PMHNP certification Exam KM Deck Flashcards

1
Q

FrontText

A

BackText

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

<div><b>Which patient is at highest risk for SI</b></div>

<div><b>A. 30y/o married AA female with previous SI attempt *1 risk factor</b></div>

<div><b>B. 35 y/o single Asian male with previous SI attempt *3 risk factors</b></div>

<div><b>C. 38 y/o single AA male who is a manager of a bank *2 risk factors</b></div>

<div><b>D. 68 y/o single white male with depression *5 risk factors (age, male, white, depression)</b></div>

A

<div><b>D. 68 y/o single white male with depression *5 risk factors (age, male, white, depression)</b></div>

<div></div>

<div>Count the risk factors</div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When interview teenagers (16 y/o) that arrive with their parents what should you do?

A

interview them separately from parents. <br></br>-This helps Build therapeutic rapport with teens by telling them the info is confidential. Parents may be upset but remember you are advocating for the child.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which Ethnic group has the highest rate of suicide?

A

Native Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Example A patient is being treated for schizophrenia with olanzapine. Which of the following is the most common side effect of olanzapine?<br></br>A. Increased waist circumference<br></br>B. EPS (not as common in atypical antipsychotics d/t 5HT2A)-receptor antagonism<br></br>C. Increased Lipids<br></br>D. Metabolic Syndrome

A

<div><b>D. Metabolic Syndrome</b> (UMBRELLA ANSWER)</div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which antipsychotics have the least weight gain?

A

<div><b>Latuda, Abilify, (also least sedating), Geodon-if patient has metabolic syndrome consider switching to one of the medications above. Or if the patient is overly sedated try switching to ABILIFY</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which mood stabilizer have the least weight gain?

A

Lamictal <br></br>-But remember all mood stabilizers cause some weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When presented with a question about typical vs atypical antipsychotic the answer is usually to start of a

A

atypical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

<div><b>A client presents with complains of changes in appetite, feeling fatigued, problems with sleep-rest cycle, and changes in libido. What is the neuroanatomical area of the brain that is responsible for the normal regulation of these functions?</b></div>

<div><b>A. </b>Thalamus</div>

<div><b>B.</b> Hypothalamus</div>

<div><b>C. </b>Limbic System</div>

<div><b>D. </b>Hippocampus</div>

A

Hypothalamus<br></br>A, B, & D are all part of the limbic system so you can rule that out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When a patient is hesitant to participate in treatment you should encourage?

A

Bring a support person like a husband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Thyroid-Stimulating hormone normal level

A

0.5-5.0 Mu/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When T4 and T3 are high and TSH is low what is the diagnosis

A

HYPERTHYROIDISM, TSH secretion decreases: TSH LOW à key symptoms HEAT INTOLERANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Key symptoms of Heat Intolerance

A

Hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When T4 and T3 are Low and TSH is high what is the diagnosis

A

(HYPOTHYROIDISM) TSH secretion increased: TSH HIGH à COLD INTERANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Key symptoms of Cold Intolerance

A

Hypothyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Hyperthyroid can mimic

A

Mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypothyroid can mimic

A

Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient on depakote complains of RUQ pain and has reddish/brown urine

A

Hepatoxicity<br></br>-Check LFTs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Signs of Depakote toxicity

A

Disorientation, confusion, lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

You suspect depakote toxicity what do you do?

A

Check <br></br>-LFT<br></br>-Ammonia<br></br>-Depakote Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What herbal supplement can cause hepatoxicity?

A

Kava Kava

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When taking Kava Kava in combinations with other medications you should caution about

A

Risk of Hepatoxicity and Sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

TCAs carry a risk of

A

Hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

two psychotropics known to cause steven johnson syndrome

A

lamictal and tegretol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What nationality is most suseptible of getting steven johnson?

A

Asians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When treating asians with tegretal screen for?

A

HLAB-1502 Allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What two medications cause agranulocytosis?

A

Clozaril & Tegretal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Agranulocytosis when to discontinue medication

A

Less than 1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When monitoring for agranulocytosis in patients look for s/s of what?

A

Infection<br></br>-Fever, sore throat, fatigue, chills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Before starting any mood stabilizer in a female of childbearing age be sure to check?

A

HCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which two medications may decrease the risk of suicide?

A

clozaril and lithium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Medications that increase lithium level

A

NSAID-ibuprofen, INDOCIN<br></br>THIAZIDES-hydrochlorithiazide ACE INHIBITORS-lisinopril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Ace inhibitors are treatment of choice for?

A

Heart Failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Certain medications are known to increase lithium level, but HOW?

A

by reducing renal clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When educating a patient about lithium teach them about

A

Hyponatremia<br></br>Dehydration-hot days, exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Normal Lithium Level

A

0.6-1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Lithium Toxicity

A

1.5 or above<br></br>Discontinue and re-order lithium level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lithium level of 1.4

A

Monitor for toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Labs before starting lithium

A

<div><b>TSH, BUN, CREATININE, HCG, U/A to check for presence of protein in the urine (4+ protein is concerning for renal impairment)à4+ protein in urine=MONITOR FOR TOXICITY</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

4+ protein in the urine of a patient on lithium

A

<div><b>4+ protein is concerning for renal impairment</b></div>

<div><b>4+ protein in urine=MONITOR FOR TOXICITY</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Lithium side effects

A

<div><b>hypothyroid, leukocytosis, maculopapular rash, t-wave inversion, Coarse Hand Tremor, GI upset (nausea, vomiting, anorexia) </b></div>

<div></div>

<div>-Some of these are also signs of toxicity</div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Signs of lithium toxicity

A

confusion, ataxia, GI upset, palpitation, tremor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

NMS

A

<div><b>muscle rigidity, mutism (because of muscle rigidity), increased CPK (caused by muscle contraction and muscle destruction), increase WBC, increased WBC, myoglobinuria (also from muscle destruction)</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cherry colored urine in a patient that exercises a lot

A

test for myoglobinuria may be a sign of rhabdo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Serotonin Syndrome

A

With any drug that increases 5-HT (e.g., MAO inhibitors, SNRIs, TCAs) hyperthermia, confusion, myoclonus, cardiovascular instability, flushing, diarrhea, seizures. <br></br>-Treatment: cyproheptadine (5-HT2 receptor antagonist).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Treatment for NMS

A

<div><b>Stop Offending Medication</b></div>

<div><b>-Dantrolene (muscle relaxer)</b></div>

<div><b>-Bromocriptine (Dopamine D2 agonist). </b></div>

<div><b>*In question focus on what they are asking for….dopamine agonist vs muscle relaxer</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Treatment for Serotonin Syndrome

A

<div><b>Stop Med (1 or more SSRI, SSNRI, TCA, MOAI)</b></div>

<div><b>-Cyproheptadine</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Triptans

A

<div><b>Used for MIGRAINES</b></div>

<div><span><b>-These meds increase serotonin</b></span><b> </b></div>

<div><b>example SUMATRIPTAN </b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

<div><b>patient taking Prozac and started on sumatriptan</b></div>

A

<div><b>-call PCP to ask them to switch the migraine med if patient already on SUMATRIPTAN do not start antidepressant without talking to PCP</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How long do you wait when switching between an SSRI to an MAOI?

A

2 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How long do you wait when switching between Prozac and MAOI?

A

5-6 weeks wash out period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the first line treatment for depression and why?

A

<div><b>SSRI-First line treatment for depression due to less risk of injury from OVERDOSE</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If a cancer patient has depression what should you consider?

A

Treating with a medication with minimal drug/drug side effects like Lexapro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Patient with depression worries about sexual dysfunction what would be the medication of choice?

A

Wellbutrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Primary symptoms of depression include fatigue and low energy what med would you chose?

A

Wellbutrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Wellbutrin is contraindicated in patients with

A

Seizures and anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which medications are best for neuropathic pain?

A

SNRI<br></br>Gabapentin<br></br>TCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Secondary to the black box warning providers caring for patients on antidepressants should assess for?

A

Suicidality, frequency, and severity at EVERY appointment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which meds have the worse serotonin discontinuation syndrome

A

Those with short half lives<br></br>such as zoloft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Symptoms of serotonin withdrawal syndrome

A

<div><b>Fever, achiness, soreness, lethargy, fatigue, impaired memory, decreased concentration, GI UPSET</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><span>Shits and Shivers</span></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Ages of onset for schizophrenia in males vs females

A

<div><b>-MALES 18-25 years</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-FEMALE 25-35 years</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Schizophrenia increases the risk for

A

<div>SUICIDE</div>

<div><span><b>*HIGH RISK OF SI in SCHIZOPHRENIA*</b></span><b> </b></div>

<div><b>Just having schizophrenia increases your risk of suicide. </b></div>

<div><b>MUST ASK ABOUT SI, EVERYTIME (frequency, severity of thoughts)</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What increases the causes or increases the risk or schizophrenia

A

<div><b>excessive pruning of synapses</b></div>

<div><b>-inadequate synapse formation, </b></div>

<div><b>-intrauterine insults such as maternal exposure to toxins, viral agents, maternal substance use, maternal illness, maternal malnutrition, fetal oxygen deprivation, </b></div>

<div><b>-first order relative (mom/dad)</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

MRI or PET scan what is seen in schizophrenia

A

<div><b>EVERYTHING DECREASES EXCEPT </b><u><b>VENTRICLES</b></u></div>

<div></div>

<div><span><u><b>-You will see VENTRICULAR ENLARGEMENT</b></u></span></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Stimulants can potentiate the release of what neurotransmitter?

A

Dopamine which can worsen symptoms of schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Assertive Community Treatment (ACT)

A

<div><b>a form of rehabilitation post hospitalization, in home treatment</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What level of prevention is ACT?

A

Tertiary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What adjunctive treatment is important in schizophrenia

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Exercise for mental health patients can promote

A

Cognition<br></br>Quality of Life<br></br>Long-term health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

ACT is ideal for patients with a history of

A

Treatment non-compliance<br></br><br></br>-Think about making the treatment convenient for them–>bringing it to their home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What diagnosis has the highest risk of Homicidality

A

Antisocial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In the MMSE how do you test for abstraction?

A

<div><b>proverb interpretation (everyone that lives in glass houses shouldn’t throw stones) Are they able to think abstractly</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Thought Process-Tangential

A

<div><b>means that their response has nothing to do with the question</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Circumstantial

A

<div><b>means that their response goes in circles instead of getting to the point of the question</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Mental Status-Thought Content includes

A

<div><b>SI/HI/AH/VH</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Another name for MMSE

A

Folstein Scale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How to assess concentration on MMSE

A

Serial 7s or perform an activity backwards i.e list the days of the week backwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Assess ability to learn new material

A

repeat 3 words after me

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Assess ability to recall

A

repeat 3 words after 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Assess fund of knowledge

A

Who is the president

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is a quick and easy way to assess for neurological issues

A

Clock drawing test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

If patient is unable to draw a clock this indicates

A

Problem with the right hemisphere, cerebrum, or parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

mesolimbic pathway

A

<div><b>Hyperactivity of dopamine in the this pathway mediates positive psychotic symptoms</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-Antagonism of D2 receptors in this pathway treats positive psychotic symptoms</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

mesocortical pathway

A

<div><b>-Decreased dopamine in the this projection to the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is postulated to be responsible for negative and depressive symptoms of schizophrenia</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Nigrostriatal Pathway

A

<div><b>-This pathway mediates motor movements</b></div>

<div><b>-Dopamine blockade in this pathway can lead to </b><u><b>increase acetylcholine levels</b></u></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-Blockade of dopamine (D2) receptors in this pathway can lead to EPS, i.e dystonia, parkinsonian symptoms and akathisia</b></div>

<div></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Low Dopamine in the nigrostriatal pathway increases which neurotransmitter

A

<div><b>-Dopamine has a reciprocal relationship with acetylcholine (Ach) (LOW DOPAMINE INCREASE Ach)</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

<div><b>Long-standing D2 blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway can lead to </b></div>

A

<div><b>tardrive dyskinesia</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Tuberoinfundibular pathway

A

<div><b>-Blockade of D2 receptors in this pathway can lead to increase prolactin levels leading to hyperprolactinemia which clinically manifests as amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and sexual dysfunction, gynecomastia</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-DECREASE DOPAMINE INCREASED PROLACTIN</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

<div><b>Long-term hyperprolactinemia can be associated with what condition</b></div>

A

<div><b>osteoporosis</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Normal Prolactin Level in Men

A

<div><b>level less than 20ng/ml</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Normal Prolactin Level in Women

A

<div><b>less than 25ng/ml</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which medication is the highest offender for increasing prolactin

A

Risperdal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Acute Dystonia + Treatment

A

<div><b>neck stiffness, muscle spasm of upper body especially neck/face/tongue</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-Treatment is IM COGENTIN + continue PO COGENTIN for several days</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Akathisia + Treatment

A

<div><b>may mimic anxiety, restlessness, can’t sit still, rocking, pacing</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-</b><span><b>First line Treatment</b></span><b> is BETA-BLOCKERS like PROPANOLOL (Inderal)</b></div>

<div><b>-</b><span><b>Second line treatment</b></span><b> is COGENTIN</b></div>

<div><span><b>-Third line treatment</b></span><b> is benzos</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Beta-Blockers such as Inderal are contraindicated with what type of asthma medication

A

<div><b>-DO NOT GIVE WITH BROCHODIALATOR such as ALBUTERAL this combination can cause bronchospasm</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

akinesia/bradykinesia + treatment

A

A. difficulty initiating movement; slowness of movement<br></br>-Treatment Cogentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

PSEUDOPARKINSON or PARKINSONIAN + Treatment

A

<div><b>caused by dopamine blockade, results in muscle rigidity, mask like facial expression, may look blunted, pill rolling tremors in fingers, shuffling gait, motor slowing</b></div>

<div><b>-Treatment COGENTIN</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

tardive dyskinesia + Treatment

A

<div><b>abnormal facial movements, grinding teeth, lip smacking, protruding tongue</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-Treatment DECREASE DOSE OF MED, DISCONTINUE MED, Switch to CLOZARIL, Switch to different med, VINPAT</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Does Cogentin Treat TD

A

<div><b>COGENTIN MAKES TD WORSE</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Typical onset of TD

A

<div><b>OCCURS 1-2 years TYPICALLY, but can be </b><u><b>ACUTE ONSET ALSO</b></u></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What non-psych med can cause TD?

A

<div><b>REGLAN (Metoclopramide) can CAUSE Tardive Dyskinesia must educate patient that this med or the combination of this PLUS antipsychotic can increase risk of TD*** encourage them to discontinue reglan if TD develops</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

<div>In<u><b>D</b></u>ucers CYP450</div>

A

<div>DECREASE</div>

<div></div>

<div><b>C</b>arbamazepine</div>

<div><b>R</b>ifampin</div>

<div><b>A</b>lcoholics (chronic)</div>

<div><b>P</b>henytoin</div>

<div></div>

<div><b>G</b>risiofulvin</div>

<div><b>P</b>henobarb</div>

<div><b>S</b>ulphonylureas </div>

<div></div>

<div>Crap GPS Induces me to Madness! </div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

<div>Inh<u><b>I</b></u>bitors of CYP450 </div>

A

INCREASE<br></br><br></br>Ciprofloxacin<br></br>Ritonavir<br></br>Amiodarone<br></br>Cimetidine<br></br>Ketoconazole <br></br><br></br>Acute Etoh<br></br>Macrolides<br></br>INH<br></br>Grapefruit Juice<br></br>Omeprazole<br></br><br></br>Crack Amigos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Erythromycin and Clarithromycin can cause

A

Increased tegretol levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

<div><b>Patient started on Clozaril or Zyprexa and two months later starts smoking</b></div>

A

<div><b>as a provider you know that the smoking can decrease the medication effectiveness</b></div>

<div><b>-Increase medication dose</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Patient has been a chronic smoker and has been stable on Zyrexa but tells you that he recently quit smoking cold turkey

A

<div><b>as a provider you know that you must now decrease the dose of the antipyshcotic</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Medications that cause mania

A

<div><b>Steroids, Disulfiram (Antabuse), Isoniazid (INH), Antidepressants in persons with bipolar</b></div>

<div></div>

<div>-If a patient must take steroids, the provider should <u>increase</u> the mood stabilizer</div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Medications that cause depression

A

<div><b>steroids, beta blockers, interferon, Accutane (isotrentinoin), some retroviral drugs, antineoplastic drugs, benzodiazepines, progesterone</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-may need to increase antidepressant</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Accutane (isotretinoin)

A

Can cause depression and birth defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Flonase

A

As a provider you know that flonase is a STEROID so it may exacerbate mood symptoms<br></br><br></br>Increase mood stabilizer to maintain stability, steroids can also trigger depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Flonase can trigger mood instability but it can also cause an increase in

A

<div>Psychosis</div>

<div><b>patient is taking flonase while on antipsychotic but you find that the antipsychotic is ineffective it is likely because the flonase is exacerbating psychosis</b></div>

<div><b>-increase the dose of antipsychotic</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in Addiction

A

Dopamine and GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Symptoms of Stimulant Abuse

A
  1. agitation/aggression<br></br>2. impaired judgment<br></br>3. euphoria<br></br>4. elevated BP<br></br>5. tachycardia<br></br>6. dilated pupils<br></br>7. hallucinations<br></br>8. TREMORS<br></br>9. IMSOMNIA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

If an anorexic patient complains of pain or bloating after eating this may indicate

A

delayed gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Medications that delay gastric emptying

A

<div><b>Omeprazole, ranitidine, famotidine</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Proton Pump Inhibitors (omeprazole & Protonix)

A

Decrease absorption of antipsychotics & SSRI<br></br><br></br>-MUST WAIT TWO HOURS BEFORE TAKING ANTIPSYCHOTIC OR SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When initiating an SSRI on an elderly patient you should advise about

A

increased anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Paradoxical effect

A

when meds cause the opposite effect than expected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Apoptosis

A

programmed cell death/neuronal loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

<div><b>At age 45 and above the patient displays mania for first time what should be ruled out </b></div>

A

MEDICAL CONDITION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

<div><b>Patient with bipolar disorder presents with depressed mood & emotional lability</b></div>

A

Give Depakote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Hallmark sx of Borderline Personality

A

Recurrent self harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Treatment for Borderline Personality

A

DBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Creator of DBT

A

Marsha Linehan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What activity is helpful in making a diagnosis of borderline personality

A

Journaling or diary keeping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Conversion Disorder

A

<div><b>STRESS leads to neurological symptoms such as seizures, paresthesia, blindness, mutism</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Adjustment Disorder

A

<div><b>adjusting to a situation resulting in depression or anxiety or both or mixed disturbance of emotions and conduct (this type is more common in children: insomnia, peer conflict, verbal altercations, truancy, crying)</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><span><b>-Symptoms occur within 3 months of the stressor</b></span></div>

<div><b>If question states recently moved, recent death….THINK ADJUSTMENT</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

factitious disorder

A

<div><b>when patients introduce foreign substances into their body or contaminate their food</b></div>

<div><b>-Faking illness but NO MOTIVE BEHIND IT</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Malingering

A

<div><b>Faking illness for financial gain</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Reactive Attachment

A

<div><b>common in children in foster care, abuse from parents</b></div>

<div><b>-Withdrawn and shows no emotion towards caregiver</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

ODD

A

<div><b>They deliberately annoy others, no aggression, defiance of authority</b></div>

<div>-Family Therapy is mainstay</div>

<div>-Child management /Parent management skills is the focus in therapy</div>

<div>-Positive reinforcement</div>

<div>-Boundary Setting</div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Conduct Disorder

A

<div><b>violence, criminal, fire setting, killing animals, gang activity, +AGGRESSION, NO REMORSE</b></div>

<div><b>-May need meds and therapy</b></div>

<div><b>-Goal of therapy is to target MOOD & AGGRESSSION (mood stabilizers, antipsychotics, alpha agonists/alpha 2 adrenergic receptor blockers such as guanfacine and clonidine)</b></div>

<div><b>-Monitor BP with guanfacine and clonidine</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Acute Stress Disorder

A

<div><b>similar to PTSD but the timeline differs</b></div>

<div><b>-heightened arousal, nightmares, flashbacks</b></div>

<div><b>-LESS THAN ONE MONTH</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

PTSD

A

<div><b>-OVER ONE MONTH</b></div>

<div><b>-3 HALLMARK SXS: intrusive re-experiencing of trauma, increased arousal, avoidance</b></div>

<div><b>-May also have NIGHTMARESà GIVE PRAZOSIN</b></div>

<div><b>-Non-pharm tx of PTSD- EMDR, CBT</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Panic attack vs Panic disorder (treatment)

A

Panic attack = BZ<br></br>Panic disorder = SSRI<br></br><br></br>Panic Attack is ACUTE<br></br>Panic Disorder is CHRONIC <br></br><br></br>Feels like impending doom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Tourette’s Syndrome

A

<div>Criteria for diagnosis</div>

<div>-TWO moto tics and ONE vocal tics</div>

<div>-LASTS more than ONE YEAR</div>

<div>-By age 18</div>

<div><b>**CHILDREN MAY NORMALLY HAVE TICS so if they have one tic only THIS IS NORMAL**</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Child presents with one tic and the parent is worried

A

<div><b>**CHILDREN MAY NORMALLY HAVE TICS so if they have one tic only THIS IS NORMAL**</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in Tourettes

A

DNS: Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Treatment for tourettes

A

<div><b>Treatment: Haldol, Pimozide, Abilify, Guanfacine, clonidine</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What type of medication can cause tics or exacerbate them

A

Stimulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in mood disorders

A

DNS: Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Serotonin + GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in ADHD

A

DNS: Dopamine, Norepinephrine, Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

part of brain implicated in ADHD

A

prefrontal cortex<br></br>basal ganglia <br></br>reticular activating system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

ADHD inattentive type is caused in what part of the brain

A

Prefrontal Cortex which is known to regulate ATTENTION and EXECUTIVE FUNCTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

A

Attention<br></br>Executive Function<br></br>Cognition<br></br>Processing<br></br>Working Memory<br></br>Problem Solving

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Deficit in the _____ can lead to ADHD inattentive type

A

Prefrontal Cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

<div><b>Teacher reports that the stimulant only works for first few hours of class</b></div>

A

<div><b>medication has worn off too fast. Order multiple dosing throughout the day</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

When does the aftercare plan start

A

on admission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

If parents become anxious while you are educating about a new diagnosis what should you do

A

<div>-Provide patient and parents information immediately don’t wait till discharge</div>

<div>-Parents may become anxious after a diagnosis of mental illness such as ADHD, <b>stop teaching</b> offer support because they will not absorb the education. <b>Provide supportive therapy</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in OCD

A

serotonin, dopamine, glutamate & GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

A tic may also be a ___

A

Compulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Facts about OCD

A

<div>Obsession/Compulsion</div>

<div>-A tic may be a compulsion</div>

<div>-If first order relative has OCD the child’s risk of developing OCD is increased</div>

<div>-Streptococcal infections increase risk of OCD</div>

<div><b>-Treatment SSRI-prozac, Zoloft, if adult you may also use TCA such as clomipramine</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

DMDD

A

<div><b>6-17 years ONLY</b></div>

<div><b>-Irritability for no reason, sad, depressed mood, tantrums, crying, moody, always mad</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

If patient presents with irritability or labile mood and you need help further delineating symptoms

A

Administer MOOD QUESTIONAIRE<br></br>7/13 Bipolar Diagnosis Likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Sleep Disorders are often _____ <br></br>So what should you assess if a parent reports that a child is having nightmares

A

<div>GENETIC </div>

<div><b>ask if someone in the family has a similar issue with sleep…look for family patterns of sleep problems</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

GAD

A

<div><b>Worry, apprehension, fear must LAST ATLEAST 6 MONTHS</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Delirium

A

<div><b>-ACUTE (within hours to days) onset of disturbance of LOC, COGNITION, </b></div>

<div><b>inattention</b></div>

<div><b>-Urinary Tract Infections are common cause for DELIRIUM always check UA</b></div>

<div><b>-Treatment is antipsychotics like HALDOL</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Dementia

A

<div><b>-Chronic and slow onset (months to years to develop)</b></div>

<div><b>-Mental decline in cognition, irritability, personality changes</b></div>

<div>-<b>When asked questions they may try to answer or MAKE UP ANSWERS (confabulate)</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Low levels of what labs may mimic dementia

A

Vit B12 and Folic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Cortical Dementia

A

Language and memory (aphasia and amnesia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Subcortical Dementia

A

Motor abnormalities/Mood issues like apathy, depression, irritability<br></br><br></br>HIV Dementia is a type of subcortical dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Early signs of HIV dementia

A

<div>subcortical form of dementia</div>

<div><b>COGNITIVE, MOTOR, BEHEAVIOR for example a patient with lack of coordination, unsteady gait</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Treatment for HIV dementia

A

Antivirals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Pseudo Dementia

A

<div><b>Depression causes the memory issues, common in older adults</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>-Also assess onset of symptoms, pseudo dementia is more acute onset</b></div>

<div><b>-When asked questions they often say “I DON’T KNOW”</b></div>

<div></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Instruments to use to differentiate between dementia and pseudo dementia

A

<div><b>-Use instrument to further screen out cognitive issues such as SLUMS, MOCHA, MMSE</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

hallmark of lewy body dementia

A

visual hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Frontotemporal lobe Dementia

A

<div>PICKs Disease </div>

<div><span><b>-Hallmark is personality changes, language difficulties, poor impulse control, and behavioral changes</b></span></div>

<div>-May see slurred speech or difficulty getting words out </div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

What lobe is associated with ability to understand what others are saying (comprehending speech)

A

Temporal Lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in Autism

A

GABA, Glutamate, Serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Autism

A

<div>a disorder that appears in childhood and is marked by deficient communication, social interaction, Poor eye contact, May not respond when you call their name, Stereotypical movement</div>

<div><b>When play they often like to line up their toys, stack them in tidy rows</b></div>

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Broken Mirror Theory of Autism

A

<div><b>Explains that the child’s presentation is caused by the mirror neuron i.e dysfunction in the mirror neuron</b></div>

173
Q

Risk Factors for Autism

A

Male gender, genetic loading, intellectual disability, parents ages, preterm

174
Q

Screening tools for Autism

A

ADOS-G (autism diagnostic observation schedule-genetic)<br></br>ASQ (ages and stages questionnaire) <br></br>M-CHAT (modified-checklist for autism-toddler)

175
Q

Where is Norepinephrine produced?

A

locus coeruleus and medullary reticular formation

176
Q

Where is serotonin produced?

A

raphe nuclei

177
Q

Where is dopamine produced?

A

substantia nigra, ventral tegmental area, nucleaus accumbens

178
Q

Where is acetylcholine synthesized?

A

Basal nucleus of Meynert

179
Q

Hippocampus

A

a neural center located in the limbic system; helps process memory and manage stress

180
Q

Limbic System

A

The limbic system is the part of the brain involved in our behavioral and emotional responses, especially when it comes to behaviors we need for survival: feeding, reproduction and caring for our young, and fight or flight responses.<br></br>-Hippocampus<br></br>-Amygdala <br></br>-Hypothalamus<br></br>-Thalamus

181
Q

Amygdala function

A

Responsible for the response and memory of emotions, especially fear

182
Q

Thalamus function

A

relay station for sensory impulses, pain

183
Q

hypothalamus function

A

<div>homeostasis, temperature, thirst, appetite, sex drive, sleep cycle, emotions</div>

<div><b>* believed to serve a regulatory role in aggression</b></div>

184
Q

anterior cingulate cortex

A

brain region that regulates cognitive function, decision making, empathy, impulse control, and emotions

185
Q

Cerebellum

A

Balance and coordination

186
Q

signs of lead toxicity

A

<div><b>developmental delay, learning diff., irritability, loss of appetite, weight loss, sluggishness, fatigue, abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, hearing loss, seizures, eating non-food items PICA</b></div>

<div><b>Hint home built before 1970’s</b></div>

<div><b>TEST FOR LEAD</b></div>

187
Q

When caring for an infant that is about to die?

A

<div><b>GIVE THE BABY TO THE PARENTS and allow them to grieve</b></div>

188
Q

Risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Age<br></br>smoking <br></br>caffeine<br></br>lack of exercise<br></br>diet lacking calcium and vit D<br></br><br></br>Provide Education

189
Q

<div><b>Assume you are doing group therapy and there is a patient that is not comfortable sharing but you are trying to promote interpersonal learning. What should you do? </b></div>

A

<div><b>Provide </b><u><b>adjunctive individual session </b></u><b>that will help facilitate group participation</b></div>

190
Q

Cognitive Therapy

A

<div>-Aaron Beck</div>

<div><b>Replacing irrational or distortive thoughts with positive thoughts</b></div>

191
Q

Behavioral Therapy

A

NAME?

192
Q

Humanistic Therapy

A

NAME?

193
Q

Existential Therapy

A

Victor Frankl -an insight therapy that focuses on the elemental problems of existence, such as death, meaning, choice, and responsibility, emphasized making courageous life choices. <br></br>-Emphasizes accepting freedom and making responsible choices<br></br>-Focus on the present<br></br><br></br>Why am I here, What is my purpose

194
Q

Interpersonal Therapy

A

<div>Gerald Kierman & Myrna Weissman </div>

<div>-<b>-Used for people who have trouble interacting with others, relationship distress</b></div>

<div><b>-Marital conflict</b></div>

<div><b>-12-16 weeks (3-4 months)</b></div>

195
Q

EMDR Phases

A

Desensitization Phase: visualize the trauma, verbalize negative thoughts but remain attentive to physical sensations <br></br><br></br>Installation Phase: Installs and increases strength of the positive thoughts that the patient has declared as a replacement<br></br><br></br>Body Scan: Visualize the trauma along with the positive thought and then scan ones body mentally to identify any tension within

196
Q

Group therapy: Installation of hope

A

participants develop hope for creating a different life; they gain hope from others

197
Q

Group therapy: Universality

A

people have similar problems, thoughts, and feelings and they are NOT ALONE

198
Q

Group Therapy: Altruism

A

sharing of oneself with another and helping another

199
Q

Group Therapy: Imitative Behavior

A

Patients can increase their skills by imitating the bx of others

200
Q

Group Therapy: Interpersonal learning

A

interacting with others increases adaptive interpersonal relationships

201
Q

Group Therapy: Group Cohesiveness

A

Patients develop an attraction to the group and other members as well as a sense of belonging

202
Q

Group Therapy: Catharsis

A

Patients openly express their feelings which were previously suppressed

203
Q

Group Therapy: Existential Factors

A

Groups enable participants to deal with the mean of their own existance

204
Q

Group Therapy: Corrective Refocusing

A

Participants reexperience family conflicts in the group, which allows them to recognize and change behaviors that may be problematic

205
Q

Group Phases

A

forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning

206
Q

Family Systems Therapy

A

<div>Murray Bowen</div>

<div>-a person's problematic bx may serve a function for the family or be a symptoms of dysfunctional patterns</div>

<div><span><b>KEY WORDS* </b></span></div>

<div><span><b>Self-Differentiation, Triangulation, </b></span></div>

<div><span><b>Triangles</b></span></div>

207
Q

Structural Family Therapy

A

<div>Salvador Minuchin</div>

<div>-How, when, and who whom family members relate </div>

<div><span><b>KEY WORDS*</b></span></div>

<div><span><b>Mapping</b></span></div>

<div><span><b>Hierarchies</b></span></div>

<div><span><b>Boundaries</b></span> </div>

208
Q

Strategic Therapy

A

<div>Jay Haley</div>

<div>-Symptoms are a way to communicate metaphorically in a family</div>

<div><b>-Symptom focused</b></div>

<div><span><b>KEY WORDS* </b></span></div>

<div><span><b>Straightforward directive</b></span></div>

<div><span><b>Paradoxical directive</b></span><span> (reverse psychology)</span></div>

<div><span><b>Reframing</b></span><span> (you are not jealous of your sister you just care for her so much)</span> </div>

209
Q

Solution Focused Therapy

A

<div><span><b>-MIRACLE QUESTIONS</b></span></div>

<div><span><b>-EXCEPTION-BASED FINDING -SCALING QUESTIONS</b></span></div>

210
Q

Meditation

A

<div><b>if teaching about meditation must tell them about MUSCLE RELAXATION</b></div>

211
Q

PICOT

A

P: Population<br></br>I: Intervention<br></br>C: Comparison<br></br>O: Outcome<br></br>T: Time

212
Q

If a patient has rheumatoid arthritis check

A

ESR

213
Q

<div><b>Therapy session with husband and wife & only one shows up</b></div>

A

Reschedule

214
Q

<div><b>A patient’s mother calls and tells you that her son has been sodomized by their 15 year old brother</b></div>

A

<div><b>tell mother DO NOT LEAVE THE CHILD ALONE WITH THE BROTHER</b></div>

<div><b>-Provider calls CPS</b></div>

<div><b>-Arrange crisis therapy for family</b></div>

215
Q

<div><b>Patient is moving out of state</b></div>

A

<div><b>if there is no imminent danger then provide enough medication for them to establish a new provider</b></div>

216
Q

Level 1 evidence

A

systematic reviews of random control trials (RCTs) or Meta-analysis or RCT-highest internal validity due to randomizations<br></br>At least (2)

217
Q

Level 2 Evidence

A

systematic reviews of cohort studies <br></br>-little bias because the subjects are identified prior to outcome - randomization is lost

218
Q

Shrill Cry

A

Intracranial pressure

219
Q

Child between the ages of 3-6 masterbating

A

<div><b>Normal to play with genitals (PHALLIC STAGE) NORMAL do not assume they have been abused*</b></div>

220
Q

Mom is concerned that her son age 10 has swelling in his chest and she is concerned he is developing breasts

A

<div><b>Young boys ages 9-16 years old often have NORMAL BREAST ENLARGEMENT which disappears within 6 months</b></div>

<div><b> *reassure them that this is normal</b></div>

221
Q

Elderly female presents with decreased sex drive

A

<div>Check Testosterone level</div>

<div><b>Sex Hormone-Testosterone is involved in sex drive</b></div>

<div><b>-MUST KNOW THAT WOMAN have TESTOSTERONE TOO</b></div>

222
Q

alcohol dehydrogenase

A

<div>an enzyme active in the stomach and the liver that metabolizes alcohol </div>

<div><b>-WOMAN HAVE LOWER ALCOHOL DEHYDROGENASE (metabolizes alcohol)</b></div>

<div><b>-This is why woman get drunk faster</b></div>

<div><b>-Lower levels of this enzyme may also cause a higher propensity to develop LIVER DISEASE</b></div>

223
Q

<div></div>

<div><b>When OB wants to hire psych providers</b></div>

A

<div><b>they want to increase mental health access to those that need it the most</b></div>

224
Q

<div></div>

<div><b>Normalizing grief and loss in children</b></div>

A

<div><b>Don’t tell them what to do because grief responses vary</b></div>

<div><b>-i.e Don’t tell them to stop working that is prescriptive advise</b></div>

<div><b>-With children the most important thing is to </b><span><u><b>reinforce FAMILY support an supportive therapy such as group therapy</b></u></span><b> so they can learn from other children who have experienced similar events</b></div>

225
Q

palmar grasp reflex

A

normal up to 5-6 months<br></br>If older baby still has this reflex->refer to specialist

226
Q

Moro (startle) reflex

A

Normal till 5-6 months<br></br>If present past normal range->refer to specialist<br></br>If not present within the normal age->Xray may be a sign of a broken bone, nerve injury, or spinal injury

227
Q

Babinski reflex

A

Normal up to 2 years <br></br>If present past normal range->refer to specialist

228
Q

PDE-5 inhibitors

A

<div>Sildenafil (Viagra)</div>

<div>Vardenafil (Levitra)</div>

<div>Tadalafil (Cialis)</div>

<div></div>

<div><b>RAPIDLY ABSORBED</b></div>

<div>Used for erectile disfunction </div>

229
Q

Difference between BMI in anorexia vs Bulemia

A

Anorexia-Low BMI<br></br>Bulemia-Normal BMI

230
Q

<div><b>Parent brings in 16-year-old with BMI 12, Pulse LOW, BP LOW and you determine the patient needs to be sent for medical evaluation but the parents refuse</b></div>

A

Contact CPS

231
Q

<div></div>

<div><b>You read and article that says that most children with ADHD abuse substances…</b></div>

<div><b>-To translate this information into practice what should you do?</b></div>

A

<div><b>-Screen ALL children for ADHD for SUBSTANCE USE</b></div>

<div><b>-OR Screen ALL children with SUBSTANCE USE for ADHD</b></div>

232
Q

accupuncture

A

used for pain and depression

233
Q

<div><b>Habeas Corpus</b></div>

A

<div><b>legal concept that protects patients from unlawful hospitalization</b></div>

<div><b>-May be a reason to leave AMA</b></div>

234
Q

<div><b>Disseminated Encephalomyelitis</b></div>

A

<div><b>inflammation of nervous system</b></div>

<div><b>-MUST DO NEURO EXAM</b></div>

<div><b>-EXAM: May present with ASSYMETRICAL BODY MOVEMENTS</b></div>

235
Q

<div><b>Assume you are interviewing a patient and you want them to provide information in a specific timeline, but they are unable</b></div>

A

<div><b>TO help ask them specific questions which helps to ANCHOR their memory</b></div>

236
Q

<div><b>Before you administer a medication, you must educate them about the medication but first you should assess</b></div>

A

<div><b>BUT FIRST ASSESS WHAT THEY KNOW ALREADY or WHAT THERE BELIEVES ARE ABOUT THE MEDICATION</b></div>

237
Q

Patient presents with iatrogenic effect

A

<div><b>assess ALL the medications that the patient is taking</b></div>

<div><b>-Don’t assume that it is from the medication you prescribed</b></div>

238
Q

When trying to pass a policy and your co-workers are against it what should you do

A

<div><b>educate them on how the policy will benefit patient care</b></div>

239
Q

To promote a policy how do you get the word out there

A

Think most FEASIBLE option with WIDE net or audiance

240
Q

<div><b>Working in outpatient setting and you want to ensure continuous improvement in quality of care.</b></div>

A

<div><b>-Create an instrument to monitor clinical outcomes (this helps to identify what you are doing right or wrong)</b></div>

241
Q

Autoimmune disease can lead to increased

A

Cytokine level

242
Q

If a child is urinating the bed

A

<div><b>-Teach parents to use alarm clock to wake up to urinate (NON PHARM FIRST)</b></div>

<div><b>-If that doesn’t work try </b><span><b>DESMOSPRESSIN</b></span><b> (decreased enuresis)</b></div>

243
Q

Are you allowed to look up a patient on social media?

A

No it violates their trust

244
Q

<div><b>Assume you started a patient on a medication and they go home and find out that there is a black box warning on the medication that you were unaware of. They call with concerns…</b></div>

A

<div><b>-First, go online and do your own research</b></div>

<div><b>-Research the RISK vs BENEFIT before you tell the patient to stop the medication</b></div>

245
Q

Risk factors for sleep apnea

A

<div><b>excessive weight, obesity, diabetes, smoking</b></div>

246
Q

Tolerance

A

<div><b>you need higher doses of the medication in order for the medication to be effective</b></div>

247
Q

PHQ-9

A

> 5 mild depression<br></br>> 10 moderate<br></br>> 15 moderately severe<br></br>> 20 severe<br></br><br></br>Max score 27

248
Q

HAM-D

A

> 10 Mild<br></br>>14 Moderate<br></br>>17 Severe

249
Q

HAM-A

A

> 8 Mild<br></br>>15 Moderate<br></br>>24 Severe

250
Q

Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)

A

0-13 Subclinical <br></br>>14 Mild <br></br>>20 Moderate <br></br>>29 Severe <br></br>>40 EXTREME<br></br><br></br>Max score 63

251
Q

GAD-7 Scoring

A

0-4: Minimal Anxiety<br></br>>5 Mild Anxiety<br></br>>10 Moderate Anxiety<br></br>>15 Severe Anxiety<br></br><br></br>Max score 21

252
Q

COWS

A

<div>Medicate with PRNS at score of <b>7</b> or above</div>

<div></div>

<div>Consider Subutex or Suboxone at <b>13</b> or above</div>

<div></div>

<div>Remember Methadone is the LEAST safe option due to cardiac issues </div>

<div></div>

<div></div>

253
Q

CIWA

A

<div>Begin PRN medication at <b>8</b> or above </div>

<div></div>

<div>Scores of <b>15</b> or above consider scheduled medications</div>

254
Q

Patient in alcohol withdrawal and you are choosing medication for CIWA, check what?

A

<div>LFT</div>

<div><b>if liver disease use ATIVAN because of short half life over VALIUM</b></div>

255
Q

Idealization

A

Seeing someone else as perfect, ideal, or more worthy than everyone else<br></br><br></br>This is often seen in grieving before acceptance of the loss

256
Q

Appreciative Inquiry

A

<div><b>is an approach to organizational change which focuses on strengths rather than on weakness</b></div>

<div><b>Example do not focus on what the employee does wrong focus on what they do well</b></div>

257
Q

Reflective Practice

A

<div>Links theory to practice with a goal of correcting practices that are incorrect.<b> Example Debriefing after a restraint to find out what went wrong or what went right </b><span><b>DEBFRIEFING MAY BE A KEY WORD</b></span></div>

<div><b>-After an incident--> Debrief</b></div>

258
Q

<div><b>Assume you started the patient on an antidepressant and now they complain of insomnia</b></div>

A

<div><b>1. Before changing medication, CHANGE THE TIME OF DAY THEY ARE TAKING THE MED</b></div>

259
Q

<div><b>Conflict of interest between pharmaceutical companies and Nurse Practitioners i.e promises to sponsor NP loan forgiveness. You want to create a policy to address this. First you must examine...</b></div>

A

<div> <span><b>study the relationship between the industry provided samples and industry sponsored education</b></span></div>

260
Q

If a patient is involuntarily admitted can they still refuse medications?

A

<div><b>they can still refuse medications, UNLESS it is an emergency or if the court determines they must take medications</b></div>

261
Q

Scope of practice is determined by

A

State board of Nursing

262
Q

Scope of practice defines

A

NP roles and actions <br></br>-Varies broadly state to state

263
Q

If you would like to perform ECT as an NP what should you review

A

The state scope of practice standards to see if it is allowed and what certification is needed

264
Q

Standard of practice is determined by

A

<div>ANA </div>

<div>-Provides a way to judge nature of the care provided </div>

<div><b>The PMHNP is required by law to carry out care in accordance with what other reasonably prudent nurses would do in the same or similar circumstances. Thus, provision of high-quality care consistent with established standards is critical</b></div>

265
Q

Exceptions to Confidentiality

A

<div><span>-Answering court orders, subpoenas, or summonses *high yield (if you don’t release or lie about knowing this is PERJURY)</span></div>

<div>-Insurance companies</div>

<div>-Giving information to attorneys involved in litigation</div>

<div>-Intent to harm self or others</div>

<div>-Meeting state of federal requirements for reporting disease states</div>

<div>-When the need for information outweighs the principle of confidentiality i.e unconscious patient and their life is at stake</div>

266
Q

Tarasoff principle

A

<div>1976 - duty to warn victims of potential harm from client</div>

<div><b>may vary by state so you must check with your state board of nursing first…it may not be your responsibility to notify</b></div>

267
Q

<div><b>If you are taking care of a patient and during the process of interview she tells you that her husband just texted her that her husband is going to kill self</b></div>

A

<div><b>-Call the police, provide the address</b></div>

268
Q

informed consent

A

<div>-Communication process between the provider and client that results in client’s acceptance or rejection of proposed treatment</div>

<div><span><b>-Ensure they understand the risks vs benefits</b></span></div>

269
Q

<div></div>

<div><b>If patient is able to reiterate the risks vs benefits of procedure or treatment, they are able to give consent*</b></div>

<div><b>Example patient comes to the hospital, and they are unable to give consent i.e to sick to agree to treatment you must </b></div>

A

<div><b>assess need for involuntary treatment</b></div>

270
Q

Justice

A

<div><b>doing what is fair, fairness in all aspects of care</b></div>

271
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

do no harm

272
Q

Beneficence

A

doing good/promoting well-being

273
Q

Fidelity

A

being true and loyal

274
Q

Veracity

A

telling the truth, patients have the right to know the truth about their treatment

275
Q

Autonomy

A

doing for self (right to self-determination)

276
Q

<div><b>New male patient has a 10 year history of substance abuse, depression, and anxiety. He is requesting Xanax. Which principle should the PMHNP employ moving forward?</b></div>

<div><b>A. Beneficence</b></div>

<div><b>B. Fidelity</b></div>

<div><b>C. Non-Maleficence</b></div>

<div><b>D. Veracity</b></div>

A

<div><b>C. Non-Maleficence</b></div>

<div></div>

<div>*Do no harm, giving Xanax would endanger him secondary to the high abuse potential and imminent danger if he were to overdose on Xanax*</div>

<div></div>

<div><i><b>If no history of substance use</b></i>, then beneficence would be appropriate because the Xanax would help the anxiety</div>

277
Q

Acute agitation and anxiety vs acute agitation and psychosis <br></br><br></br>IM ordered

A

IM ativan for agit/anx<br></br><br></br>IM antipsychotic for agit/psychosis

278
Q

Patients have the right to be treated in the Least

A

Restrictive Setting

279
Q

The PMHNP is asked to consult with a local inpatient psychiatric facility to provide nursing staff development. After meeting with the administrator to identify the nature of the problem requiring the consultation, the PMHNP’s next step is to:<br></br>A. Create interdisciplinary teaching team<br></br>B. Develop Outcome measures<br></br>C. Market the educational plan<br></br>D. Utilize a survey to assess the educational needs of the staff

A

<div>D. Utilize a survey to assess the educational needs of the staff</div>

<div></div>

<div><b>*3 Interventions vs 1 Assessment* FIRST YOU NEED TO ASSESS FIRST</b></div>

280
Q

What is the best way to reduce stigma

A

<div><b>THROUGH EDUCATION</b></div>

<div><b>*THINK WIDEST AUDIENCE</b></div>

<div></div>

281
Q

Just Culture

A

<div><b>individuals are continually learning, designing safety systems, and managing behavioral choices</b></div>

282
Q

The PMHNP is concerned about access-to-care issues in the local community and wants to help develop health care policy to help patients access care more effectively.<br></br>A. Asking the clinical manager to explore options for access<br></br>B. Organizing a political protest<br></br>C. Working with the local chapter of the nurses professional association<br></br>D. Writing letters to the editor of the local newspaper

A

<div>C. Working with the local chapter of the nurses professional association</div>

<div></div>

<div><b>*Remember strength in numbers but STAY INVOLVED i.e asking the manager just passes off*</b></div>

283
Q

<div><b>If a patient from a specific culture is refusing to accept any diagnosis of mental health disorders because of shame what could be done to address this barrier?</b></div>

<div><b>A. Educate the family</b></div>

<div><b>B. Political advocacy</b></div>

<div><b>C. Public Health Concern</b></div>

<div><b>D. Community education programs</b></div>

A

<div><b>D. Community education programs</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>*Narrow down to education A/D…then think WIDE NET =Community EDUCATION</b></div>

284
Q

A client with Biolar I disorder presents to your PMHNP office for a follow-up visit. During the visit the client informs you he no longer wants to be treated with medication. , and he does not have bipolar disorder, that was a misdiagnosis, He further informs you he stopped all his medications 2 months ago and is here to thank you for your care and tell you he no longer needs appointments. Understanding ethical conflict, you use which of the following ethical principles?<br></br>A. Autonomy<br></br>B. Nonmaleficence<br></br>C. Justice<br></br>D. Beneficence

A

<div><b>A. Autonomy</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><b>*Patient’s have the right to self-determination*</b></div>

285
Q

<div><b>Recovery Model * RELAPSE IS A LEARNING OPPORTUNITY</b></div>

A

<div>-Treatment approach that does not focus on full symptom resolution but emphasizes on resilience and control over problems in life</div>

<div></div>

<div>-Self-Direction (do not tell them what to do)</div>

<div></div>

<div>-Individualized and Person-Centered</div>

<div></div>

<div><span><b>-Non-Linear, Recovery is not a step-by-step process, but one based on continual growth, occasional setbacks, and learning from experience</b></span></div>

286
Q

In counseling a 23 y/o married Hispanic mother who brought her 4 year old son to the clinic for “mal de ojo” with symptoms of fitful sleep, diarrhea, vomiting, and fever the PMHNO;<br></br>A. Identifies what steps the mother has already tried in caring for the child<br></br>B. Explain that the symptoms are viral infection<br></br>C. Educates about importance of fluid electrolyte imbalance<br></br>D. Respects the mother’s understanding of the child’s illness

A

<div><b>A. Respects the mother’s understanding of the child’s illness</b></div>

<div></div>

<div><span><b>*In cultural questions remember RESPECT FIRST! Even before assessment</b></span></div>

287
Q

<div><b>Quality Improvement</b></div>

A

<div><b>Projects designed to improve systems, decrease cost, and improve productivity</b></div>

288
Q

What is an example of a quality improvement process?

A

Plan, Do, Study, Act

289
Q

<div><b>The NP is responsible for initiating quality improvement at a community clinic. The effective strategy for evaluating the clients services is to</b></div>

<div><b>A. Chart review analysis</b></div>

<div><b>B. A root cause analysis</b></div>

<div><b>C. Plan DO Study Act</b></div>

<div><b>D. Failure effect mode analysis</b></div>

A

<div><b>C. Plan Do Study Act</b></div>

290
Q

SBIRT

A

Screening, Brief Intervention, and Referral to Treatment<br></br>* Use to screen substance use disorders

291
Q

Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development

A
  1. trust vs. mistrust<br></br>2. autonomy vs. shame and doubt<br></br>3. initiative vs. guilt<br></br>4. industry vs. inferiority<br></br>5. identity vs. role confusion<br></br>6. intimacy vs. isolation<br></br>7. generativity vs. stagnation<br></br>8. integrity vs. despair
292
Q

Piaget’s stages of cognitive development

A
  1. sensorimotor<br></br>2. preoperational<br></br>3. concrete operational<br></br>4. formal operational
293
Q

Preoperational Stage includes

A

<div><b>2-7 y.o- MAGICAL THINKING IS NORMAL, if they believe that monsters can fly this is NORMAL</b></div>

<div>Egocentric</div>

<div>Understand language </div>

294
Q

formal operational stage

A

<div>12+ y/o during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts</div>

<div><b>KEY WORD is </b><span><b>LOGIC</b></span><b> think like a scientist or do a science project you must be able to use logic </b><span><b>ABSTRACT THINKING</b></span><b> such as doing algebra</b></div>

295
Q

sensorimotor stage

A

in Piaget’s theory, the stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities<br></br>Object permanance

296
Q

concrete operational stage

A

in Piaget’s theory, the stage of cognitive development (from about 6 or 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events<br></br>i.e finding similarities in objects, grouping things

297
Q

Risk factors for suicide

A

Sex (Male), <br></br>Age (Teenager or Elderly), <br></br>Depression, <br></br>Previous Attempt, Ethanol or Drug Use, Loss of rational thinking, Sickness (medical illness), <br></br>3 or more prescription medications, <br></br>Organized plan, <br></br>No spouse (divorced, widowed, or single especially if childless). Social support lacking.<br></br>WHITE<br></br><br></br>Women try more often. Men succeed more often.

298
Q

<div></div>

<div><b>A 72 year old female brought in by her husband with increasing forgetfulness, decreased activity, and decreased appetite for 2 months. She has a history of HTN and is being treated with Lisinopril. The exam is normal and the MMSE provides a score of 24 but she declines to answer some questions and needs to be urged to participate in the assessment. What is the likely diagnosis?</b></div>

<div><b>A. Alzheimer</b></div>

<div><b>B. Vascular Dementia</b></div>

<div><b>C. Depression</b></div>

<div><b>D. Medication Toxicity</b></div>

A

<div>C. Depression </div>

<div></div>

<div><b>*2 months=too soon for Alzheimer’s, 24 is mild MMSE, HTN is not enough info to diagnose vascular dementia HALLMARKS FOR VASCULAR DEMENTIA are carotid bruits fundoscopic abnormalities and enlarged cardiac chambers, remember PSEUDO dementia is DEPRESSION</b></div>

299
Q

<div><b>HALLMARKS FOR VASCULAR DEMENTIA</b></div>

A

<div><b> carotid bruits fundoscopic abnormalities and enlarged cardiac chambers,</b></div>

300
Q

<div><b>Patient comes to the office, and you score them on HAM-D a 23 and you start an antidepressant on dose Xmg, 2 weeks later they score a 16 on the HAM-D. What would you do?</b></div>

A

Leave the dose where it is

301
Q

<div><b>Patient is taking Zoloft 200mg and on the GAD 7 they score a 2, what do you do</b></div>

A

Leave the dose where it is

302
Q

Zung Depression Scale Scoring

A

> 50 Mild<br></br>>60 Moderate<br></br>>70 Severe <br></br><br></br>25-49 is NORMAL RANGE <br></br>100 is max score

303
Q

MMSE scoring

A

<div>0-10 severe </div>

<div>>10 moderate</div>

<div>>20 mild</div>

<div>>25 Normal </div>

<div></div>

<div>Kids under 10 years old are severely challenging to teach</div>

<div></div>

<div><span><b>HIGHER THE BETTER! </b></span></div>

<div></div>

304
Q

Teratogenic Effects <br></br>1. Lithium<br></br>2. Carbamazepine<br></br>3. Depakote<br></br>4. Benzo

A
  1. Epstein Anomaly <br></br>2. Neural Tube<br></br>3. Neural Tube (specifically spina bifida, atrial septal defect, cleft palate)<br></br>4. Floppy Baby
305
Q

Primary prevention

A

Efforts to prevent an injury or illness from ever occurring.<br></br>-Education<br></br>-Safety Initiatives<br></br>-Modifying environment

306
Q

Secondary Prevention

A

Efforts to limit the effects of an injury or illness that you cannot completely prevent.<br></br>-Early findings<br></br>-Screening<br></br>-Prompt and effective treatment<br></br>Example: Crisis hotline, disaster response

307
Q

Tertiary Prevention

A

NAME?

308
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

what the body does to the drug

309
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

what the drug does to the body

310
Q

messenger RNA codes for

A

amino acids

311
Q

Poor relationships, lack of future hope, suspicious of others indicates developmental failure of what stage

A

infancy, trust vs mistrust

312
Q

Poor self-esteem, low self control, self-doubt, lack of independence indicates failure of what stage

A

early childhood 1-3, autonomy vs shame and doubt

313
Q

Lack of self-initiative, lack of goal orientation indicates failure of what stage

A

Late childhood 3-6 y/o initiative vs guilt

314
Q

sense of inferiority, difficulty with working/learning indicates a failure of what stage

A

school age 6-12 y/o industry vs inferiority

315
Q

identity confusion, poor self-identification in groups indicates failure of what stage

A

adolescence 12-20 y/o identity vs inferiority

316
Q

emotional isolation, egocentrism indicates a failure of what stage

A

early adulthood 20-35 y/o intimacy vs isolation

317
Q

self-absorption, inability to grow and change as a person, inability to care for others indicates a failure at what stage

A

middle adulthood 35-65 y/o generativity vs stagnation

318
Q

bitterness, sense of dissatisfaction with life, despair over impending death indicates failure of what stage

A

> 65 y/o integrity vs despair

319
Q

agonist effect

A

Drug binds to receptors and activates a biological response

320
Q

Inverse agonist effect

A

Drug causes the opposite effect of agonist

321
Q

partial agonist effect

A

Drug does not fully activate the receptors

322
Q

Antagonist effect

A

Drug binds to the receptor but does not activate a biological response

323
Q

Herbals that interact with warfarin

A

Vitamin E<br></br>Omega-3

324
Q

Black Cohosh

A

herbal used for menopause

325
Q

Bellandonna

A

herbal used for anxiety

326
Q

chamomile

A

herbal used for sedation and anxiety

327
Q

Ginko

A

Herbal used to treat memory, dementia, & sexual dysfunction from SSRIs

328
Q

Ginseng

A

Herbal product used for stress reduction, fatigue, and depression

329
Q

Valerian

A

herbal used for sedation

330
Q

Hypertensive crisis can occur when MAOI are taken with

A

Meperidine<br></br>Decongestants<br></br>TCAs<br></br>Atypical Antipsychotics<br></br>St.Johns wart<br></br>L-Tryptophan<br></br>Stimulants<br></br>Asthma meds

331
Q

Microcytic anemia

A

iron deficiency

332
Q

macrocytic anemia

A

due to folate or vitamin B12 deficiency<br></br><br></br>Labs: Folic Acid, B12, ESR/CRP, HGB, MCV

333
Q

14 y/o with no axillary hair and no period

A

Normal tanner stage, start by 16

334
Q

Two classes of cardiac meds that should not be used together

A

ACES and ARBS (angiotensin receptor blocker) <br></br>Together can cause renal dysfunction

335
Q

Abnormal Trendelenburg Test

A

Hip disease, refer child out, assessed during head to toe

336
Q

too little acetylcholine<br></br>too much acetylcholine

A

Alzheimer’s<br></br>Parkinson’s and EPS

337
Q

4 D’s Discover, Dream, Design, Destiny

A

Appreciative Inquiry

338
Q

Cranial Nerve V

A

Trigeminal<br></br>Clenched Teeth

339
Q

WBC 1500-2000

A

Biweekly labs<br></br>Less than 1000 Stop

340
Q

How can you assess cranial nerve XII?

A

Ask patient to stick out their tongue

341
Q

First sign of metabolic syndrome

A

large waist circumference

342
Q

Grade 2/5 hoarse systolic heart murmur

A

aortic stenosis

343
Q

Ibuprofen + lithium

A

increases the serum level of lithium up to double

344
Q

Kleinfelter’s Syndrome

A

male with more than one X chromosome (XXY)<br></br>-Decreased sperm, fertility issues

345
Q

Mental Health Parity Act

A

forbids health plans from placing lifetime or annual limits on mental health coverage that are less generous than those placed on medical or surgical benefits

346
Q

what does nuchal rigidity indicate?

A

meningitis

347
Q

Patient is on interferon and lexapro, as a provider you understand that

A

interferon can increase depression therefore you may have to increase the lexapro

348
Q

Patient complains of neuropathic pain and neurontin is not working

A

Try Lyrica (pregabalin) its absorbed quickly and the maximum rate of absorption is 3x of Neurontin

349
Q

Patient is in hospital with no family and is failing cognitive test what should you do?

A

MRI<br></br>Tox Screen

350
Q

Phases of policy making

A

formulation, implementation, evaluation

351
Q

Rhett Syndrome

A

a rare disorder found virtually exclusively in girls, is a neurodevelopmental disorder in which the child usually develops normally until about 6 to 18 months of age at which characteristics of the syndrome emerge; characteristics include: hypotonia (loss of muscle tone), reduced eye contact, decelerated head growth, and disinterest in play activities

352
Q

Signs of fetal alcohol syndrome

A

small head, smooth palpebral fissure, inner epicanthal folds, thin upper lip

353
Q

Tegretol side effects

A

Aplastic anemia, agranulocytosis, steven johnsons, hyponatremia. Watch with cipro and erythro

354
Q

Telemedicine legal question?

A

Licensing Jurisdiction for the NP must be considered

355
Q

A person is seen wandering the streets for 2 days

A

Delirium

356
Q

Medication used for serotonin syndrome

A

Cyproheptadine<br></br><br></br>Why? it is an H1 blocker but is also has serotonin receptor blocking activity. Specifically, it acts to block 5-HT1A and 5-HT2A receptors which are the ones responsible for serotonin syndrome

357
Q

When to assess a patient in restraints?

A

initially within 1 hour; then 8 hours

358
Q

Why would you be concerned with immature reticulocytes?

A

Reticulocytes are involved in conditions affecting RBCs such as anemia. <br></br>-Low reticulocytes may be seen is iron def. anemia, pernicious anemia, folic acid deficiency, and aplastic anemia

359
Q

pharm treatment for agoraphobia

A

short term benzo, SSRI, SNRI, TCA, or beta-blocker off label

360
Q

Anorexia admission Criteria for hospitalization includes:

A

weight loss over 30% over 6 months<br></br>severe hypothermia temp less than 96.8 <br></br>HR less than 40<br></br>BP less than 70<br></br>Hypokalemia less than 3mEq/L<br></br>BMI<16

361
Q

ANOVA

A

ANalysis Of VAriance - btwn means of 3 or more groups<br></br>An inferential statistical test for comparing the means of three or more groups

362
Q

precontemplation stage

A

stage of change in which people are unwilling to change their behavior

363
Q

Contemplation stage

A

person is considering making a change, aware that there is a problem but is not quite committed to changing

364
Q

Preparation Stage

A

Person has made the decision to change, is ready for action

365
Q

Action Stage

A

Person is engaging in specific, overt actions to change

366
Q

Maintanence stage

A

The person is engaging in behaviors to prevent relapse

367
Q

These 3 meds cause BIG FREAKING PROBLEMS

A

Strong inhibitors of 2D6<br></br>Bupropion, Fluoxetine, Paxil

368
Q

Boy tells you he wishes to be a girl and asks you not to tell the parents

A

Don’t tell

369
Q

BRUISE on the padded part of his arms

A

Say I see you have bruises on your arm <br></br>may I Ask what happened

370
Q

Can an advanced directive be revoked? How?

A

Yes<br></br>at any time

371
Q

Can you take Buspar during pregnancy?

A

Category B - ok if really needed.

372
Q

Carb and barb + Coumadin

A

Strong Inducers of 3A4 can decrease INR

373
Q

Who is in charge of the DEA?

A

State and Federal

374
Q

Common comorbidities of bipolar

A

anxiety, alcohol, substance use

375
Q

Conjunctival injection, munchies, psychomotor slowness?

A

Marijuana intoxication

376
Q

Diary Log

A

CBT

377
Q

Depakote and Disulfiram

A

increases INR

378
Q

What 3 atypicals can be used with teens?

A

Zyprexa, Abilify, Seroquel - low doses<br></br><br></br>* also Risperdal

379
Q

Np wants to implement a certain policy in nursing.

A

start with nurse manager

380
Q

Phenycyclidine (PCP) can cause?

A

Nystagmus

381
Q

Hildegard Peplau

A

Theory of Interpersonal Relations<br></br>Nurse as therapeutic tool<br></br>-Care for the person as well as the illness<br></br>-Patients are PEOPLE not DIAGNOSES

382
Q

Patient acting out due to missing session what do you do?

A

You relate to childhood abandonment and talk about it with the patient

383
Q

Patient on antidepressants for 3 weeks and attempted Suicide

A

stop the medication immediately

384
Q

Patient shows symptoms of dizziness, tremors, sweating, What Medical Diagnosis

A

hypoglycemia

385
Q

Pearson’s r

A

a statistic that measures the direction and strength of the linear relation between two variables that have been measured on an interval or ratio scale

386
Q

pincer grasp

A

9 months

387
Q

Problems in the parietal lobe can lead

A

Sensory-perceptual disturbances and agnosia(inability to perceive objects)<br></br>R-L confusion <br></br>Difficulty writing (agraphia)<br></br>Aphasia(difficulty of language)

388
Q

To promote resilience in a patient with schizophrenia that lives alone consider referral to

A

NAME?

389
Q

Patient on Lithium and Depakote and has temp, right flank pain, brown urine. What do you do FIRST?

A

Check LFT<br></br>If fine then check creatinine

390
Q

Pt states “god did this to me.”

A

Assess spiritual needs first

391
Q

Patient taking breathing treatment Albuterol/Proventil

A

Do not take MAOI or TCA

392
Q

p-value

A

The probability of results of the experiment being attributed to chance.

393
Q

Reliability

A

consistency of measurement

394
Q

Stereogenesis

A

identify an object without sight<br></br>i.e dice in hand

395
Q

Tagamet (cimetidine)

A

H2 receptor antagonist (antacid) <br></br>Increases benzo<br></br>Increases coumadin

396
Q

Trazadone concerns

A

EKG-QT prolongation<br></br>Priapism<br></br>Glaucoma

397
Q

Turner Syndrome

A

A chromosomal disorder in females in which either an X chromosome is missing, making the person XO instead of XX, or part of one X chromosome is deleted.<br></br>-Delayed puberty<br></br>-Amenorrhea<br></br>-Web neck, osteoporosis, lymphedema<br></br>-poor social skills

398
Q

To start your own firm as an NP and need to examine economic viability

A

Show Revenue and expenses

399
Q

3 CK muscle enzyme tests?

A

CKMM, CKBB, CKMB (normal 0.3 mmcg/L)

400
Q

What are the legal ramifications of treating someone without informed consent?

A

The same as they are with informed consent<br></br>-Respect<br></br>-Beneficence<br></br>-Justice

401
Q

Two important things to measure when prescribing Zyprexa

A

Waist circumference <br></br>Lipids

402
Q

What schedule of controlled substances are NPs allowed to prescribe?

A

II-V

403
Q

What crania nerve is affected when you ask the patient to shrug their shoulders?

A

XI (11) Spinal Accessory

404
Q

These medications are renally metabolized

A

Gabapentin<br></br>Campral <br></br>Lithium

405
Q

grapefruit juice

A

inhibitor that can reduce the absorption of the drug by 47% therefore the drug blood levels will be increased<br></br>-Decrease dose of drug

406
Q

How do Asians see HC providers?

A

As in a position of authority.<br></br>Expect to give instructions and help make decisions

407
Q

How do you protect from the evil eye?

A

Red ribbon on an infant<br></br>Amulet for adults

408
Q

T-test

A

assesses whether the means of two groups are statistically different from each other

409
Q

Treatment for children with panic disorder

A

clonidine <br></br>guanfacine

410
Q

What do BCP’s do to Lamictal?

A

Inducer - will lower dose of Lamictal

411
Q

What does an increased retic count indicate

A

Bone marrow disorder or Vitamin Deficiency<br></br>Normal Range 0.5-1.5

412
Q

What do you see in Labs with HIV dementia

A

CD4 <200<br></br>Viral Load is high<br></br><20% get it with antiretroviral treatment

413
Q

What is occuring in the adolescent brain?

A

Dendritic pruning<br></br>Emotions are controlled by amygdala<br></br>Prefrontal Cortex is still not fully developed (may be why young boys are risk takers)

414
Q

Indomethacin is a

A

NSAID- WATCH WITH LITHIUM

415
Q

Tramadol

A

Highly serotonergic

416
Q

Dissemination

A

the act of spreading widely<br></br>-publication-highest level<br></br>-Presenting at national conference <br></br>-Journal club

417
Q

Sensitivity vs. Specificity

A

sensitivity - how well a test identifies truly ill people (True positive)<br></br>specificity - how well a test identifies truly well people (True negative)<br></br><br></br>*In medical diagnosis, testing sensitivity is the ability of a test to correctly identify those with the disease (true positive) whereas test specificity is the ability of the test to correctly identify those without the disease (true negative)

418
Q

What is the purpose of HIPAA?

A

National standards for electronic HC transactions<br></br>-National ID for providers, health plans and employers.<br></br>-Not SIMPLY Confidentiality.

419
Q

DETROL interactions

A

Topamax<br></br>KCL<br></br>Zonegran

420
Q

Yale-Brown Obsessive Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS)

A

OCD<br></br>0-7 subclinical <br></br>8-15 Mild <br></br>16-23 Moderate <br></br>24-31 Severe <br></br>32-40 Extreme

421
Q

If you want to decrease the use of seclusion who would be considered the primary change agent

A

Unit staff

422
Q

Rennie vs Klein

A

• right to refuse any treatment <br></br>Until court orders it <br></br>“due process”

423
Q

Roger vs. Oken

A

<div>determined that patients have an absolute right to refuse treatment, but a guardian may authorize their treatment.</div>

<div><span><b>ROGERS GUARDIAN</b></span></div>

424
Q

Donalson vs O’Connor

A

Confinement<br></br>-It is unconstitutional to commit a person involuntarily who is not imminently dangerous to self or others<br></br><br></br>Donalson was a patient hospitalized for 15 years

425
Q

Dusty vs United States

A

incompetent to stand trial

426
Q

Durham vs King

A

Insanity defense

427
Q

Riese vs St. Mary’s Hospital

A

7/8 8B ruling says that there should be court determination of incompetence for involuntary committed mental persons to receive antipsychotic medications

428
Q

Stark Law

A

Prohibits physicians or their family members who own health care facilities from referring patients to those entities if the federal government, under Medicare or Medicaid, will pay for treatment.