320
Q

The “acquire team process” in which project managers negotiate for the team members needed occurs during which process group?

A

Executing

321
Q

This document shows who is responsible for what activity during a project.

A

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

322
Q

On a responsibility assignment matrix (RAM), only one person should be _________________ for each activity.

A

accountable

323
Q

These diagrams help set priorities during a project.

A

Pareto

324
Q

In a project, ____________ time represents delay time–time needed for an activity to be completed.

A

lag

325
Q

In a project, ____________ time represents the amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the early start of any immediately following scheduled activity.

A

free float

326
Q

In a project, ____________ time represents the total amount of time that a scheduled activity may be delayed from its early start without delaying the project finish date.

A

float

327
Q

In a project, ____________ time represents a modification of a logical relationship that allows a successor activity to be accelerated.

A

lead

328
Q

A primary reason why ROI goals are often achieved earlier with agile than predictive project management.

A

Because higher value items are delivered first

329
Q

This project document should include items such as staff acquisition, timetables, release criteria, training needs, recognition and rewards, compliance, and safety.

A

Resource management plan

330
Q

Responsibility, respect, fairness, and honesty are the four core values of this document.

A

PMI Code of Ethics and Professional Conduct

331
Q

On most agile projects, _______________ and _________________ are fixed while _______________ is variable.

A

cost, time; scope

332
Q

This type of risk is one that emerges as a direct results of implementing a risk response.

A

Secondary risk

333
Q

This document shows both current and desired levels of stakeholder involvement on a project.

A

Stakeholder engagement matrix

334
Q

This document lists stakeholders as well as associated assessment and classification information.

A

Stakeholder register

335
Q

What is the PERT estimate formula?

A

(O + 4M + P)/6

336
Q

This chart helps to see over time if a process is stable and/or exhibits predictable performance.

A

Control chart

337
Q

This process maintains baseline integrity by ensuring that all approved changes are incorporated into a baseline.

A

Performing integrated change control

338
Q

This contract type ensures that the buyer has the lowest financial risk.

A

Firm fixed price

339
Q

This theory states that “work expands so as to fill the time available for completion” and can happen when project team members are expanding work to fill the time available (and often, using up float).

A

Parkinson’s Theory

340
Q

This is a project execution technique in which activities that would ordinarily prefer to be performed in series are allowed to overlap or be completed in parallel instead.

A

Fast-tracking

341
Q

This is a project execution technique in which resources are added to activities on the critical path.

A

Crashing

342
Q

This is the process of management procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, and making changes and corrections as needed.

A

Control procurements

343
Q

This process considers overall project risk.

A

Perform quantitative risk analysis process

344
Q

This type of planning is a technique of the define activities process in which near-term work is planned in detail and long-term work is planned at a higher level.

A

Rolling wave planning

345
Q

This type of power is derived from someone’s knowledge, not their position.

A

Expert power

346
Q

The performance measurement baseline is split into these two types of budget.

A

1) Distributed budget
2) Undistributed budget

347
Q

This is the process of performing the work defined in the project management plan, including all approved changes.

A

Direct and manage project work

348
Q

These people are responsible for setting priorities across projects and programs.

A

Portfolio managers

349
Q

Completion of project scope is measured against which three things?

A

1) Scope statement
2) Project management plan
3) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

350
Q

In this type of organization, a worker has only one supervisor.

A

Functional

351
Q

This type of delivery system involves producing, delivering, or purchasing only the materials required, in only the amounts required, and only when required.

A

Just-in-time

352
Q

During which process does the customer or sponsor test deliverables to determine if they plan to accept them?

A

Validate scope process

353
Q

During which process is testing done to determine if deliverables are built correctly?

A

Control quality process

354
Q

This framework should provide a project manager with structure, processes, and decision-making models for a project.

A

Project governance framework

355
Q

How is the BAC calculated?

A

EAC=BAC/CPI or BAC=EACxCPI

356
Q

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A

Critical path is time constrained; the critical chain is resource constrained.

357
Q

This represents how much money is tied up in stuff that is providing no value to an organization (i.e., it represents the things being worked on that are not done).

A

Work in progress (WIP)

358
Q

In general, a project team wants it’s work in progress (WIP) number to be ____________.

A

as low as possible

359
Q

These play a role in optimization of products and processes, allowing systematic change of all important factors for a product or process to provide optimal conditions.

A

Design of experiments (DOEs)

360
Q

What is a formula for Earned Monetary Value (EMV)?

A

EMV=amount at stake x risk probability

361
Q

This type of analysis examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating.

A

Trend analysis

362
Q

This scope-related process is the process that would be performed after a project is terminated (or completed).

A

Validate scope

363
Q

This type of analysis during the monitor and control project risk process compares the amount of contingency reserve remaining to the amount of risk remaining.

A

Reserve analysis

364
Q

This is another word for uncontrolled project changes.

A

Scope creep

365
Q

If a project is running on budget, what is the CPI?

A

1

366
Q

In a projectized structure, use of this is often less efficient.

A

Resources

367
Q

These kinds of contracts are often used when a buyer is purchasing services.

A

Time and materials

368
Q

These are the outputs of the control costs process.

A

Cost forecasts

369
Q

If one element of competing constraints changes, how many other elements are likely to change?

A

At least one

370
Q

This validates that the customer’s acceptance criteria have been met.

A

Formal acceptance

371
Q

This process is about correctness, not acceptance.

A

Control quality

372
Q

What kind of costs have already been expended and cannot be recouped?

A

Sunk costs

373
Q

A data point may be outside control limits but within these.

A

Tolerances

374
Q

A data point may be outside these but within tolerances.

A

Control limits

375
Q

Which cost elements are the hardest for a project manager to influence?

A

Indirect costs

376
Q

This type of diagramming technique allows for conditional statements.

A

Graphical evaluation review technique

377
Q

These types of changes are handled in the control procurements process, not the direct and manage project work process.

A

Contract changes

378
Q

Deviations from a baseline project plan may indicate the potential impact of these.

A

Threats or opportunities

379
Q

Just-in-time is an example of this type of system.

A

Pull

380
Q

An example of a pull system through which just-in-time is managed.

A

Kanban

381
Q

This is the preferred method of settlement of claims and disputes.

A

Negotiation

382
Q

Why is negotiation the preferred method of settlement of claims and disputes?

A

Because it doesn’t involve a third party (ex. mediator, arbitration professional, litigator).

383
Q

On a control chart, these provide us with information on what the process is capable of producing.

A

Control limits

384
Q

These two types of contracts have no points of total assumption (PTAs).

A

1) Cost plus contracts
2) Time and materials

385
Q

Which types of contracts have points of total assumption (PTAs)?

A

Fixed price contracts