Aileen Ellis's PMP Exam Prep Course Notes Cards Flashcards
Scrum is a type of this kind of development.
Agile
This says that Scrum is mint chocolate chip, a flavor of Agile that centers people.
Ice cream analogy
These three roles make up a Scrum team.
1) Product owner
2) ScrumMaster (aka, Facilitator)
3) Development team
In the Scrum framework, this person envisions the product and what it needs to be.
Product owner
Sprint/Iteration planning yields this.
Sprint backlog
Sprint execution yields this.
Potentially shippable product increment
This part of the sprint involves the review and/or demo of what is ready to ship.
Sprint/Iteration review
This part of a sprint involves lessons learned and process improvements that can be identified and executed.
Sprint retrospective
This involves the following 7 activities: sprint, sprint planning, daily scrum, sprint execution, sprint review, sprint retrospective, product backlog grooming.
Scrum
An organization will often estimate portfolio backlog items in terms of these sizes.
T-shirt
INVEST is an acronym describing criteria for these.
Good user stories
(1) Independent
(2) Negotiable
(3) Valuable
(4) Estimable
(5) Sized appropriately
(6) Testable
A team that has completed a user story writing workshop will prioritize stories via this.
Story mapping
The items at the ______________ of the product backlog are smaller and have more detail than the items below
top
The ______________ backlog contains higher level items such as features and user stories, which are larger units of work that often span multiple sprints.
product
A product backlog must contain items that are targeted for this.
The current release
DEEP (Roman Pichler and Mike Cohn): Describe these 3 characteristics of a good product backlog.
1) Detailed appropriately
2) Emergent and estimated
3) Prioritized
A development team spends how much of their time on product backlog refinement?
Up to 10%
In Scrum, these are not viewed as commitments, targets, or goals.
Product backlog estimates
During planning poker, which team gets to estimate?
Only the development team
This may have multiple sprints.
A project
Why are sprint lengths fixed?
To ensure predictability with regard to when a demo or review will occur.
Shorter sprints allow for this to be done more quickly and so, better.
Risk mitigation (team fail more quickly)
What word represents the amount of work that gets completed in a sprint?
Velocity
What are the only things counted when calculating velocity?
Story points of features that are done
What this is agreed to, a product owner commits to not changing it during a sprint.
Sprint goal
Who has the authority to terminate a sprint?
The product owner
In Scrum, this day is the same as an effort day.
Ideal day
What is the subset of the product backlog that the team plans to complete in the current sprint?
The sprint backlog
How are tasks in the sprint backlog estimated?
In hours
In Scrum, what describes how to build something?
Tasks
What is the determination of shipping a product increment?
Business decision
These are used when a team needs to spend time on work that is not directly related to a user story or requirement.
A spike
What type of release requires the scope of the release needs to be flexible?
Fixed-date release
What is a is a previously agreed period of time?
A time box
What is determined during sprint planning?
Sprint goal
What is done so the product backlog in Scrum maintains a prioritized state and gives the team has a clear understanding of the next most valuable work to be done?
Backlog grooming/refinement
This is created to provide a detailed plan for the next Sprint and a clear understanding of the work that the Development Team will do.
The sprint backlog
What team determines how to do the sprint-level tasks?
The development team
What kind of pace should every sprint have?
A sustainable pace
On a Scrum team, who is responsible for deciding what will be developed and in what order?
The product owner (or project manager is the product owner is not an option)
What is another word for the daily scrum?
Daily stand-up
In Scrum, what member of the Scrum team assigns work?
The development team
What is the Scrum framework based on?
1) Values
2) Principles
3) Practices
The primary function of this is to serve as a single source of requirements.
The product backlog
Which development methodology is better used among small project teams?
Agile
This development methodology allows for feedback for unfinished work to improve and modify that work.
Iterative
This development methodology provides a finished deliverable that the customer may be able to use immediately.
Incremental
These methodologies used together on the same project is called Hybrid.
Predictive and Agile
If defects can lead to loss of life, PMI would indicate a lean towards this development methodology for a project.
Traditional (Predictive)
This development methodology requires high levels of stakeholder involvement.
Agile, because sprints are short and engagement is continual.
What is a blanket term for many approaches, including Scrum, XP, Crystal, ScrumBan, AUP, FDD, DSDM?
Agile
What may be provided to a project via may be financial (revenue), shareholder-related, customer, employee knowledge (learning), channel partner-related means?
Value
What are provided first to reach a minimum viable product?
Most important features
What type of board shows the “what” of the project’s work execution?
Kanban or task board
What type of board shows the “how much” of the project’s work execution?
A burndown or burnup chart
What is the best way to meet and engage with stakeholders?
Face-to-face
What model involves the following steps: encode, transmit message, run into noise, decode, acknowledge (note: feedback or respond would be next)?
Communication
What type of communication is distributed like emails, letters, memos, and voice mails?
Push
What type of communication involves large quantities of information provided via databases or repositories like web portals, intranet sites, and SharePoint?
Pull
What is a communication method where you have several scrum teams with a Scrum Master who runs a daily standup, then conducts a standup of only the Scrum Masters?
Scrum of scrums
What technique allows for the visualization of scrum of scrums?
Release trains
What is defined as the effect of uncertainty on objectives?
Risk
What document considers types of technical, people, and management risks of a project?
Risk breakdown structure
What activity can result in group think and rabbit holing and many people don’t do it well?
Brainstorming
What document contains the risk methodology, roles and responsibilities for risk, stakeholder risk appetite (ex. risk prone, risk averse, risk neutral)?
Risk Management Plan
Where are lists of risks maintained?
Risk register
This document lists individual project risks, risk owners, and agreed upon risk responses.
Risk register
This document reflects an assessment of overall project risk exposure and agreed upon risk response strategy.
Risk report
When no plan is in place to address a risk because a risk was not identified in advance, you’d have to identify this.
Workaround
Bigger risk may require this type of analysis, which is more comprehensive, slower, and more expensive.
Quantitative
This type of analysis determines which risk the project is most sensitive to.
Sensitivity analysis
This type of risk analysis does not involve holding other values at their baseline.
Modeling/Simulation
This type of risk analysis does involve holding other values at their baseline.
Sensitivity analysis
This type of risk analysis precedes quantitative risk analysis.
Qualitative
These types of risks are dealt with via escalation, avoidance, transferring, mitigating, or accepting.
Threats
These types of risks are dealt with via escalation, exploitation, sharing, enhancing, and acceptance.
Opportunities
This is defined as anyone who can impact or be impacted (or believes they can be impacted) by a project.
Stakeholder
This project document includes assessment info, identification info, and classification info regarding stakeholders.
Stakeholder register
This project document contains a strategy to engage stakeholders.
Stakeholder Engagement Plan
This is a business document that will show project objectives and an initial list of affected stakeholders (and ROI).
A business case
Name four stakeholder analysis models.
1) Power/interest
2) Power/influence
3) Influence/impact
4) Salience
This stakeholder analysis model considers power, urgency, and legitimacy.
Salience model
This is made up of management plans and baselines under strict change control.
Project plan
Project Documents like logs, registers, reports, estimates, and forecasts require what kind of change control?
Loose(r)
Name 2 business documents for a project.
1) Business case
2) Benefits management plan
These types of issues require engagement from project sponsors rather than day-to-day management activities.
Regulatory issues
This project document captures current and desired engagement levels of project stakeholders.
Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
This project document shows connections among stakeholders and includes details like stakeholder name, current engagement level, desired engagement level, asks what do we need from them?, strategy, owner
Stakeholder engagement plan
What type of estimating provides information from past project or activity that contains similarities to a new one?
Analogous
What type of estimating takes a lot of data from which a statistician generates an algorithm and ensures a higher level of accuracy?
Parametric
What type of estimating includes a mid-range level of accuracy since it provides more than a single point estimate?
Three-point
The PERT formula is associated with which type of estimation?
Three-point
What is the PERT formula for three-point estimation?
(P + 4ML + O)/6
What types of estimates should be developed by the people who do the work/perform the tasks?
Schedule and costs
_________________ is how decisions are made on a project.
Governance
How is the Cost Performance Index calculated?
CPI=Earned Value (EV)/Actual Cost (AC)
(EV divided by AC)
This project document includes information about is about identifying and acquiring resources needed—team members, equipment, materials.
Resource management plan
What project document does the team develop, describing their operating guidelines
Team charter
What type of reserves are for unidentified project costs (unknown unknowns)?
Management reserves
What type of reserves are for identified project costs, like reword (known unknowns)?
Contingency reserves
The 100 Percent Rule is observed when a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) contains all work but this kind of work.
Extra
What is the external exercise referring to what the current project is trying to achieve (“historical data” refers to projects conducted in the past)?
Benchmarking
This type of chart helps to predict when work will be completed.
Burndown
What is a project team’s tool for assessing product backlog against current issues?
Impediment log
Once a vision and a high-level product backlog have been defined, the project will visualize a series of releases. What is this visualized series of releases called?
Product roadmap
The order of schedule activities in which development metholodogy is Create WBS, Define activities, Estimate resource requirements < - > Estimate durations, Determine critical path, Finalize project schedule?
Predictive
If a task on this falls behind, it’s on the critical path.
Near critical path
Changes to the schedule have the least impact when they are identified at this time.
Early
Stakeholder engagement plans focus on this.
Building relationships with others
What document focuses on how team members are going to interact with each other; how they’ll deal with conflict; what are the team guidelines?
The team charter
What series of documents is the team charter not part of?
Project plan
What is defined as being suitable for its intended purpose while satisfying customer expectations?
Quality
The cost of this includes prevention costs, appraisal costs, and failure costs.
Cost of Quality (CoQ)
These are the costs of planning and executing a project so it is error-free.
Prevention costs
These are the costs of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure quality.
Appraisal costs
These are the costs that result from poor quality, such as rework or defects.
Failure costs
Proactive costs to ensure quality (ex. training)
Conformance
Reactive costs because of poor quality (ex. rework)
Non-conformance
What activity allows for proactive improvement of implementation of processes?
Quality audit
Name 3 means of surveying quality.
1) Metrics
2) Audits
3) Feedback
What type of system can help to standardize the process of quality control and ensure continuous quality improvement?
Quality Management System
PMI likes to implement _______ to address root cause and obtain systemic improvement
systems
What is defined as the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result?
Product scope
What is defined as the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specified features and functions?
Project scope
When requirements are gathered via this technique, ideas that lead to those requirements have already been generated.
Focus groups
What is the document that will guide the project team in defining the project scope?
Scope Management Plan
These plans tell how to do something associated with a project.
Management plans
Which project document tells how to identify and manage the scope?
Scope management plan
What type of analysis is best done by questionnaires and surveys?
Statistical analysis
What is the method by which PMI says confidential information is collected?
Interviews
What kind of analysis is not a requirements gathering activity since it is related to quantitative risk analysis?
Sensitivity analysis
What is essential to accurate requirements collection?
Early and frequent stakeholder involvement
In Predictive project management, what document creates a hierarchical decomposition of work?
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
What is the lowest level of the WBS?
The work package
What level is one level above the work package on the WBS?
Control Account/Cash Account
What WBS concept oversees the Control Account?
Control Account Manager
How is each feature in the product backlog measured?
Story points or Ideal days
How is each task in the sprint backlog measured?
Effort hours or Ideal hours
Scope creep can be mitigated by a good/well developed ______________ process.
change control
Who owns quality control? Who owns scope validation?
1) Quality control is owned by an internal project team.
2) Scope validation is owned by a customer or project sponsor.
Name the 2 inputs of the sprint review meeting.
1) Sprint goal review
2) Potentially shippable product increments
Name 2 outputs of the sprint review.
1) Product backlog refinement
2) Updated release plan
Which project management approach contains the following steps: Determine development approach, Plan scope management, Collect requirements, Define scope, Create WBS, Define activities?
Predictive
What plan consolidates and coordinates each team’s plan, ensuring alignment with the overall project objectives?
Integrated project plan
What data points are vital to the creation of a comprehensive and integrated project plan?
1) Cost
2) Scope
3) Risk
4) Schedule planning
PMI feels that ____________ is too narrow when talking about project work; it prefers __________________.
scheduled; plan
What is the first thing to do when a change request has been initiated?
Evaluation of the change
Name 2 actions that normally affect performance against baselines.
1) Corrective
2) Preventive
PMI would say that if someone initiates a change request when it’s already been rejected by the project sponsor, this should happen.
It should be rejects–if the request is being made by the same person.
Who may request changes to a project?
Any stakeholder
This is required to handle anticipated changes during a project.
Establishment of formal change management process, including defined procedures
Invoices, PSOW, payment information, contractor documentation (ex. WPI, plans) are part of this type of document.
Procurement
What decision is the determination of what work should occur in-house and what should be outsourced?
Make or buy
What is a set of attributes desired by the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract?
Source selection criteria
These are used to align seller’s objectives with buyer’s objectives.
Incentives and awards
What type of contracts are used when the requirements are clear and measurable and unlikely to change?
Fixed price
What type of contracts are used when the requirements are not clear and not measurable and like to change?
Cost reimbursable
What document contains a clearly stated set of goals, requirements, and outcomes so they can provide a complete response to the bid document?
Procurement statement of work
With what type of contract does the Seller have high risk and the Buyer has low risk in comparison to each other?
Fixed price
With what type of contract does contract, the Buyer have high risk because it will require returning some contract costs to the Seller?
Cost reimburseable
Name 3 types of bid documents.
1) Request for information
2) Request for proposal
3) Request for quote
Which bid document is used to gather details for other, more details bid documents?
Request for information
What type of bid document is used when selection is based on low price acceptable offer (apples-to-apples comparison is possible)?
Request for quote
What type of bid document is used when technical capability or technical approach are most important (apples-to-apples comparison is not possible)?
Request for proposal
What is conducted to ensure all bidders have a clear and common understanding of project requirements?
Bidder conferences
What is the difference between centralized purchasing and decentralized purchasing?
Centralized procurement works in a corporate group while decentralized procurement has the purchasing role on the team (usually PJM).
Who provides formal written notice that a contract has been completed?
Authorized procurements administrator
Creation of ________________ are driven by the organization, not the PJM (i.e., some companies document everything; others do not).
artifacts
What meeting is conducted to discuss what the team should start doing, what the team should stop doing, and what the team should continue doing as it relates to process?
Sprint retrospective
What project team members are allowed to attend the sprint retrospective?
1) The product owner
2) The ScrumMaster
3) The dev team
In which 2 meetings are only the the product owner, the ScrumMaster, and the dev team allowed to attend?
1) Daily scrum/stand-up
2) Sprint retrospective
What does project governance align with?
Organizational governance structure
What 2 aspects of escalation should be defined in consultation with stakeholders, reflecting their roles, responsibilities, and the project complexity?
1) Escalation paths
2) Thresholds
What 2 things should a project’s paths and thresholds align with?
1) Organizational hierarchy
2) Project’s risk profile
During a project, _____________ may occur, but ______________ already has occurred.
risk; issue/impediment
Risk is the effect of uncertainty regarding _____________________.
objectives
What is the result when a project does not focus sufficiently on risk?
A lot of focus on issue management will be needed.
What is often required when unidentified risks emerge as issues?
Workarounds
When stakeholders are not actively engaged with a project, a project manager may do this.
Make them issue owners
What lifecycle contains the following activities: Identifying knowledge, Capturing knowledge, Sharing knowledge, Applying knowledge, Assessing benefits?
Knowledge Transfer Lifecycle
What are the 2 points in a project where a kickoff might occur?
1) At the end of initiating, before planning
2) At the end of planning, before executing
This type of knowledge can be shared via interactions between people.
Tacit
This type of knowledge can be shared via emails, lessons learned registers.
Explicit knowledge
Name 2 means for determining criteria to successfully close a project or project phase.
1) Standards
2) Benchmarks
What definition is identified at the beginning of the project?
Definition of done
Nearing project closure, it’s important to know how much work is left and that is often visualized via the this chart?
Burndown
In general, these should be collected on a regular basis throughout the project regardless of the methodology used.
Lessons learned
By what method can a project team determine that an operations team is ready to take over a project?
Stakeholder analysis
Name 2 things that are not methods.
1) A plan
2) A charter
What is the data analysis tool most likely to be used to compare what was initially planned to the result as a project is preparing for close out?
Variance analysis
What term does PMI use to describe formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables?
Validate scope
What term does PMI use to describe all activities across all PJM processes?
Close Project
What is an active disagreement between people with opposing opinions or principles?
Conflict
Name 3 ways in which conflict should be addressed.
1) Early
2) Directly
3) Privately
What conflict stages are shown here: Problem to solve –> Disagreement –> Contest –> Fight or flight (aka, Crusade) –> Intractable (aka, World War)?
Speed Leas’
This is the situation within which something exists or happens, and that can help explain it.
Context
What are Confronting, Collaborating, Compromising, Smoothing/Accommodating, Forcing, Withdrawal/Avoiding?
Types of conflict resolution
What is defined as an inspirational statement of an idealistic emotional future of a company or group?
Vision
What is defined as a short statement of why an org or project exists?
Mission
These drive everything an org or project does.
Core values
Simply put, any _____________ requires dealing with individuals separately, then bringing them together.
conflict
What term refers to the demographics of the workplace which includes ethnicity, gender, et al?
Diversity
This gives each employee fair and equal access.
Equity
This ensures everyone on the team is treated fairly and respectfully, despite differences.
Inclusion
This centers around the employee experience of feeling accepted in the workplace; it’s a stronger term than inclusion.
Belonging
In Scrum, who demonstrates the most servant leadership?
A Scrum Master/Facilitator
Where are issues recorded on an Agile project?
Impediments log
Where can visibility into the phase of resolution for each impediment be provided?
Impediments Kanban board
Name 3 types of leadership other than servant leadership.
1) Charismatic (leading via personality)
2) Transactional (via give-and-take, tit-for-tat)
3) Laissez-faire (“let do,” used primarily when experienced teams are involved)
What project document helps to reinforce people who do outstanding work and inspire others?
Rewards and recognition plan
T/F: The team charter includes a plan for project managers to recognize excellent team members.
False
This 3-factor model focused on project power, urgency, and legitimacy.
Salience model
These are are quantifiable measures used to track, monitor, and assess success or performance.
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
Examples of this are Project completion rate; Team productivity; Quality metrics; Collaboration level.
Team KPIs
Example of this are Task completion rate; Performance quality; Individual productivity; Attendance/Punctuality.
Individual KPIs
Name the 5 stages of team performance in Tuckman’s Ladder.
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
DOWNTIME is an acronym used to describe this in Lean methodology.
Waste:
Defects
Overproduction
Waiting
Not utilizing talent
Transportation
Inventory excess
Motion waste
Excess processing
_________________ is measured by how quickly work is being completed
Velocity
What chart can show the project scope as well as the velocity at which the project is moving?
Burnup chart
What type of time is time required to process an item (ex. thru Development, Testing, Deployment, and Completion [Done])?
Cycle time
What type of time is the total time it takes to deliver an item, measured from the time it is added to the board to the time it is completed (ex. thru Backlog, Development, Testing, Deployment, and Completion [Done])?
Lead time
What type of time is time an item waits until work starts?
Response time
What term describes when an individual or department experiences consequences for their performance or actions?
Accountability
What is the top level in a WBS?
Project level
What is the difference between a WBS and an activity/task list?
1) WBS is hierarchical; deliverable oriented
2) Activity List is a list; activity oriented
On a Resource Assignment Matrix, only one person can be assigned this role.
Accountable
What types of needs may evolve through the life of the project?
Training
What type of training is sometimes mandatory?
Safety and security
With regard to resource planning, what may evolve through the life of a project?
Team members
What are defined as specific abilities acquired through training and experience?
Skills
What are defined as a combination of knowledge, skills, behaviors, and attitudes that contribute to personal effectiveness?
Competencies
What is another name for a Resource Assignment Matrix?
RACI matrix
What is the obligation to execute a task?
Responsibility
What is ownership of the outcome of a task?
Accountability
Project team assignments would not be included in this project document.
A team charter
In Agile, knowledge sharing often occurs through big visible charts (BVCs), also known as ____________________.
information radiators
Name 3 types of big visible charts (BVCs) utilized for Agile projects.
1) Kanban board
2) Burnup/Burndown charts
3) Scrum board
Critical path is a term used in this type of project management.
Predictive/Traditional
Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have prioritize impediments according to this method.
MoSCow method
These activities gauge the effectiveness of team responses in dealing with risks and their root causes.
Risk reviews
In negotiation theory, this acronym refers to the most advantageous alternative course of action a party can take if negotiations fail and an agreement cannot be reached.
BATNA: Best Alternative to Negotiated Agreement
BATNA includes this area of alignment, also described via an acronym.
ZOPA: Zone of Possible Agreement
Stephen R. Covey encourages this belief that in negotiation, it is possible to find solutions and move away from zero-sum mentality.
Win-win
In general, negotiation is not conducted by this organizational role.
The project manager
Name the 4 types of communication.
1) Formal verbal
2) Informal verbal
3) Formal written
4) Informal written
Name 3 ways information can be communicated.
1) Interactive (conversations, meetings)
2) Push (letters, emails, voice mails, press releases)
3) Pull (web portals, knowledge repos)
Which project document includes stakeholder identification information, assessment information, and stakeholder classification?
Stakeholder register
To ensure stakeholder alignment of expectations to objectives, name 2 things that the PJM can review to obtain stakeholder buy-in.
1) Objectives
2) Project plan
Name 3 ways of conducting root cause analysis.
1) 5 Whys
2) Fishbone diagram (Ishikawa diagram)
3) Cause and effect analysis
Steps to ___________________ include defining the problem or decision, gather information, establish decision making criteria, generating options, evaluating options, facilitating discussion, making a decision.
reach consensus
This is the definition to meet at the end of a sprint.
Definition of done
_____________________ applies to entire product increment (generic idea applied to code) while _______________ applies to specific product backlog item (ex. product is fully tested vs works on Android and iOS).
Definition of done; acceptance criteria
This is definition that looks at an item on the product backlog and asks if the team is ready to move the item to the sprint backlog.
Definition of ready
This idea from XP will benefit a project because it helps with visions/brings people together around a common idea/makes complex info accessible for all.
A metaphor
This idea from XP helps teams identify a vision and charges them with developing a vision for the project using cereal boxes then presented back to the group.
Product box exercise
Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading are potential terms for describing stakeholders in what product document?
Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix (SEAM)
A PJM can promote engagement across locations and team members by having multiple types of __________________ available.
communication tools
What are the foundational guidelines that shape a company’s culture, values, and operational processes?
Organizational principles
These are specific and apply to individual and team behavior and need to align with organizational principles.
Ground rules
Responsibility, Respect, Honesty, Fairness are the tenets of what PMI guideline?
PMI’s Code of Conduct
This project document contains the project objectives and is signed by the project sponsor.
The project charter
T/F: Mentoring is a general means for building relationships and sharing knowledge and coaching is more specific and aimed at achieving certain goals.
True
Which Agile software development technique develops the skill sets of less experienced team members?
Pair programming
Swarming is an extreme version of this.
Pair programming
Name 3 examples of personality indicator tools.
1) Myers-Briggs
2) Equilibria/e Colors (DiSC)
3) Core Strength/Total SDI
Daniel Goleman identified 4 aspects of this: social skills, self-awareness, self-regulation, and social awareness.
Emotional intelligence
Top to bottom, what do these describe:
1) Self-actualization
2) Esteem
3) Love and belonging
4) Safety, security, order
5) Basic needs
Abraham Harold Maslow: Hierarchy of Needs
What is set by government body, regulatory bodies, industry associations, or even one’s own organization?
Compliance requirements
This project document is most likely to address compliance.
Quality management plan
What is the most important aspect of adhering to compliance requirements in an organization?
To protect the business
This is often addressed in the quality management plan (describes how applicable polices, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve quality objectives) on predictive projects.
Compliance
What 2 actions should project team members take when they are concerned that a project may not be compliant in several areas.
1) The PJM should ask the team members individually to write down their ideas
2) The project team should meet together to review the ideas
What activity should be conducted regularly to determine if a project is compliant with all internal policies, processes, and procedures?
Audits
Processes are _____________ while products/documents/parts (physical items) are _______________.
audited; inspected
A compliance issue needs to be escalated when an issue exceeds this.
Tolerances
In which project document are tolerances recorded?
Quality management plan
Which project document is the quality management plan a sub-document of?
Project management plan
What is the ultimate measure of project success?
Value
What is an outcome that provides value to the performing org and/or the project customer?
A project benefit
Benefits are identified by these project team members.
Stakeholders
Name the 3 documents on which benefits might be listed.
1) Benefits management plan (less common)
2) Benefits register (best answer)
3) Business case
What is a type of business value delivered with publicly traded companies that is not present in other organizations?
Shareholder value
What is the feasibility study to establish the validity of the project benefits?
A business case
What document authorizes the existence of the project?
The project charter
What document describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled or closed?
The project management plan
What should/would be conducted regularly throughout a project to ensure that benefits have been delivered but, more importantly, realized?
Benefits assessment
T/F: A project with $4m net present value (NPV) is better than one with $7m NPV.
False
T/F: A project with a 9-month payback period is better than one with a 15-month payback period.
True
What is the acronym for a strategic tool for understanding market growth or decline, business position, potential and direction for operations.
PESTLE (Political, Economic, Social, Technical, Legal, Environmental)
Name the 3 primary elements of the triple constraint of project management.
1) Scope
2) Schedule
3) Cost
In Traditional PJM, what element of the triple constraint is most fixed?
Scope
In Agile PJM, what elements of the triple constraint is most fixed?
Schedule, Cost
On what type of projects do we often evaluate scope changes against the project baselines and customer expectations?
Predictive
What types of changes should a PJM focus on when deciding on recommended changes to move forward with?
Those that are most critical to the project’s goals and objectives
What document visualizes a series of releases?
A product roadmap
Before what document is created must an initial project vision and a high level product backlog be in place for an Agile project?
A product roadmap
What project document includes a description of how organizational change will be evaluated on the project?
Change management plan
Name 4 models for change management.
1) Kotter’s Eight Steps of Change
2) PROSCI change model
3) Prosci ADKAR
4) Kubler-Ross curve
What project document would include the expected benefits of a prospective change?
A benefits management plan
Formulate change, Plan change, Implement change, Manage transition, Sustain change are the 5 components of what framework?
PMI change management framework
Name 2 subsets of Lean methodology.
1) Agile
2) Kanban
This communication method allows for true exchange of information.
Interactive
Project managers can confirm their stakeholder strategy by conducting these kinds of meetings with smaller groups of stakeholders.
Direct/One-on-one meetings
Project managers can confirm their stakeholder strategy by conducting these activities with large groups of stakeholders.
Surveys
Name 2 tools that can be used to ensure effective interactive engagement with stakeholders in disparate locations.
1) Online forums
2) Virtual meetings
Who is the person assigned by the performing org to lead the project team and ensure project objectives are met?
Project manager
Who are the members of the project team who are directly involved in the project management activities?
Project management team
Who is the set of individuals performing work of the project to achieve its objectives?
Project team
What types of biases are more likely to negatively impact the success of a project?
Unconscious biases
During the discovery phase of a project, the primary benefit of using this is it helps to minimize risk and avoid potential problems.
Critical thinking
What is awareness and understanding one’s own thought processes?
Metacognition
Name 3 decision making techniques.
1) Roman voting (thumbs up/down for yes/no decisions)
2) Wideband Delphi (estimating until consensus)
3) Fist of Five voting (indicating support via holding up <x> number of fingers)</x>
What term refers to the timing and frequency of project deliverables?
Delivery cadence
What is the difference between multiple deliveries and periodic deliveries?
Multiple refers to delivery at different time throughout a project while periodic deliveries occur on a fixed schedule.
What approach involves delivery of finished work in pieces?
Incremental
What approach involves potential delivery of a product increment that is unfinished?
Iterative
PMI’s view is that ______________ teams should try to be located together (to help with collaboration and to facilitate pair programming) while ______________ teams don’t necessarily need to be located together
adaptive (agile), predictive (traditional)
T/F: An adaptive project requires a low level of stakeholder involvement.
False
Use of a minimum viable product (MVP) is useful when there is uncertainty related to this.
Funding
Why is a prototype not an MVP?
Because it is not usable by the customer.
The choice between predictive and adaptive project management depends on the level of ________________ uncertainty.
requirements
Incremental is optimized for speed of _________________.
delivery
According to PMI, what is the triple bottom line?
1) Financial impacts
2) Social impacts
3) Environmental impacts
Adaptive planning is conducted utilizing which concept?
Last Responsible Moment
What types of estimating does Planning Poker use?
Relative estimating
Crashing shortens schedules by applying this.
More resources, including people and money
Fast Tracking shortens schedules by forcing this.
Overlap or performing activities in parallel
In schedule execution, these allow a successor to advance in relation to a predecessor.
Leads
In schedule execution, these force a delay in a task relationship.
Lags
What are used to determine if there are any bottlenecks in the process?
Task boards
Name 2 ways to optimize/tailor processes.
1) Lean production methods
2) Retrospectives/Lessons learned
What is the activity where the ratio of value-added and non-value-added activities ratio is looked at?
Value stream mapping
What is the most important difference between Lean and Six Sigma?
Lean focuses on reducing waste (i.e., activities that don’t add value) while Six Sigma focuses on reducing process variation and defects.
What is a documented economic feasibility study that captures the reasons for initiating a project?
A business case
What is a strategic management template invented by Osterwalder around 2008; a visual chart describing value proposition?
Business Model Canvas
What is a version of the Business Model Canvas adapted by Ash Maurya in 2008 and designed more for startups than the Business Model Canvas?
Lean Canvas
What approach does these items reflect: Collect reqs, Define scope, Create WBS, Define activities, Sequence activities?
Predictive
__________ are logical containers for a large user story too big for a single iteration.
Epics
___________________ are brief descriptions of an outcome for a specific user; a promise for a conversation.
User stories
______________ represent single behaviors of a product.
Features
_____________________ are large groups of customer value associated by a common factor.
Themes
What occurs when the definition of done is constantly moving?
Done drift
T/F: Scope creep has a less negative connotation than done drift.
False
What is a common mistake or oversight when trying to assess aspects of a project that can lead to incorrect insights, resulting in poor decision-making, ineffective resource allocation, and other negative outcomes?
A measurement pitfall
What measurement pitfall explains why performance levels decrease when you are not watching them (people’s behaviors change when they are being monitored)?
The Hawthorne Effect
What measurement pitfall is a datapoint that doesn’t fall within a PJM’s point of view and so is eliminated?
Confirmation bias
What measurement pitfall is a measure that looks impressive but doesn’t provide meaningful insight into performance or progress?
Vanity metric
What measurement pitfall is when unrelated things are linked (ex. Ice cream consumption causes murder)?
Correlation vs causation
What type of indicators predict future performance?
Leading
What type of indicators assess the current status of business?
Lagging
