Aileen Ellis's PMP Exam Prep Course Notes Cards Flashcards
1
Q
Scrum is a type of this kind of development.
A
Agile
2
Q
This says that Scrum is mint chocolate chip, a flavor of Agile that centers people.
A
Ice cream analogy
3
Q
These three roles make up a Scrum team.
A
1) Product owner
2) ScrumMaster (aka, Facilitator)
3) Development team
4
Q
In the Scrum framework, this person envisions the product and what it needs to be.
A
Product owner
5
Q
Sprint/Iteration planning yields this.
A
Sprint backlog
6
Q
Sprint execution yields this.
A
Potentially shippable product increment
7
Q
This part of the sprint involves the review and/or demo of what is ready to ship.
A
Sprint/Iteration review
8
Q
This part of a sprint involves lessons learned and process improvements that can be identified and executed.
A
Sprint retrospective
9
Q
This involves the following 7 activities: sprint, sprint planning, daily scrum, sprint execution, sprint review, sprint retrospective, product backlog grooming.
A
Scrum
10
Q
An organization will often estimate portfolio backlog items in terms of these sizes.
A
T-shirt
11
Q
INVEST is an acronym describing criteria for these.
A
Good user stories
(1) Independent
(2) Negotiable
(3) Valuable
(4) Estimable
(5) Sized appropriately
(6) Testable
12
Q
A team that has completed a user story writing workshop will prioritize stories via this.
A
Story mapping
13
Q
The items at the ______________ of the product backlog are smaller and have more detail than the items below
A
top
14
Q
The ______________ backlog contains higher level items such as features and user stories, which are larger units of work that often span multiple sprints.
A
product
15
Q
A product backlog must contain items that are targeted for this.
A
The current release
16
Q
DEEP (Roman Pichler and Mike Cohn): Describe these 3 characteristics of a good product backlog.
A
1) Detailed appropriately
2) Emergent and estimated
3) Prioritized
17
Q
A development team spends how much of their time on product backlog refinement?
A
Up to 10%
18
Q
In Scrum, these are not viewed as commitments, targets, or goals.
A
Product backlog estimates
19
Q
During planning poker, which team gets to estimate?
A
Only the development team
20
Q
This may have multiple sprints.
A
A project
21
Q
Why are sprint lengths fixed?
A
To ensure predictability with regard to when a demo or review will occur.
22
Q
Shorter sprints allow for this to be done more quickly and so, better.
A
Risk mitigation (team fail more quickly)
23
Q
What word represents the amount of work that gets completed in a sprint?
A
Velocity
24
Q
What are the only things counted when calculating velocity?
A
Story points of features that are done
25
What this is agreed to, a product owner commits to not changing it during a sprint.
Sprint goal
26
Who has the authority to terminate a sprint?
The product owner
27
In Scrum, this day is the same as an effort day.
Ideal day
28
What is the subset of the product backlog that the team plans to complete in the current sprint?
The sprint backlog
29
How are tasks in the sprint backlog estimated?
In hours
30
In Scrum, what describes how to build something?
Tasks
31
What is the determination of shipping a product increment?
Business decision
32
These are used when a team needs to spend time on work that is not directly related to a user story or requirement.
A spike
33
What type of release requires the scope of the release needs to be flexible?
Fixed-date release
34
What is a is a previously agreed period of time?
A time box
35
What is determined during sprint planning?
Sprint goal
36
What is done so the product backlog in Scrum maintains a prioritized state and gives the team has a clear understanding of the next most valuable work to be done?
Backlog grooming/refinement
37
This is created to provide a detailed plan for the next Sprint and a clear understanding of the work that the Development Team will do.
The sprint backlog
38
What team determines how to do the sprint-level tasks?
The development team
39
What kind of pace should every sprint have?
A sustainable pace
40
On a Scrum team, who is responsible for deciding what will be developed and in what order?
The product owner (or project manager is the product owner is not an option)
41
What is another word for the daily scrum?
Daily stand-up
42
In Scrum, what member of the Scrum team assigns work?
The development team
43
What is the Scrum framework based on?
1) Values
2) Principles
3) Practices
44
The primary function of this is to serve as a single source of requirements.
The product backlog
45
Which development methodology is better used among small project teams?
Agile
46
This development methodology allows for feedback for unfinished work to improve and modify that work.
Iterative
47
This development methodology provides a finished deliverable that the customer may be able to use immediately.
Incremental
48
These methodologies used together on the same project is called Hybrid.
Predictive and Agile
49
If defects can lead to loss of life, PMI would indicate a lean towards this development methodology for a project.
Traditional (Predictive)
50
This development methodology requires high levels of stakeholder involvement.
Agile, because sprints are short and engagement is continual.
51
What is a blanket term for many approaches, including Scrum, XP, Crystal, ScrumBan, AUP, FDD, DSDM?
Agile
52
What may be provided to a project via may be financial (revenue), shareholder-related, customer, employee knowledge (learning), channel partner-related means?
Value
53
What are provided first to reach a minimum viable product?
Most important features
54
What type of board shows the "what" of the project’s work execution?
Kanban or task board
55
What type of board shows the "how much" of the project’s work execution?
A burndown or burnup chart
56
What is the best way to meet and engage with stakeholders?
Face-to-face
57
What model involves the following steps: encode, transmit message, run into noise, decode, acknowledge (note: feedback or respond would be next)?
Communication
58
What type of communication is distributed like emails, letters, memos, and voice mails?
Push
59
What type of communication involves large quantities of information provided via databases or repositories like web portals, intranet sites, and SharePoint?
Pull
60
What is a communication method where you have several scrum teams with a Scrum Master who runs a daily standup, then conducts a standup of only the Scrum Masters?
Scrum of scrums
61
What technique allows for the visualization of scrum of scrums?
Release trains
62
What is defined as the effect of uncertainty on objectives?
Risk
63
What document considers types of technical, people, and management risks of a project?
Risk breakdown structure
64
What activity can result in group think and rabbit holing and many people don’t do it well?
Brainstorming
65
What document contains the risk methodology, roles and responsibilities for risk, stakeholder risk appetite (ex. risk prone, risk averse, risk neutral)?
Risk Management Plan
66
Where are lists of risks maintained?
Risk register
67
This document lists individual project risks, risk owners, and agreed upon risk responses.
Risk register
68
This document reflects an assessment of overall project risk exposure and agreed upon risk response strategy.
Risk report
69
When no plan is in place to address a risk because a risk was not identified in advance, you’d have to identify this.
Workaround
70
Bigger risk may require this type of analysis, which is more comprehensive, slower, and more expensive.
Quantitative
71
This type of analysis determines which risk the project is most sensitive to.
Sensitivity analysis
72
This type of risk analysis does not involve holding other values at their baseline.
Modeling/Simulation
73
This type of risk analysis does involve holding other values at their baseline.
Sensitivity analysis
74
This type of risk analysis precedes quantitative risk analysis.
Qualitative
75
These types of risks are dealt with via escalation, avoidance, transferring, mitigating, or accepting.
Threats
76
These types of risks are dealt with via escalation, exploitation, sharing, enhancing, and acceptance.
Opportunities
77
This is defined as anyone who can impact or be impacted (or believes they can be impacted) by a project.
Stakeholder
78
This project document includes assessment info, identification info, and classification info regarding stakeholders.
Stakeholder register
79
This project document contains a strategy to engage stakeholders.
Stakeholder Engagement Plan
80
This is a business document that will show project objectives and an initial list of affected stakeholders (and ROI).
A business case
81
Name four stakeholder analysis models.
1) Power/interest
2) Power/influence
3) Influence/impact
4) Salience
82
This stakeholder analysis model considers power, urgency, and legitimacy.
Salience model
83
This is made up of management plans and baselines under strict change control.
Project plan
84
Project Documents like logs, registers, reports, estimates, and forecasts require what kind of change control?
Loose(r)
85
Name 2 business documents for a project.
1) Business case
2) Benefits management plan
86
These types of issues require engagement from project sponsors rather than day-to-day management activities.
Regulatory issues
87
This project document captures current and desired engagement levels of project stakeholders.
Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix
88
This project document shows connections among stakeholders and includes details like stakeholder name, current engagement level, desired engagement level, asks what do we need from them?, strategy, owner
Stakeholder engagement plan
89
What type of estimating provides information from past project or activity that contains similarities to a new one?
Analogous
90
What type of estimating takes a lot of data from which a statistician generates an algorithm and ensures a higher level of accuracy?
Parametric
91
What type of estimating includes a mid-range level of accuracy since it provides more than a single point estimate?
Three-point
92
The PERT formula is associated with which type of estimation?
Three-point
93
What is the PERT formula for three-point estimation?
(P + 4ML + O)/6
94
What types of estimates should be developed by the people who do the work/perform the tasks?
Schedule and costs
95
_________________ is how decisions are made on a project.
Governance
96
How is the Cost Performance Index calculated?
CPI=Earned Value (EV)/Actual Cost (AC)
(EV divided by AC)
97
This project document includes information about is about identifying and acquiring resources needed—team members, equipment, materials.
Resource management plan
98
What project document does the team develop, describing their operating guidelines
Team charter
99
What type of reserves are for unidentified project costs (unknown unknowns)?
Management reserves
100
What type of reserves are for identified project costs, like reword (known unknowns)?
Contingency reserves
101
The 100 Percent Rule is observed when a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) contains all work but this kind of work.
Extra
102
What is the external exercise referring to what the current project is trying to achieve ("historical data" refers to projects conducted in the past)?
Benchmarking
103
This type of chart helps to predict when work will be completed.
Burndown
104
What is a project team's tool for assessing product backlog against current issues?
Impediment log
105
Once a vision and a high-level product backlog have been defined, the project will visualize a series of releases. What is this visualized series of releases called?
Product roadmap
106
The order of schedule activities in which development metholodogy is Create WBS, Define activities, Estimate resource requirements < - > Estimate durations, Determine critical path, Finalize project schedule?
Predictive
107
If a task on this falls behind, it's on the critical path.
Near critical path
108
Changes to the schedule have the least impact when they are identified at this time.
Early
109
Stakeholder engagement plans focus on this.
Building relationships with others
110
What document focuses on how team members are going to interact with each other; how they’ll deal with conflict; what are the team guidelines?
The team charter
111
What series of documents is the team charter not part of?
Project plan
112
What is defined as being suitable for its intended purpose while satisfying customer expectations?
Quality
113
The cost of this includes prevention costs, appraisal costs, and failure costs.
Cost of Quality (CoQ)
114
These are the costs of planning and executing a project so it is error-free.
Prevention costs
115
These are the costs of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure quality.
Appraisal costs
116
These are the costs that result from poor quality, such as rework or defects.
Failure costs
117
Proactive costs to ensure quality (ex. training)
Conformance
118
Reactive costs because of poor quality (ex. rework)
Non-conformance
119
What activity allows for proactive improvement of implementation of processes?
Quality audit
120
Name 3 means of surveying quality.
1) Metrics
2) Audits
3) Feedback
121
What type of system can help to standardize the process of quality control and ensure continuous quality improvement?
Quality Management System
122
PMI likes to implement _______ to address root cause and obtain systemic improvement
systems
123
What is defined as the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result?
Product scope
124
What is defined as the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specified features and functions?
Project scope
125
When requirements are gathered via this technique, ideas that lead to those requirements have already been generated.
Focus groups
126
What is the document that will guide the project team in defining the project scope?
Scope Management Plan
127
These plans tell how to do something associated with a project.
Management plans
128
Which project document tells how to identify and manage the scope?
Scope management plan
129
What type of analysis is best done by questionnaires and surveys?
Statistical analysis
130
What is the method by which PMI says confidential information is collected?
Interviews
131
What kind of analysis is not a requirements gathering activity since it is related to quantitative risk analysis?
Sensitivity analysis
132
What is essential to accurate requirements collection?
Early and frequent stakeholder involvement
133
In Predictive project management, what document creates a hierarchical decomposition of work?
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
134
What is the lowest level of the WBS?
The work package
135
What level is one level above the work package on the WBS?
Control Account/Cash Account
136
What WBS concept oversees the Control Account?
Control Account Manager
137
How is each feature in the product backlog measured?
Story points or Ideal days
138
How is each task in the sprint backlog measured?
Effort hours or Ideal hours
139
Scope creep can be mitigated by a good/well developed ______________ process.
change control
140
Who owns quality control? Who owns scope validation?
1) Quality control is owned by an internal project team.
2) Scope validation is owned by a customer or project sponsor.
141
Name the 2 inputs of the sprint review meeting.
1) Sprint goal review
2) Potentially shippable product increments
142
Name 2 outputs of the sprint review.
1) Product backlog refinement
2) Updated release plan
143
Which project management approach contains the following steps: Determine development approach, Plan scope management, Collect requirements, Define scope, Create WBS, Define activities?
Predictive
144
What plan consolidates and coordinates each team’s plan, ensuring alignment with the overall project objectives?
Integrated project plan
145
What data points are vital to the creation of a comprehensive and integrated project plan?
1) Cost
2) Scope
3) Risk
4) Schedule planning
146
PMI feels that ____________ is too narrow when talking about project work; it prefers __________________.
scheduled; plan
147
What is the first thing to do when a change request has been initiated?
Evaluation of the change
148
Name 2 actions that normally affect performance against baselines.
1) Corrective
2) Preventive
149
PMI would say that if someone initiates a change request when it's already been rejected by the project sponsor, this should happen.
It should be rejects--if the request is being made by the same person.
150
Who may request changes to a project?
Any stakeholder
151
This is required to handle anticipated changes during a project.
Establishment of formal change management process, including defined procedures
152
Invoices, PSOW, payment information, contractor documentation (ex. WPI, plans) are part of this type of document.
Procurement
153
What decision is the determination of what work should occur in-house and what should be outsourced?
Make or buy
154
What is a set of attributes desired by the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract?
Source selection criteria
155
These are used to align seller’s objectives with buyer’s objectives.
Incentives and awards
156
What type of contracts are used when the requirements are clear and measurable and unlikely to change?
Fixed price
157
What type of contracts are used when the requirements are not clear and not measurable and like to change?
Cost reimbursable
158
What document contains a clearly stated set of goals, requirements, and outcomes so they can provide a complete response to the bid document?
Procurement statement of work
159
With what type of contract does the Seller have high risk and the Buyer has low risk in comparison to each other?
Fixed price
160
With what type of contract does contract, the Buyer have high risk because it will require returning some contract costs to the Seller?
Cost reimburseable
161
Name 3 types of bid documents.
1) Request for information
2) Request for proposal
3) Request for quote
162
Which bid document is used to gather details for other, more details bid documents?
Request for information
163
What type of bid document is used when selection is based on low price acceptable offer (apples-to-apples comparison is possible)?
Request for quote
164
What type of bid document is used when technical capability or technical approach are most important (apples-to-apples comparison is not possible)?
Request for proposal
165
What is conducted to ensure all bidders have a clear and common understanding of project requirements?
Bidder conferences
166
What is the difference between centralized purchasing and decentralized purchasing?
Centralized procurement works in a corporate group while decentralized procurement has the purchasing role on the team (usually PJM).
167
Who provides formal written notice that a contract has been completed?
Authorized procurements administrator
168
Creation of ________________ are driven by the organization, not the PJM (i.e., some companies document everything; others do not).
artifacts
169
What meeting is conducted to discuss what the team should start doing, what the team should stop doing, and what the team should continue doing as it relates to process?
Sprint retrospective
170
What project team members are allowed to attend the sprint retrospective?
1) The product owner
2) The ScrumMaster
3) The dev team
171
In which 2 meetings are only the the product owner, the ScrumMaster, and the dev team allowed to attend?
1) Daily scrum/stand-up
2) Sprint retrospective
172
What does project governance align with?
Organizational governance structure
173
What 2 aspects of escalation should be defined in consultation with stakeholders, reflecting their roles, responsibilities, and the project complexity?
1) Escalation paths
2) Thresholds
174
What 2 things should a project's paths and thresholds align with?
1) Organizational hierarchy
2) Project's risk profile
175
During a project, _____________ may occur, but ______________ already has occurred.
risk; issue/impediment
176
Risk is the effect of uncertainty regarding _____________________.
objectives
177
What is the result when a project does not focus sufficiently on risk?
A lot of focus on issue management will be needed.
178
What is often required when unidentified risks emerge as issues?
Workarounds
179
When stakeholders are not actively engaged with a project, a project manager may do this.
Make them issue owners
180
What lifecycle contains the following activities: Identifying knowledge, Capturing knowledge, Sharing knowledge, Applying knowledge, Assessing benefits?
Knowledge Transfer Lifecycle
181
What are the 2 points in a project where a kickoff might occur?
1) At the end of initiating, before planning
2) At the end of planning, before executing
182
This type of knowledge can be shared via interactions between people.
Tacit
183
This type of knowledge can be shared via emails, lessons learned registers.
Explicit knowledge
184
Name 2 means for determining criteria to successfully close a project or project phase.
1) Standards
2) Benchmarks
185
What definition is identified at the beginning of the project?
Definition of done
186
Nearing project closure, it’s important to know how much work is left and that is often visualized via the this chart?
Burndown
187
In general, these should be collected on a regular basis throughout the project regardless of the methodology used.
Lessons learned
188
By what method can a project team determine that an operations team is ready to take over a project?
Stakeholder analysis
189
Name 2 things that are not methods.
1) A plan
2) A charter
190
What is the data analysis tool most likely to be used to compare what was initially planned to the result as a project is preparing for close out?
Variance analysis
191
What term does PMI use to describe formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables?
Validate scope
192
What term does PMI use to describe all activities across all PJM processes?
Close Project
193
What is an active disagreement between people with opposing opinions or principles?
Conflict
194
Name 3 ways in which conflict should be addressed.
1) Early
2) Directly
3) Privately
195
What conflict stages are shown here: Problem to solve --> Disagreement --> Contest --> Fight or flight (aka, Crusade) --> Intractable (aka, World War)?
Speed Leas'
196
This is the situation within which something exists or happens, and that can help explain it.
Context
197
What are Confronting, Collaborating, Compromising, Smoothing/Accommodating, Forcing, Withdrawal/Avoiding?
Types of conflict resolution
198
What is defined as an inspirational statement of an idealistic emotional future of a company or group?
Vision
199
What is defined as a short statement of why an org or project exists?
Mission
200
These drive everything an org or project does.
Core values
201
Simply put, any _____________ requires dealing with individuals separately, then bringing them together.
conflict
202
What term refers to the demographics of the workplace which includes ethnicity, gender, et al?
Diversity
203
This gives each employee fair and equal access.
Equity
204
This ensures everyone on the team is treated fairly and respectfully, despite differences.
Inclusion
205
This centers around the employee experience of feeling accepted in the workplace; it’s a stronger term than inclusion.
Belonging
206
In Scrum, who demonstrates the most servant leadership?
A Scrum Master/Facilitator
207
Where are issues recorded on an Agile project?
Impediments log
208
Where can visibility into the phase of resolution for each impediment be provided?
Impediments Kanban board
209
Name 3 types of leadership other than servant leadership.
1) Charismatic (leading via personality)
2) Transactional (via give-and-take, tit-for-tat)
3) Laissez-faire ("let do," used primarily when experienced teams are involved)
210
What project document helps to reinforce people who do outstanding work and inspire others?
Rewards and recognition plan
211
T/F: The team charter includes a plan for project managers to recognize excellent team members.
False
212
This 3-factor model focused on project power, urgency, and legitimacy.
Salience model
213
These are are quantifiable measures used to track, monitor, and assess success or performance.
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)
214
Examples of this are Project completion rate; Team productivity; Quality metrics; Collaboration level.
Team KPIs
215
Example of this are Task completion rate; Performance quality; Individual productivity; Attendance/Punctuality.
Individual KPIs
216
Name the 5 stages of team performance in Tuckman's Ladder.
Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning
217
DOWNTIME is an acronym used to describe this in Lean methodology.
Waste:
Defects
Overproduction
Waiting
Not utilizing talent
Transportation
Inventory excess
Motion waste
Excess processing
218
_________________ is measured by how quickly work is being completed
Velocity
219
What chart can show the project scope as well as the velocity at which the project is moving?
Burnup chart
220
What type of time is time required to process an item (ex. thru Development, Testing, Deployment, and Completion [Done])?
Cycle time
221
What type of time is the total time it takes to deliver an item, measured from the time it is added to the board to the time it is completed (ex. thru Backlog, Development, Testing, Deployment, and Completion [Done])?
Lead time
222
What type of time is time an item waits until work starts?
Response time
223
What term describes when an individual or department experiences consequences for their performance or actions?
Accountability
224
What is the top level in a WBS?
Project level
225
What is the difference between a WBS and an activity/task list?
1) WBS is hierarchical; deliverable oriented
2) Activity List is a list; activity oriented
226
On a Resource Assignment Matrix, only one person can be assigned this role.
Accountable
227
What types of needs may evolve through the life of the project?
Training
228
What type of training is sometimes mandatory?
Safety and security
229
With regard to resource planning, what may evolve through the life of a project?
Team members
230
What are defined as specific abilities acquired through training and experience?
Skills
231
What are defined as a combination of knowledge, skills, behaviors, and attitudes that contribute to personal effectiveness?
Competencies
232
What is another name for a Resource Assignment Matrix?
RACI matrix
233
What is the obligation to execute a task?
Responsibility
234
What is ownership of the outcome of a task?
Accountability
235
Project team assignments would not be included in this project document.
A team charter
236
In Agile, knowledge sharing often occurs through big visible charts (BVCs), also known as ____________________.
information radiators
237
Name 3 types of big visible charts (BVCs) utilized for Agile projects.
1) Kanban board
2) Burnup/Burndown charts
3) Scrum board
238
Critical path is a term used in this type of project management.
Predictive/Traditional
239
Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have prioritize impediments according to this method.
MoSCow method
240
These activities gauge the effectiveness of team responses in dealing with risks and their root causes.
Risk reviews
241
In negotiation theory, this acronym refers to the most advantageous alternative course of action a party can take if negotiations fail and an agreement cannot be reached.
BATNA: Best Alternative to Negotiated Agreement
242
BATNA includes this area of alignment, also described via an acronym.
ZOPA: Zone of Possible Agreement
243
Stephen R. Covey encourages this belief that in negotiation, it is possible to find solutions and move away from zero-sum mentality.
Win-win
244
In general, negotiation is not conducted by this organizational role.
The project manager
245
Name the 4 types of communication.
1) Formal verbal
2) Informal verbal
3) Formal written
4) Informal written
246
Name 3 ways information can be communicated.
1) Interactive (conversations, meetings)
2) Push (letters, emails, voice mails, press releases)
3) Pull (web portals, knowledge repos)
247
Which project document includes stakeholder identification information, assessment information, and stakeholder classification?
Stakeholder register
248
To ensure stakeholder alignment of expectations to objectives, name 2 things that the PJM can review to obtain stakeholder buy-in.
1) Objectives
2) Project plan
249
Name 3 ways of conducting root cause analysis.
1) 5 Whys
2) Fishbone diagram (Ishikawa diagram)
3) Cause and effect analysis
250
Steps to ___________________ include defining the problem or decision, gather information, establish decision making criteria, generating options, evaluating options, facilitating discussion, making a decision.
reach consensus
251
This is the definition to meet at the end of a sprint.
Definition of done
252
_____________________ applies to entire product increment (generic idea applied to code) while _______________ applies to specific product backlog item (ex. product is fully tested vs works on Android and iOS).
Definition of done; acceptance criteria
253
This is definition that looks at an item on the product backlog and asks if the team is ready to move the item to the sprint backlog.
Definition of ready
254
This idea from XP will benefit a project because it helps with visions/brings people together around a common idea/makes complex info accessible for all.
A metaphor
255
This idea from XP helps teams identify a vision and charges them with developing a vision for the project using cereal boxes then presented back to the group.
Product box exercise
256
Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading are potential terms for describing stakeholders in what product document?
Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix (SEAM)
257
A PJM can promote engagement across locations and team members by having multiple types of __________________ available.
communication tools
258
What are the foundational guidelines that shape a company’s culture, values, and operational processes?
Organizational principles
259
These are specific and apply to individual and team behavior and need to align with organizational principles.
Ground rules
260
Responsibility, Respect, Honesty, Fairness are the tenets of what PMI guideline?
PMI’s Code of Conduct
261
This project document contains the project objectives and is signed by the project sponsor.
The project charter
262
T/F: Mentoring is a general means for building relationships and sharing knowledge and coaching is more specific and aimed at achieving certain goals.
True
263
Which Agile software development technique develops the skill sets of less experienced team members?
Pair programming
264
Swarming is an extreme version of this.
Pair programming
265
Name 3 examples of personality indicator tools.
1) Myers-Briggs
2) Equilibria/e Colors (DiSC)
3) Core Strength/Total SDI
266
Daniel Goleman identified 4 aspects of this: social skills, self-awareness, self-regulation, and social awareness.
Emotional intelligence
267
Top to bottom, what do these describe:
1) Self-actualization
2) Esteem
3) Love and belonging
4) Safety, security, order
5) Basic needs
Abraham Harold Maslow: Hierarchy of Needs
268
What is set by government body, regulatory bodies, industry associations, or even one’s own organization?
Compliance requirements
269
This project document is most likely to address compliance.
Quality management plan
270
What is the most important aspect of adhering to compliance requirements in an organization?
To protect the business
271
This is often addressed in the quality management plan (describes how applicable polices, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve quality objectives) on predictive projects.
Compliance
272
What 2 actions should project team members take when they are concerned that a project may not be compliant in several areas.
1) The PJM should ask the team members individually to write down their ideas
2) The project team should meet together to review the ideas
273
What activity should be conducted regularly to determine if a project is compliant with all internal policies, processes, and procedures?
Audits
274
Processes are _____________ while products/documents/parts (physical items) are _______________.
audited; inspected
275
A compliance issue needs to be escalated when an issue exceeds this.
Tolerances
276
In which project document are tolerances recorded?
Quality management plan
277
Which project document is the quality management plan a sub-document of?
Project management plan
278
What is the ultimate measure of project success?
Value
279
What is an outcome that provides value to the performing org and/or the project customer?
A project benefit
280
Benefits are identified by these project team members.
Stakeholders
281
Name the 3 documents on which benefits might be listed.
1) Benefits management plan (less common)
2) Benefits register (best answer)
3) Business case
282
What is a type of business value delivered with publicly traded companies that is not present in other organizations?
Shareholder value
283
What is the feasibility study to establish the validity of the project benefits?
A business case
284
What document authorizes the existence of the project?
The project charter
285
What document describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled or closed?
The project management plan
286
What should/would be conducted regularly throughout a project to ensure that benefits have been delivered but, more importantly, realized?
Benefits assessment
287
T/F: A project with $4m net present value (NPV) is better than one with $7m NPV.
False
288
T/F: A project with a 9-month payback period is better than one with a 15-month payback period.
True
289
What is the acronym for a strategic tool for understanding market growth or decline, business position, potential and direction for operations.
PESTLE (Political, Economic, Social, Technical, Legal, Environmental)
290
Name the 3 primary elements of the triple constraint of project management.
1) Scope
2) Schedule
3) Cost
291
In Traditional PJM, what element of the triple constraint is most fixed?
Scope
292
In Agile PJM, what elements of the triple constraint is most fixed?
Schedule, Cost
293
On what type of projects do we often evaluate scope changes against the project baselines and customer expectations?
Predictive
294
What types of changes should a PJM focus on when deciding on recommended changes to move forward with?
Those that are most critical to the project’s goals and objectives
295
What document visualizes a series of releases?
A product roadmap
296
Before what document is created must an initial project vision and a high level product backlog be in place for an Agile project?
A product roadmap
297
What project document includes a description of how organizational change will be evaluated on the project?
Change management plan
298
Name 4 models for change management.
1) Kotter’s Eight Steps of Change
2) PROSCI change model
3) Prosci ADKAR
4) Kubler-Ross curve
299
What project document would include the expected benefits of a prospective change?
A benefits management plan
300
Formulate change, Plan change, Implement change, Manage transition, Sustain change are the 5 components of what framework?
PMI change management framework
301
Name 2 subsets of Lean methodology.
1) Agile
2) Kanban
302
This communication method allows for true exchange of information.
Interactive
303
Project managers can confirm their stakeholder strategy by conducting these kinds of meetings with smaller groups of stakeholders.
Direct/One-on-one meetings
304
Project managers can confirm their stakeholder strategy by conducting these activities with large groups of stakeholders.
Surveys
305
Name 2 tools that can be used to ensure effective interactive engagement with stakeholders in disparate locations.
1) Online forums
2) Virtual meetings
306
Who is the person assigned by the performing org to lead the project team and ensure project objectives are met?
Project manager
307
Who are the members of the project team who are directly involved in the project management activities?
Project management team
308
Who is the set of individuals performing work of the project to achieve its objectives?
Project team
309
What types of biases are more likely to negatively impact the success of a project?
Unconscious biases
310
During the discovery phase of a project, the primary benefit of using this is it helps to minimize risk and avoid potential problems.
Critical thinking
311
What is awareness and understanding one’s own thought processes?
Metacognition
312
Name 3 decision making techniques.
1) Roman voting (thumbs up/down for yes/no decisions)
2) Wideband Delphi (estimating until consensus)
3) Fist of Five voting (indicating support via holding up number of fingers)
313
What term refers to the timing and frequency of project deliverables?
Delivery cadence
314
What is the difference between multiple deliveries and periodic deliveries?
Multiple refers to delivery at different time throughout a project while periodic deliveries occur on a fixed schedule.
315
What approach involves delivery of finished work in pieces?
Incremental
316
What approach involves potential delivery of a product increment that is unfinished?
Iterative
317
PMI’s view is that ______________ teams should try to be located together (to help with collaboration and to facilitate pair programming) while ______________ teams don’t necessarily need to be located together
adaptive (agile), predictive (traditional)
318
T/F: An adaptive project requires a low level of stakeholder involvement.
False
319
Use of a minimum viable product (MVP) is useful when there is uncertainty related to this.
Funding
320
Why is a prototype not an MVP?
Because it is not usable by the customer.
321
The choice between predictive and adaptive project management depends on the level of ________________ uncertainty.
requirements
322
Incremental is optimized for speed of _________________.
delivery
323
According to PMI, what is the triple bottom line?
1) Financial impacts
2) Social impacts
3) Environmental impacts
324
Adaptive planning is conducted utilizing which concept?
Last Responsible Moment
325
What types of estimating does Planning Poker use?
Relative estimating
326
Crashing shortens schedules by applying this.
More resources, including people and money
327
Fast Tracking shortens schedules by forcing this.
Overlap or performing activities in parallel
328
In schedule execution, these allow a successor to advance in relation to a predecessor.
Leads
329
In schedule execution, these force a delay in a task relationship.
Lags
330
What are used to determine if there are any bottlenecks in the process?
Task boards
331
Name 2 ways to optimize/tailor processes.
1) Lean production methods
2) Retrospectives/Lessons learned
332
What is the activity where the ratio of value-added and non-value-added activities ratio is looked at?
Value stream mapping
333
What is the most important difference between Lean and Six Sigma?
Lean focuses on reducing waste (i.e., activities that don't add value) while Six Sigma focuses on reducing process variation and defects.
334
What is a documented economic feasibility study that captures the reasons for initiating a project?
A business case
335
What is a strategic management template invented by Osterwalder around 2008; a visual chart describing value proposition?
Business Model Canvas
336
What is a version of the Business Model Canvas adapted by Ash Maurya in 2008 and designed more for startups than the Business Model Canvas?
Lean Canvas
337
What approach does these items reflect: Collect reqs, Define scope, Create WBS, Define activities, Sequence activities?
Predictive
338
__________ are logical containers for a large user story too big for a single iteration.
Epics
339
___________________ are brief descriptions of an outcome for a specific user; a promise for a conversation.
User stories
340
______________ represent single behaviors of a product.
Features
341
_____________________ are large groups of customer value associated by a common factor.
Themes
342
What occurs when the definition of done is constantly moving?
Done drift
343
T/F: Scope creep has a less negative connotation than done drift.
False
344
What is a common mistake or oversight when trying to assess aspects of a project that can lead to incorrect insights, resulting in poor decision-making, ineffective resource allocation, and other negative outcomes?
A measurement pitfall
345
What measurement pitfall explains why performance levels decrease when you are not watching them (people’s behaviors change when they are being monitored)?
The Hawthorne Effect
346
What measurement pitfall is a datapoint that doesn’t fall within a PJM’s point of view and so is eliminated?
Confirmation bias
347
What measurement pitfall is a measure that looks impressive but doesn’t provide meaningful insight into performance or progress?
Vanity metric
348
What measurement pitfall is when unrelated things are linked (ex. Ice cream consumption causes murder)?
Correlation vs causation
349
What type of indicators predict future performance?
Leading
350
What type of indicators assess the current status of business?
Lagging
351
