Aileen Ellis's PMP Exam Prep Course Notes Cards Flashcards

1
Q

Scrum is a type of this kind of development.

A

Agile

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2
Q

This says that Scrum is mint chocolate chip, a flavor of Agile that centers people.

A

Ice cream analogy

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3
Q

These three roles make up a Scrum team.

A

1) Product owner
2) ScrumMaster (aka, Facilitator)
3) Development team

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4
Q

In the Scrum framework, this person envisions the product and what it needs to be.

A

Product owner

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5
Q

Sprint/Iteration planning yields this.

A

Sprint backlog

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6
Q

Sprint execution yields this.

A

Potentially shippable product increment

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7
Q

This part of the sprint involves the review and/or demo of what is ready to ship.

A

Sprint/Iteration review

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8
Q

This part of a sprint involves lessons learned and process improvements that can be identified and executed.

A

Sprint retrospective

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9
Q

This involves the following 7 activities: sprint, sprint planning, daily scrum, sprint execution, sprint review, sprint retrospective, product backlog grooming.

A

Scrum

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10
Q

An organization will often estimate portfolio backlog items in terms of these sizes.

A

T-shirt

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11
Q

INVEST is an acronym describing criteria for these.

A

Good user stories
(1) Independent
(2) Negotiable
(3) Valuable
(4) Estimable
(5) Sized appropriately
(6) Testable

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12
Q

A team that has completed a user story writing workshop will prioritize stories via this.

A

Story mapping

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13
Q

The items at the ______________ of the product backlog are smaller and have more detail than the items below

A

top

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14
Q

The ______________ backlog contains higher level items such as features and user stories, which are larger units of work that often span multiple sprints.

A

product

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15
Q

A product backlog must contain items that are targeted for this.

A

The current release

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16
Q

DEEP (Roman Pichler and Mike Cohn): Describe these 3 characteristics of a good product backlog.

A

1) Detailed appropriately
2) Emergent and estimated
3) Prioritized

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17
Q

A development team spends how much of their time on product backlog refinement?

A

Up to 10%

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18
Q

In Scrum, these are not viewed as commitments, targets, or goals.

A

Product backlog estimates

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19
Q

During planning poker, which team gets to estimate?

A

Only the development team

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20
Q

This may have multiple sprints.

A

A project

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21
Q

Why are sprint lengths fixed?

A

To ensure predictability with regard to when a demo or review will occur.

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22
Q

Shorter sprints allow for this to be done more quickly and so, better.

A

Risk mitigation (team fail more quickly)

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23
Q

What word represents the amount of work that gets completed in a sprint?

A

Velocity

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24
Q

What are the only things counted when calculating velocity?

A

Story points of features that are done

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25
Q

What this is agreed to, a product owner commits to not changing it during a sprint.

A

Sprint goal

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26
Q

Who has the authority to terminate a sprint?

A

The product owner

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27
Q

In Scrum, this day is the same as an effort day.

A

Ideal day

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28
Q

What is the subset of the product backlog that the team plans to complete in the current sprint?

A

The sprint backlog

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29
Q

How are tasks in the sprint backlog estimated?

A

In hours

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30
Q

In Scrum, what describes how to build something?

A

Tasks

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31
Q

What is the determination of shipping a product increment?

A

Business decision

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32
Q

These are used when a team needs to spend time on work that is not directly related to a user story or requirement.

A

A spike

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33
Q

What type of release requires the scope of the release needs to be flexible?

A

Fixed-date release

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34
Q

What is a is a previously agreed period of time?

A

A time box

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35
Q

What is determined during sprint planning?

A

Sprint goal

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36
Q

What is done so the product backlog in Scrum maintains a prioritized state and gives the team has a clear understanding of the next most valuable work to be done?

A

Backlog grooming/refinement

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37
Q

This is created to provide a detailed plan for the next Sprint and a clear understanding of the work that the Development Team will do.

A

The sprint backlog

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38
Q

What team determines how to do the sprint-level tasks?

A

The development team

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39
Q

What kind of pace should every sprint have?

A

A sustainable pace

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40
Q

On a Scrum team, who is responsible for deciding what will be developed and in what order?

A

The product owner (or project manager is the product owner is not an option)

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41
Q

What is another word for the daily scrum?

A

Daily stand-up

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42
Q

In Scrum, what member of the Scrum team assigns work?

A

The development team

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43
Q

What is the Scrum framework based on?

A

1) Values
2) Principles
3) Practices

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44
Q

The primary function of this is to serve as a single source of requirements.

A

The product backlog

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45
Q

Which development methodology is better used among small project teams?

A

Agile

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46
Q

This development methodology allows for feedback for unfinished work to improve and modify that work.

A

Iterative

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47
Q

This development methodology provides a finished deliverable that the customer may be able to use immediately.

A

Incremental

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48
Q

These methodologies used together on the same project is called Hybrid.

A

Predictive and Agile

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49
Q

If defects can lead to loss of life, PMI would indicate a lean towards this development methodology for a project.

A

Traditional (Predictive)

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50
Q

This development methodology requires high levels of stakeholder involvement.

A

Agile, because sprints are short and engagement is continual.

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51
Q

What is a blanket term for many approaches, including Scrum, XP, Crystal, ScrumBan, AUP, FDD, DSDM?

A

Agile

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52
Q

What may be provided to a project via may be financial (revenue), shareholder-related, customer, employee knowledge (learning), channel partner-related means?

A

Value

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53
Q

What are provided first to reach a minimum viable product?

A

Most important features

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54
Q

What type of board shows the “what” of the project’s work execution?

A

Kanban or task board

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55
Q

What type of board shows the “how much” of the project’s work execution?

A

A burndown or burnup chart

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56
Q

What is the best way to meet and engage with stakeholders?

A

Face-to-face

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57
Q

What model involves the following steps: encode, transmit message, run into noise, decode, acknowledge (note: feedback or respond would be next)?

A

Communication

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58
Q

What type of communication is distributed like emails, letters, memos, and voice mails?

A

Push

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59
Q

What type of communication involves large quantities of information provided via databases or repositories like web portals, intranet sites, and SharePoint?

A

Pull

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60
Q

What is a communication method where you have several scrum teams with a Scrum Master who runs a daily standup, then conducts a standup of only the Scrum Masters?

A

Scrum of scrums

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61
Q

What technique allows for the visualization of scrum of scrums?

A

Release trains

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62
Q

What is defined as the effect of uncertainty on objectives?

A

Risk

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63
Q

What document considers types of technical, people, and management risks of a project?

A

Risk breakdown structure

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64
Q

What activity can result in group think and rabbit holing and many people don’t do it well?

A

Brainstorming

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65
Q

What document contains the risk methodology, roles and responsibilities for risk, stakeholder risk appetite (ex. risk prone, risk averse, risk neutral)?

A

Risk Management Plan

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66
Q

Where are lists of risks maintained?

A

Risk register

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67
Q

This document lists individual project risks, risk owners, and agreed upon risk responses.

A

Risk register

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68
Q

This document reflects an assessment of overall project risk exposure and agreed upon risk response strategy.

A

Risk report

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69
Q

When no plan is in place to address a risk because a risk was not identified in advance, you’d have to identify this.

A

Workaround

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70
Q

Bigger risk may require this type of analysis, which is more comprehensive, slower, and more expensive.

A

Quantitative

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71
Q

This type of analysis determines which risk the project is most sensitive to.

A

Sensitivity analysis

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72
Q

This type of risk analysis does not involve holding other values at their baseline.

A

Modeling/Simulation

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73
Q

This type of risk analysis does involve holding other values at their baseline.

A

Sensitivity analysis

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74
Q

This type of risk analysis precedes quantitative risk analysis.

A

Qualitative

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75
Q

These types of risks are dealt with via escalation, avoidance, transferring, mitigating, or accepting.

A

Threats

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76
Q

These types of risks are dealt with via escalation, exploitation, sharing, enhancing, and acceptance.

A

Opportunities

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77
Q

This is defined as anyone who can impact or be impacted (or believes they can be impacted) by a project.

A

Stakeholder

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78
Q

This project document includes assessment info, identification info, and classification info regarding stakeholders.

A

Stakeholder register

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79
Q

This project document contains a strategy to engage stakeholders.

A

Stakeholder Engagement Plan

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80
Q

This is a business document that will show project objectives and an initial list of affected stakeholders (and ROI).

A

A business case

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81
Q

Name four stakeholder analysis models.

A

1) Power/interest
2) Power/influence
3) Influence/impact
4) Salience

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82
Q

This stakeholder analysis model considers power, urgency, and legitimacy.

A

Salience model

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83
Q

This is made up of management plans and baselines under strict change control.

A

Project plan

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84
Q

Project Documents like logs, registers, reports, estimates, and forecasts require what kind of change control?

A

Loose(r)

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85
Q

Name 2 business documents for a project.

A

1) Business case
2) Benefits management plan

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86
Q

These types of issues require engagement from project sponsors rather than day-to-day management activities.

A

Regulatory issues

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87
Q

This project document captures current and desired engagement levels of project stakeholders.

A

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

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88
Q

This project document shows connections among stakeholders and includes details like stakeholder name, current engagement level, desired engagement level, asks what do we need from them?, strategy, owner

A

Stakeholder engagement plan

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89
Q

What type of estimating provides information from past project or activity that contains similarities to a new one?

A

Analogous

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90
Q

What type of estimating takes a lot of data from which a statistician generates an algorithm and ensures a higher level of accuracy?

A

Parametric

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91
Q

What type of estimating includes a mid-range level of accuracy since it provides more than a single point estimate?

A

Three-point

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92
Q

The PERT formula is associated with which type of estimation?

A

Three-point

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93
Q

What is the PERT formula for three-point estimation?

A

(P + 4ML + O)/6

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94
Q

What types of estimates should be developed by the people who do the work/perform the tasks?

A

Schedule and costs

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95
Q

_________________ is how decisions are made on a project.

A

Governance

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96
Q

How is the Cost Performance Index calculated?

A

CPI=Earned Value (EV)/Actual Cost (AC)
(EV divided by AC)

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97
Q

This project document includes information about is about identifying and acquiring resources needed—team members, equipment, materials.

A

Resource management plan

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98
Q

What project document does the team develop, describing their operating guidelines

A

Team charter

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99
Q

What type of reserves are for unidentified project costs (unknown unknowns)?

A

Management reserves

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100
Q

What type of reserves are for identified project costs, like reword (known unknowns)?

A

Contingency reserves

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101
Q

The 100 Percent Rule is observed when a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) contains all work but this kind of work.

A

Extra

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102
Q

What is the external exercise referring to what the current project is trying to achieve (“historical data” refers to projects conducted in the past)?

A

Benchmarking

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103
Q

This type of chart helps to predict when work will be completed.

A

Burndown

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104
Q

What is a project team’s tool for assessing product backlog against current issues?

A

Impediment log

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105
Q

Once a vision and a high-level product backlog have been defined, the project will visualize a series of releases. What is this visualized series of releases called?

A

Product roadmap

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106
Q

The order of schedule activities in which development metholodogy is Create WBS, Define activities, Estimate resource requirements < - > Estimate durations, Determine critical path, Finalize project schedule?

A

Predictive

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107
Q

If a task on this falls behind, it’s on the critical path.

A

Near critical path

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108
Q

Changes to the schedule have the least impact when they are identified at this time.

A

Early

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109
Q

Stakeholder engagement plans focus on this.

A

Building relationships with others

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110
Q

What document focuses on how team members are going to interact with each other; how they’ll deal with conflict; what are the team guidelines?

A

The team charter

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111
Q

What series of documents is the team charter not part of?

A

Project plan

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112
Q

What is defined as being suitable for its intended purpose while satisfying customer expectations?

A

Quality

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113
Q

The cost of this includes prevention costs, appraisal costs, and failure costs.

A

Cost of Quality (CoQ)

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114
Q

These are the costs of planning and executing a project so it is error-free.

A

Prevention costs

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115
Q

These are the costs of evaluating processes and their outputs to ensure quality.

A

Appraisal costs

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116
Q

These are the costs that result from poor quality, such as rework or defects.

A

Failure costs

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117
Q

Proactive costs to ensure quality (ex. training)

A

Conformance

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118
Q

Reactive costs because of poor quality (ex. rework)

A

Non-conformance

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119
Q

What activity allows for proactive improvement of implementation of processes?

A

Quality audit

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120
Q

Name 3 means of surveying quality.

A

1) Metrics
2) Audits
3) Feedback

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121
Q

What type of system can help to standardize the process of quality control and ensure continuous quality improvement?

A

Quality Management System

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122
Q

PMI likes to implement _______ to address root cause and obtain systemic improvement

A

systems

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123
Q

What is defined as the features and functions that characterize a product, service, or result?

A

Product scope

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124
Q

What is defined as the work performed to deliver a product, service, or result with specified features and functions?

A

Project scope

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125
Q

When requirements are gathered via this technique, ideas that lead to those requirements have already been generated.

A

Focus groups

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126
Q

What is the document that will guide the project team in defining the project scope?

A

Scope Management Plan

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127
Q

These plans tell how to do something associated with a project.

A

Management plans

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128
Q

Which project document tells how to identify and manage the scope?

A

Scope management plan

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129
Q

What type of analysis is best done by questionnaires and surveys?

A

Statistical analysis

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130
Q

What is the method by which PMI says confidential information is collected?

A

Interviews

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131
Q

What kind of analysis is not a requirements gathering activity since it is related to quantitative risk analysis?

A

Sensitivity analysis

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132
Q

What is essential to accurate requirements collection?

A

Early and frequent stakeholder involvement

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133
Q

In Predictive project management, what document creates a hierarchical decomposition of work?

A

Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

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134
Q

What is the lowest level of the WBS?

A

The work package

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135
Q

What level is one level above the work package on the WBS?

A

Control Account/Cash Account

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136
Q

What WBS concept oversees the Control Account?

A

Control Account Manager

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137
Q

How is each feature in the product backlog measured?

A

Story points or Ideal days

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138
Q

How is each task in the sprint backlog measured?

A

Effort hours or Ideal hours

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139
Q

Scope creep can be mitigated by a good/well developed ______________ process.

A

change control

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140
Q

Who owns quality control? Who owns scope validation?

A

1) Quality control is owned by an internal project team.
2) Scope validation is owned by a customer or project sponsor.

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141
Q

Name the 2 inputs of the sprint review meeting.

A

1) Sprint goal review
2) Potentially shippable product increments

142
Q

Name 2 outputs of the sprint review.

A

1) Product backlog refinement
2) Updated release plan

143
Q

Which project management approach contains the following steps: Determine development approach, Plan scope management, Collect requirements, Define scope, Create WBS, Define activities?

A

Predictive

144
Q

What plan consolidates and coordinates each team’s plan, ensuring alignment with the overall project objectives?

A

Integrated project plan

145
Q

What data points are vital to the creation of a comprehensive and integrated project plan?

A

1) Cost
2) Scope
3) Risk
4) Schedule planning

146
Q

PMI feels that ____________ is too narrow when talking about project work; it prefers __________________.

A

scheduled; plan

147
Q

What is the first thing to do when a change request has been initiated?

A

Evaluation of the change

148
Q

Name 2 actions that normally affect performance against baselines.

A

1) Corrective
2) Preventive

149
Q

PMI would say that if someone initiates a change request when it’s already been rejected by the project sponsor, this should happen.

A

It should be rejects–if the request is being made by the same person.

150
Q

Who may request changes to a project?

A

Any stakeholder

151
Q

This is required to handle anticipated changes during a project.

A

Establishment of formal change management process, including defined procedures

152
Q

Invoices, PSOW, payment information, contractor documentation (ex. WPI, plans) are part of this type of document.

A

Procurement

153
Q

What decision is the determination of what work should occur in-house and what should be outsourced?

A

Make or buy

154
Q

What is a set of attributes desired by the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract?

A

Source selection criteria

155
Q

These are used to align seller’s objectives with buyer’s objectives.

A

Incentives and awards

156
Q

What type of contracts are used when the requirements are clear and measurable and unlikely to change?

A

Fixed price

157
Q

What type of contracts are used when the requirements are not clear and not measurable and like to change?

A

Cost reimbursable

158
Q

What document contains a clearly stated set of goals, requirements, and outcomes so they can provide a complete response to the bid document?

A

Procurement statement of work

159
Q

With what type of contract does the Seller have high risk and the Buyer has low risk in comparison to each other?

A

Fixed price

160
Q

With what type of contract does contract, the Buyer have high risk because it will require returning some contract costs to the Seller?

A

Cost reimburseable

161
Q

Name 3 types of bid documents.

A

1) Request for information
2) Request for proposal
3) Request for quote

162
Q

Which bid document is used to gather details for other, more details bid documents?

A

Request for information

163
Q

What type of bid document is used when selection is based on low price acceptable offer (apples-to-apples comparison is possible)?

A

Request for quote

164
Q

What type of bid document is used when technical capability or technical approach are most important (apples-to-apples comparison is not possible)?

A

Request for proposal

165
Q

What is conducted to ensure all bidders have a clear and common understanding of project requirements?

A

Bidder conferences

166
Q

What is the difference between centralized purchasing and decentralized purchasing?

A

Centralized procurement works in a corporate group while decentralized procurement has the purchasing role on the team (usually PJM).

167
Q

Who provides formal written notice that a contract has been completed?

A

Authorized procurements administrator

168
Q

Creation of ________________ are driven by the organization, not the PJM (i.e., some companies document everything; others do not).

A

artifacts

169
Q

What meeting is conducted to discuss what the team should start doing, what the team should stop doing, and what the team should continue doing as it relates to process?

A

Sprint retrospective

170
Q

What project team members are allowed to attend the sprint retrospective?

A

1) The product owner
2) The ScrumMaster
3) The dev team

171
Q

In which 2 meetings are only the the product owner, the ScrumMaster, and the dev team allowed to attend?

A

1) Daily scrum/stand-up
2) Sprint retrospective

172
Q

What does project governance align with?

A

Organizational governance structure

173
Q

What 2 aspects of escalation should be defined in consultation with stakeholders, reflecting their roles, responsibilities, and the project complexity?

A

1) Escalation paths
2) Thresholds

174
Q

What 2 things should a project’s paths and thresholds align with?

A

1) Organizational hierarchy
2) Project’s risk profile

175
Q

During a project, _____________ may occur, but ______________ already has occurred.

A

risk; issue/impediment

176
Q

Risk is the effect of uncertainty regarding _____________________.

A

objectives

177
Q

What is the result when a project does not focus sufficiently on risk?

A

A lot of focus on issue management will be needed.

178
Q

What is often required when unidentified risks emerge as issues?

A

Workarounds

179
Q

When stakeholders are not actively engaged with a project, a project manager may do this.

A

Make them issue owners

180
Q

What lifecycle contains the following activities: Identifying knowledge, Capturing knowledge, Sharing knowledge, Applying knowledge, Assessing benefits?

A

Knowledge Transfer Lifecycle

181
Q

What are the 2 points in a project where a kickoff might occur?

A

1) At the end of initiating, before planning
2) At the end of planning, before executing

182
Q

This type of knowledge can be shared via interactions between people.

A

Tacit

183
Q

This type of knowledge can be shared via emails, lessons learned registers.

A

Explicit knowledge

184
Q

Name 2 means for determining criteria to successfully close a project or project phase.

A

1) Standards
2) Benchmarks

185
Q

What definition is identified at the beginning of the project?

A

Definition of done

186
Q

Nearing project closure, it’s important to know how much work is left and that is often visualized via the this chart?

A

Burndown

187
Q

In general, these should be collected on a regular basis throughout the project regardless of the methodology used.

A

Lessons learned

188
Q

By what method can a project team determine that an operations team is ready to take over a project?

A

Stakeholder analysis

189
Q

Name 2 things that are not methods.

A

1) A plan
2) A charter

190
Q

What is the data analysis tool most likely to be used to compare what was initially planned to the result as a project is preparing for close out?

A

Variance analysis

191
Q

What term does PMI use to describe formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables?

A

Validate scope

192
Q

What term does PMI use to describe all activities across all PJM processes?

A

Close Project

193
Q

What is an active disagreement between people with opposing opinions or principles?

A

Conflict

194
Q

Name 3 ways in which conflict should be addressed.

A

1) Early
2) Directly
3) Privately

195
Q

What conflict stages are shown here: Problem to solve –> Disagreement –> Contest –> Fight or flight (aka, Crusade) –> Intractable (aka, World War)?

A

Speed Leas’

196
Q

This is the situation within which something exists or happens, and that can help explain it.

A

Context

197
Q

What are Confronting, Collaborating, Compromising, Smoothing/Accommodating, Forcing, Withdrawal/Avoiding?

A

Types of conflict resolution

198
Q

What is defined as an inspirational statement of an idealistic emotional future of a company or group?

A

Vision

199
Q

What is defined as a short statement of why an org or project exists?

A

Mission

200
Q

These drive everything an org or project does.

A

Core values

201
Q

Simply put, any _____________ requires dealing with individuals separately, then bringing them together.

A

conflict

202
Q

What term refers to the demographics of the workplace which includes ethnicity, gender, et al?

A

Diversity

203
Q

This gives each employee fair and equal access.

A

Equity

204
Q

This ensures everyone on the team is treated fairly and respectfully, despite differences.

A

Inclusion

205
Q

This centers around the employee experience of feeling accepted in the workplace; it’s a stronger term than inclusion.

A

Belonging

206
Q

In Scrum, who demonstrates the most servant leadership?

A

A Scrum Master/Facilitator

207
Q

Where are issues recorded on an Agile project?

A

Impediments log

208
Q

Where can visibility into the phase of resolution for each impediment be provided?

A

Impediments Kanban board

209
Q

Name 3 types of leadership other than servant leadership.

A

1) Charismatic (leading via personality)
2) Transactional (via give-and-take, tit-for-tat)
3) Laissez-faire (“let do,” used primarily when experienced teams are involved)

210
Q

What project document helps to reinforce people who do outstanding work and inspire others?

A

Rewards and recognition plan

211
Q

T/F: The team charter includes a plan for project managers to recognize excellent team members.

A

False

212
Q

This 3-factor model focused on project power, urgency, and legitimacy.

A

Salience model

213
Q

These are are quantifiable measures used to track, monitor, and assess success or performance.

A

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)

214
Q

Examples of this are Project completion rate; Team productivity; Quality metrics; Collaboration level.

A

Team KPIs

215
Q

Example of this are Task completion rate; Performance quality; Individual productivity; Attendance/Punctuality.

A

Individual KPIs

216
Q

Name the 5 stages of team performance in Tuckman’s Ladder.

A

Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning

217
Q

DOWNTIME is an acronym used to describe this in Lean methodology.

A

Waste:
Defects
Overproduction
Waiting
Not utilizing talent
Transportation
Inventory excess
Motion waste
Excess processing

218
Q

_________________ is measured by how quickly work is being completed

A

Velocity

219
Q

What chart can show the project scope as well as the velocity at which the project is moving?

A

Burnup chart

220
Q

What type of time is time required to process an item (ex. thru Development, Testing, Deployment, and Completion [Done])?

A

Cycle time

221
Q

What type of time is the total time it takes to deliver an item, measured from the time it is added to the board to the time it is completed (ex. thru Backlog, Development, Testing, Deployment, and Completion [Done])?

A

Lead time

222
Q

What type of time is time an item waits until work starts?

A

Response time

223
Q

What term describes when an individual or department experiences consequences for their performance or actions?

A

Accountability

224
Q

What is the top level in a WBS?

A

Project level

225
Q

What is the difference between a WBS and an activity/task list?

A

1) WBS is hierarchical; deliverable oriented
2) Activity List is a list; activity oriented

226
Q

On a Resource Assignment Matrix, only one person can be assigned this role.

A

Accountable

227
Q

What types of needs may evolve through the life of the project?

A

Training

228
Q

What type of training is sometimes mandatory?

A

Safety and security

229
Q

With regard to resource planning, what may evolve through the life of a project?

A

Team members

230
Q

What are defined as specific abilities acquired through training and experience?

A

Skills

231
Q

What are defined as a combination of knowledge, skills, behaviors, and attitudes that contribute to personal effectiveness?

A

Competencies

232
Q

What is another name for a Resource Assignment Matrix?

A

RACI matrix

233
Q

What is the obligation to execute a task?

A

Responsibility

234
Q

What is ownership of the outcome of a task?

A

Accountability

235
Q

Project team assignments would not be included in this project document.

A

A team charter

236
Q

In Agile, knowledge sharing often occurs through big visible charts (BVCs), also known as ____________________.

A

information radiators

237
Q

Name 3 types of big visible charts (BVCs) utilized for Agile projects.

A

1) Kanban board
2) Burnup/Burndown charts
3) Scrum board

238
Q

Critical path is a term used in this type of project management.

A

Predictive/Traditional

239
Q

Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have prioritize impediments according to this method.

A

MoSCow method

240
Q

These activities gauge the effectiveness of team responses in dealing with risks and their root causes.

A

Risk reviews

241
Q

In negotiation theory, this acronym refers to the most advantageous alternative course of action a party can take if negotiations fail and an agreement cannot be reached.

A

BATNA: Best Alternative to Negotiated Agreement

242
Q

BATNA includes this area of alignment, also described via an acronym.

A

ZOPA: Zone of Possible Agreement

243
Q

Stephen R. Covey encourages this belief that in negotiation, it is possible to find solutions and move away from zero-sum mentality.

A

Win-win

244
Q

In general, negotiation is not conducted by this organizational role.

A

The project manager

245
Q

Name the 4 types of communication.

A

1) Formal verbal
2) Informal verbal
3) Formal written
4) Informal written

246
Q

Name 3 ways information can be communicated.

A

1) Interactive (conversations, meetings)
2) Push (letters, emails, voice mails, press releases)
3) Pull (web portals, knowledge repos)

247
Q

Which project document includes stakeholder identification information, assessment information, and stakeholder classification?

A

Stakeholder register

248
Q

To ensure stakeholder alignment of expectations to objectives, name 2 things that the PJM can review to obtain stakeholder buy-in.

A

1) Objectives
2) Project plan

249
Q

Name 3 ways of conducting root cause analysis.

A

1) 5 Whys
2) Fishbone diagram (Ishikawa diagram)
3) Cause and effect analysis

250
Q

Steps to ___________________ include defining the problem or decision, gather information, establish decision making criteria, generating options, evaluating options, facilitating discussion, making a decision.

A

reach consensus

251
Q

This is the definition to meet at the end of a sprint.

A

Definition of done

252
Q

_____________________ applies to entire product increment (generic idea applied to code) while _______________ applies to specific product backlog item (ex. product is fully tested vs works on Android and iOS).

A

Definition of done; acceptance criteria

253
Q

This is definition that looks at an item on the product backlog and asks if the team is ready to move the item to the sprint backlog.

A

Definition of ready

254
Q

This idea from XP will benefit a project because it helps with visions/brings people together around a common idea/makes complex info accessible for all.

A

A metaphor

255
Q

This idea from XP helps teams identify a vision and charges them with developing a vision for the project using cereal boxes then presented back to the group.

A

Product box exercise

256
Q

Unaware, Resistant, Neutral, Supportive, Leading are potential terms for describing stakeholders in what product document?

A

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix (SEAM)

257
Q

A PJM can promote engagement across locations and team members by having multiple types of __________________ available.

A

communication tools

258
Q

What are the foundational guidelines that shape a company’s culture, values, and operational processes?

A

Organizational principles

259
Q

These are specific and apply to individual and team behavior and need to align with organizational principles.

A

Ground rules

260
Q

Responsibility, Respect, Honesty, Fairness are the tenets of what PMI guideline?

A

PMI’s Code of Conduct

261
Q

This project document contains the project objectives and is signed by the project sponsor.

A

The project charter

262
Q

T/F: Mentoring is a general means for building relationships and sharing knowledge and coaching is more specific and aimed at achieving certain goals.

A

True

263
Q

Which Agile software development technique develops the skill sets of less experienced team members?

A

Pair programming

264
Q

Swarming is an extreme version of this.

A

Pair programming

265
Q

Name 3 examples of personality indicator tools.

A

1) Myers-Briggs
2) Equilibria/e Colors (DiSC)
3) Core Strength/Total SDI

266
Q

Daniel Goleman identified 4 aspects of this: social skills, self-awareness, self-regulation, and social awareness.

A

Emotional intelligence

267
Q

Top to bottom, what do these describe:
1) Self-actualization
2) Esteem
3) Love and belonging
4) Safety, security, order
5) Basic needs

A

Abraham Harold Maslow: Hierarchy of Needs

268
Q

What is set by government body, regulatory bodies, industry associations, or even one’s own organization?

A

Compliance requirements

269
Q

This project document is most likely to address compliance.

A

Quality management plan

270
Q

What is the most important aspect of adhering to compliance requirements in an organization?

A

To protect the business

271
Q

This is often addressed in the quality management plan (describes how applicable polices, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve quality objectives) on predictive projects.

A

Compliance

272
Q

What 2 actions should project team members take when they are concerned that a project may not be compliant in several areas.

A

1) The PJM should ask the team members individually to write down their ideas
2) The project team should meet together to review the ideas

273
Q

What activity should be conducted regularly to determine if a project is compliant with all internal policies, processes, and procedures?

A

Audits

274
Q

Processes are _____________ while products/documents/parts (physical items) are _______________.

A

audited; inspected

275
Q

A compliance issue needs to be escalated when an issue exceeds this.

A

Tolerances

276
Q

In which project document are tolerances recorded?

A

Quality management plan

277
Q

Which project document is the quality management plan a sub-document of?

A

Project management plan

278
Q

What is the ultimate measure of project success?

A

Value

279
Q

What is an outcome that provides value to the performing org and/or the project customer?

A

A project benefit

280
Q

Benefits are identified by these project team members.

A

Stakeholders

281
Q

Name the 3 documents on which benefits might be listed.

A

1) Benefits management plan (less common)
2) Benefits register (best answer)
3) Business case

282
Q

What is a type of business value delivered with publicly traded companies that is not present in other organizations?

A

Shareholder value

283
Q

What is the feasibility study to establish the validity of the project benefits?

A

A business case

284
Q

What document authorizes the existence of the project?

A

The project charter

285
Q

What document describes how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled or closed?

A

The project management plan

286
Q

What should/would be conducted regularly throughout a project to ensure that benefits have been delivered but, more importantly, realized?

A

Benefits assessment

287
Q

T/F: A project with $4m net present value (NPV) is better than one with $7m NPV.

A

False

288
Q

T/F: A project with a 9-month payback period is better than one with a 15-month payback period.

A

True

289
Q

What is the acronym for a strategic tool for understanding market growth or decline, business position, potential and direction for operations.

A

PESTLE (Political, Economic, Social, Technical, Legal, Environmental)

290
Q

Name the 3 primary elements of the triple constraint of project management.

A

1) Scope
2) Schedule
3) Cost

291
Q

In Traditional PJM, what element of the triple constraint is most fixed?

A

Scope

292
Q

In Agile PJM, what elements of the triple constraint is most fixed?

A

Schedule, Cost

293
Q

On what type of projects do we often evaluate scope changes against the project baselines and customer expectations?

A

Predictive

294
Q

What types of changes should a PJM focus on when deciding on recommended changes to move forward with?

A

Those that are most critical to the project’s goals and objectives

295
Q

What document visualizes a series of releases?

A

A product roadmap

296
Q

Before what document is created must an initial project vision and a high level product backlog be in place for an Agile project?

A

A product roadmap

297
Q

What project document includes a description of how organizational change will be evaluated on the project?

A

Change management plan

298
Q

Name 4 models for change management.

A

1) Kotter’s Eight Steps of Change
2) PROSCI change model
3) Prosci ADKAR
4) Kubler-Ross curve

299
Q

What project document would include the expected benefits of a prospective change?

A

A benefits management plan

300
Q

Formulate change, Plan change, Implement change, Manage transition, Sustain change are the 5 components of what framework?

A

PMI change management framework

301
Q

Name 2 subsets of Lean methodology.

A

1) Agile
2) Kanban

302
Q

This communication method allows for true exchange of information.

A

Interactive

303
Q

Project managers can confirm their stakeholder strategy by conducting these kinds of meetings with smaller groups of stakeholders.

A

Direct/One-on-one meetings

304
Q

Project managers can confirm their stakeholder strategy by conducting these activities with large groups of stakeholders.

A

Surveys

305
Q

Name 2 tools that can be used to ensure effective interactive engagement with stakeholders in disparate locations.

A

1) Online forums
2) Virtual meetings

306
Q

Who is the person assigned by the performing org to lead the project team and ensure project objectives are met?

A

Project manager

307
Q

Who are the members of the project team who are directly involved in the project management activities?

A

Project management team

308
Q

Who is the set of individuals performing work of the project to achieve its objectives?

A

Project team

309
Q

What types of biases are more likely to negatively impact the success of a project?

A

Unconscious biases

310
Q

During the discovery phase of a project, the primary benefit of using this is it helps to minimize risk and avoid potential problems.

A

Critical thinking

311
Q

What is awareness and understanding one’s own thought processes?

A

Metacognition

312
Q

Name 3 decision making techniques.

A

1) Roman voting (thumbs up/down for yes/no decisions)
2) Wideband Delphi (estimating until consensus)
3) Fist of Five voting (indicating support via holding up <x> number of fingers)</x>

313
Q

What term refers to the timing and frequency of project deliverables?

A

Delivery cadence

314
Q

What is the difference between multiple deliveries and periodic deliveries?

A

Multiple refers to delivery at different time throughout a project while periodic deliveries occur on a fixed schedule.

315
Q

What approach involves delivery of finished work in pieces?

A

Incremental

316
Q

What approach involves potential delivery of a product increment that is unfinished?

A

Iterative

317
Q

PMI’s view is that ______________ teams should try to be located together (to help with collaboration and to facilitate pair programming) while ______________ teams don’t necessarily need to be located together

A

adaptive (agile), predictive (traditional)

318
Q

T/F: An adaptive project requires a low level of stakeholder involvement.

A

False

319
Q

Use of a minimum viable product (MVP) is useful when there is uncertainty related to this.

A

Funding

320
Q

Why is a prototype not an MVP?

A

Because it is not usable by the customer.

321
Q

The choice between predictive and adaptive project management depends on the level of ________________ uncertainty.

A

requirements

322
Q

Incremental is optimized for speed of _________________.

A

delivery

323
Q

According to PMI, what is the triple bottom line?

A

1) Financial impacts
2) Social impacts
3) Environmental impacts

324
Q

Adaptive planning is conducted utilizing which concept?

A

Last Responsible Moment

325
Q

What types of estimating does Planning Poker use?

A

Relative estimating

326
Q

Crashing shortens schedules by applying this.

A

More resources, including people and money

327
Q

Fast Tracking shortens schedules by forcing this.

A

Overlap or performing activities in parallel

328
Q

In schedule execution, these allow a successor to advance in relation to a predecessor.

A

Leads

329
Q

In schedule execution, these force a delay in a task relationship.

A

Lags

330
Q

What are used to determine if there are any bottlenecks in the process?

A

Task boards

331
Q

Name 2 ways to optimize/tailor processes.

A

1) Lean production methods
2) Retrospectives/Lessons learned

332
Q

What is the activity where the ratio of value-added and non-value-added activities ratio is looked at?

A

Value stream mapping

333
Q

What is the most important difference between Lean and Six Sigma?

A

Lean focuses on reducing waste (i.e., activities that don’t add value) while Six Sigma focuses on reducing process variation and defects.

334
Q

What is a documented economic feasibility study that captures the reasons for initiating a project?

A

A business case

335
Q

What is a strategic management template invented by Osterwalder around 2008; a visual chart describing value proposition?

A

Business Model Canvas

336
Q

What is a version of the Business Model Canvas adapted by Ash Maurya in 2008 and designed more for startups than the Business Model Canvas?

A

Lean Canvas

337
Q

What approach does these items reflect: Collect reqs, Define scope, Create WBS, Define activities, Sequence activities?

A

Predictive

338
Q

__________ are logical containers for a large user story too big for a single iteration.

A

Epics

339
Q

___________________ are brief descriptions of an outcome for a specific user; a promise for a conversation.

A

User stories

340
Q

______________ represent single behaviors of a product.

A

Features

341
Q

_____________________ are large groups of customer value associated by a common factor.

A

Themes

342
Q

What occurs when the definition of done is constantly moving?

A

Done drift

343
Q

T/F: Scope creep has a less negative connotation than done drift.

A

False

344
Q

What is a common mistake or oversight when trying to assess aspects of a project that can lead to incorrect insights, resulting in poor decision-making, ineffective resource allocation, and other negative outcomes?

A

A measurement pitfall

345
Q

What measurement pitfall explains why performance levels decrease when you are not watching them (people’s behaviors change when they are being monitored)?

A

The Hawthorne Effect

346
Q

What measurement pitfall is a datapoint that doesn’t fall within a PJM’s point of view and so is eliminated?

A

Confirmation bias

347
Q

What measurement pitfall is a measure that looks impressive but doesn’t provide meaningful insight into performance or progress?

A

Vanity metric

348
Q

What measurement pitfall is when unrelated things are linked (ex. Ice cream consumption causes murder)?

A

Correlation vs causation

349
Q

What type of indicators predict future performance?

A

Leading

350
Q

What type of indicators assess the current status of business?

A

Lagging

351
Q
A