Module 5 Flashcards

1
Q

What does “Scope of Practice” refer to in the context of various professions?

A

Is a term used by national and state licensing boards for various professions to define the procedures, actions, and processes permitted for the licensed individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is the “Scope of Practice” determined for healthcare professionals like nurses?

A

By state legislative status and regulations set by state boards of nursing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the “Scope of Practice” for nurse practitioners define?

A

Defines their roles, actions, and competencies, and it may vary from state to state due to legislative differences.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How can nurse practitioners support their “Scope of Practice” and advocate for their roles?

A

By displaying leadership, voicing NP-related issues, and joining professional organizations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is encouraged when a medical evaluation is out of the nurse practitioner’s scope of practice?

A

Interprofessional collaboration is encouraged and critical in such situations to ensure the best care for the patient, while also acting as a patient advocate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who sets the minimum requirements for nurse practitioners (NPs)?

A

By the State Board of Nursing (BRN) and the state in which they practice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should you consider when faced with ethical or legal dilemmas related to scope of practice?

A

It’s important to consult state laws and the Nurse Practice Act, and in some cases, contact the state board of nursing for guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a valuable pearl of wisdom regarding questions related to scope of practice?

A

Answers that suggest contacting the state board of nursing are often correct, while answers that involve reporting a colleague to a supervisor are less likely to be correct in these scenarios.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who determines the “Standard of Practice” in nursing?

A

By the American Nurses Association (ANA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does the “Standard of Practice” provide in the field of healthcare?

A

The “Standard of Practice” serves as an authoritative statement regarding the quality and type of practice that should be provided in healthcare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is the “Standard of Practice” useful in healthcare?

A

The “Standard of Practice” provides a way to judge the nature of care provided and can legally describe the standard of care that must be met by healthcare providers, including protocols and guidelines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is required by law when providing care as a PMHNP in accordance with the “Standard of Practice”?

A

The law requires PMHNPs to carry out care according to reasonable prudent criteria that other nurses would follow in the same or similar circumstances, emphasizing the importance of providing high-quality care consistent with established standards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can “Standard of Care” be summarized?

A

“Standard of Care” is closely associated with the quality of care provided.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does the NP code of ethics originate from?

A

From the American Nurses Association (ANA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the different categories of Standards of Practice?

A

Assessment, Diagnosis, Outcomes Identification, Planning, Implementation (including Coordination of Care, Health Teaching and Health Promotion, Consultation for Advanced Practice Nurses, and Prescriptive Authority for Advanced Practice Nurses), and Evaluation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the categories of Standards of Professional Performance?

A

Quality of Practice, Education, Professional Practice Evaluation, Collegiality, Collaboration, Ethics, Research, Resource Utilization, and Leadership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the patient’s right regarding confidentiality?

A

Patients have the right to expect their information won’t be disclosed without consent.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What’s needed to release medical records to others?

A

Signed consent forms from patients are required to release records.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does HIPAA impact psychotherapy notes?

A

HIPAA generally requires patient authorization to disclose psychotherapy notes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What’s required to release information about a patient’s conditions?

A

Typically, two separate releases are needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What must patients sign before healthcare?

A

Patients usually sign a Privacy Practices Statement before receiving healthcare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does HIPAA apply to email?

A

HIPAA applies to email, requiring secure communication methods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What’s the primary purpose of HIPAA?

A

HIPAA establishes national standards for electronic healthcare transactions, including privacy and security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s a breach of confidentiality?

A

It’s when patient information is disclosed without consent or a court order.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When can patient information be released without authorization under HIPAA?

A

HIPAA allows it for treatment or healthcare operations.

26
Q

When can confidentiality be breached?

A

Confidentiality can be breached when the need for information outweighs the principle of confidentiality, for instance, in cases of harm to self or others, court orders, subpoenas, attorney involvement in litigation, insurance company requests, mandatory reporting, and cases of child or elder abuse.

27
Q

What is the Tarasoff principle, and when does it apply?

A

The Tarasoff principle, established in Tarasoff vs. Regents at the University of California (1976), requires mental health professionals to warn potential victims of imminent danger posed by homicidal clients. However, not every state enforces this principle.

28
Q

What are some other important court cases related to mental health law?

A

Other notable court cases include O’Connor vs. Donaldson (protecting harmless mentally ill patients from involuntary confinement), Rennie vs. Klein (upholding the right to refuse treatment and use an appeal process), Rogers vs. Oken (recognizing the right to refuse treatment with guardian authorization), Durham vs. U.S. (considering mental illness as a factor in criminal responsibility), Ford vs. Wainwright (requiring competence for execution), and Stark law (preventing self-referral for monetary gain, especially in healthcare conflicts of interest).

29
Q

What is informed consent in healthcare?

A

In healthcare, informed consent is a communication process between the provider and the patient that results in the patient’s acceptance or rejection of treatment. It enables patients to make informed decisions about their care.

30
Q

Who has the right to give informed consent?

A

Informed consent is the right of every adult or emancipated minor. An emancipated minor is a person under 18 who is married, a parent, self-sufficient, and living independently.

31
Q

What are the key elements of informed consent?

A

The key elements of informed consent include competence (ability to understand and decide), disclosure (providing relevant information), understanding (comprehension of information), voluntariness (making a choice without coercion), and obtaining the patient’s consent.

32
Q

What are the ethical principles in nursing?

A

Justice (fairness)- Nonmaleficence (do no harm)- Beneficence (promoting well-being)- Fidelity (loyalty and keeping promises)- Veracity (telling the truth)- Autonomy (respecting the patient’s right to self-determination)- Respect (treating everyone with equal rights)

33
Q

What ethical principle in nursing is missing from this post?

A

The missing ethical principle in nursing from this post is “Confidentiality,” which involves protecting and respecting the privacy of patient information.

34
Q

What does PICO stand for in research questions?

A

P- Patient or population, I- Intervention, C- Comparison, O- Outcome, T- Time

35
Q

What are the levels of evidence in research, starting from the highest?

A

From the highest to lowest, Level 1- Evidence from systematic reviews or meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials (RCTs) ,
Level II- Evidence from at least one well-designed RCT ,
Level III- Cohort Study ,
Level IV- Case Control Study ,
Level V- Case Reports ,
Level VI- Expert Opinion

36
Q

What are some important patient rights in healthcare?

A
  • Confidentiality
  • Informed consent, which can be given and withdrawn by the patient
  • The right to the least restrictive environment
  • The right to refuse treatment and use an appeal process
37
Q

What are the three phases involved in policy making?

A

Formulation, Implementation, and Evaluation (FIE).

38
Q

When an NP wants to implement a policy in nursing, what key steps should they take starting from engaging with the nurse manager?

A

They should start by engaging with the nurse manager, gather feedback from staff, and use surveys to gauge learning needs before designing education programs or policies.

39
Q

What is one effective method for gathering information from healthcare providers in hard-to-reach areas?

A

Through online forums and surveys.

40
Q

What is the primary goal of patient advocacy in nursing?

A

To ensure respect for patient autonomy and self-determination.

41
Q

How can reducing the stigma of mental health illness be achieved as part of patient advocacy?

A

Can be achieved through education.

42
Q

Name two professional organizations that nurses can join to promote mental health advocacy.

A

The American Nurse Association (ANA) and the American Psychiatric Nurse Association (APNA).

43
Q

How can advocacy for mental health concerns reach a broader audience?

A

Through professional presentations, TV interviews, presentations in schools, and attending town hall meetings.

44
Q

In a just culture, what is the main goal when individuals report mistakes in healthcare?

A

The main goal when individuals report mistakes in healthcare is to encourage learning, improve systems, and hold individuals accountable while addressing system issues and vulnerabilities.

45
Q

What distinguishes a just culture from a punitive culture in healthcare?

A

By addressing system issues and vulnerabilities while increasing individual accountability, rather than simply blaming or punishing individuals.

46
Q

How can a just culture contribute to patient safety and system improvement in healthcare?

A

By creating an environment that encourages reporting of mistakes, continual learning, designing safe systems, managing behavior choices, and investigating errors.

47
Q

What is the primary purpose of the American Disability Act of 1990 (ADA)?

A

To provide civil rights protections for people with disabilities throughout their entire lifespan.

48
Q

What entitlement does ADA provide to people with disabilities?

A

The entitlement to reasonable accommodations.

49
Q

How has ADA impacted individuals who were previously institutionalized?

A

ADA has allowed individuals who were previously institutionalized to become productive members of society by making reasonable accommodations available to them.

50
Q

What is the main goal of a quality improvement project?

A

To improve the system, decrease costs, and enhance productivity.

51
Q

What does the PDSA cycle stand for?

A

Plan-Do-Study-Act

52
Q

and how does it facilitate quality improvement?

A

It facilitates quality improvement by providing a 4-step process for implementing change, solving problems, and improving processes. the steps are,
Plan- Planning the change ,
Do- Carrying out the plan ,
Study- Examining the results ,
Act- Deciding what actions will improve the process.

53
Q

What is the main purpose of reflective practice in healthcare?

A

Reflective practice in healthcare is primarily about linking theory to practice.

54
Q

What is one debriefing strategy often used in reflective practice?

A

Providing feedback is a common debriefing strategy in reflective practice.

55
Q

which factors shape a person’s mental health and common mental disorders?

A

By social, economic, and physical environments operating at different stages of life.

56
Q

What factors are emphasized in the concept of Social Determinants of Mental & Behavioral Health?

A

The concept emphasizes multilevel social and structural factors such as stigma, social networks, structural racism, and policies on housing, drug control, and criminal justice.

57
Q

How are risk factors for common mental disorders related to social inequalities?

A

Risk factors for common mental disorders are heavily associated with social inequalities, with greater inequality corresponding to a higher risk.

58
Q

When should action be taken to improve conditions related to mental health?

A

Action should be taken to improve conditions of everyday life at all stages, from before birth through childhood, adolescence, family building, working ages, and into older age, to address mental health and reduce the risk associated with social inequalities.

59
Q

Compare medical care model against the patient centered care model .

A
60
Q

Mention the social determinents of health with their examples .

A