Pleura, chest wall & mediastinum Flashcards

1
Q

@# 2. With regards to imaging of primary extranodal lymphomas, in which of the following sites does extranodal Hodgkin’s disease most commonly occur?

A. Spleen

B. Thymus

C. Thyroid

D. Small bowel

E. Lung

A

B. Thymus

When the main bulk of disease at an extranodal site, a lymphoma should be classified as the extranodal type, as these have distinctive pathological, radiological and clinical features from nodal lymphomas. The thymus is the only extranodal site where Hodgkin’s lymphoma commonly occurs, and almost all cases are of the nodular sclerosing subtype.

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2
Q
  1. A 76-year old man presents with newly diagnosed malignant mesothelioma. Which of the following findings would preclude resection of mesothelioma?

A. Enhancement of interlobular fissures on MRI

B. An area of chest wall invasion

C. Subdiaphragmatic extension

D. Stage T3 disease

E. Enlarged ipsilateral mediastinal nodes

A

C. Subdiaphragmatic extension

Imaging findings of deep myocardial invasion, multifocal chest wall invasion or subdiaphragmatic extension are contraindications to surgery. Patients with stage 1-3 may be surgical candidates but not necessarily cured. MRI findings of focal thickening and enhancement of the interlobular fissures are useful signs in the detection of early malignant pleural disease

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3
Q

@# 11. Which is the most common primary tumor to metastasize to the pleura?

A. Breast

B. Lymphoma

C. Lung

D. Ovary

E. Stomach

A

C. Lung

In order of decreasing frequency, metastases to the pleura arisefrom lung, breast, lymphoma, ovary and stomach cancers.

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4
Q
  1. A 50-year-old builder undergoing CT of the chest has pleural thickening and calcification along the diaphragmatic pleura. Which is the most specific distinguishing feature to indicate malignant rather than benign pleural disease?

A. Nodularity of the pleural thickening

B. Parietal pleural thickening greater than 1cm

C. Mediastinal pleural involvement

D. Pleural effusion

E. Circumferential pleural thickening

A

E. Circumferential pleural thickening

On multivariate analysis, the CT findings of rind-like pleural involvement, mediastinal pleural involvement and pleural thickness > 1 cm were independent findings in differentiating malignant pleural mesothelioma from other malignant pleural disease, with specificity values of 0.85, 0.67 and 0.82, respectively.

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5
Q

@# 29. Plain radiographs of a previously well 60-year-old man with lower limb pain show lamellar periosteal reaction in the diametaphyseal regions. Bone scintigraphy demonstrates symmetrical increased uptake along the cortical margins in the diametaphyseal regions. What is the most likely underlying thoracic cause?

A. Pulmonary haemangioma

B. Pleural fibroma

C. TB

D. Blastomycosis

E. Malignant mesothelioma

A

B. Pleural fibroma

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is commonly associated with primary bronchogenic carcinoma, typically non-small-cell lung cancer (NSCLC).

HOA is also seen in patients with pulmonary metastases from extrathoracic malignancies such as breast carcinoma, nasopharyngeal tumours, renal cell carcinoma, melanoma and osteosarcoma. Benign associations include pleural fibroma and bronchiectasis.

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6
Q

@# 17) A 65-year-old man presents with painful wrists and ankles. There is no digital clubbing. A chest radiograph shows a well-defined pleural mass, forming an obtuse angle with the chest wall. CT confirms an ovoid, plurally based, enhancing mass with no bone destruction, effusion or volume loss. Radiographs of the wrists and ankles show symmetrical periosteal reaction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. hypertrophic osteoarthropathy with bronchogenic carcinoma

b. hypertrophic osteoarthropathy with malignant mesothelioma

c. hypertrophic osteoarthropathy with pleural fibroma

d. rheumatoid arthritis

e. tuberculosis

A

c. hypertrophic osteoarthropathy with pleural fibroma

The periosteal reaction is typical of hypertrophic osteoarthropathy (HOA), which has many causes, both intra- and extra thoracic. It is associated with bronchogenic carcinoma and malignant mesothelioma, but features of the described lesion are not typical of either of these, and are more in keeping with pleural fibroma. These are associated with HOA in 20–35% of cases and rarely with clubbing. They may arise in pleura adjacent to the chest wall or in a fissure, and can vary in size from 2 cm to 30cm in diameter. Tuberculosis is a rare cause of HOA. Rheumatoid arthritis is associated with bilateral periosteal reactions, but not HOA.

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7
Q

35) A 78-year-old man presents with superior vena caval syndrome. A CT scan shows an irregular mass in the superior mediastinum causing near-total occlusion of the superior vena cava. There is no sign of respiratory compromise or raised intracranial pressure. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step in the patient’s management?

a. obtains tissue diagnosis

b. chemotherapy

c. radiotherapy

d. stenting of superior vena cava

e. surgical bypass

A

a. obtains tissue diagnosis

Wherever possible, definitive diagnosis should be obtained, as it will enable the best possible treatment. Dependent upon the cause of the obstruction, the correct therapeutic option can then be employed.

Radiotherapy often gives a good response, but, in small-cell lung cancer, chemotherapy often gives good results.

Stenting should be used when radiotherapy or chemotherapy has failed.

Surgical therapy is usually reserved for benign causes where conservative options have failed.

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8
Q

38) A 65-year-old male presents with a 2-month history of cough and dyspnea and has had swelling of the face, neck and arms for 1 week. He has had tuberculosis in the past. CT shows an irregular right paratracheal mass with calcification that is compressing the superior vena cava and right main bronchus, with patchy consolidation in the right lung. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. small-cell carcinoma

b. lymphoma

c. malignant teratoma

d. fibrosing mediastinitis

e. bronchogenic cyst

A

d. fibrosing mediastinitis

Fibrosing mediastinitis is a rare condition which has two forms: focal (usually secondary to tuberculosis or histoplasmosis) or diffuse (often idiopathic).

When associated with tuberculosis, it is thought to be secondary to rupture of lymph nodes in the neck or mediastinum.

Calcification is seen in 63% of cases, but the mass may be difficult to differentiate from malignant conditions when calcification is not present.

Symptoms and signs are due to compression/obstruction of mediastinal structures.

Small-cell carcinoma and lymphoma can produce middle mediastinal masses, but calcification is rare, unless in treated lymphoma when progressive symptoms would be unlikely.

Malignant teratomas are typically anterior mediastinal masses which have well-defined lobulated margins, and usually do not calcify.

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9
Q

46) A 27-year-old female with known sickle cell disease has an outpatient appointment. She is feeling unwell and bloods show an anaemia. A chest radiograph shows a right-sided, lobulated, paramediastinal mass in the lower thorax with widening of the rib spaces. CT shows no calcification or bone erosion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. neurogenic tumor

b. bronchogenic cyst

c. Bochdalek’s hernia

d. tuberculous abscess

e. extramedullary haematopoiesis

A

e. extramedullary haematopoiesis

Extramedullary haematopoiesis occurs in conditions where there is prolonged anaemia. This can occur in the spleen, liver, lymph nodes, adrenals and many other sites. In the mediastinum it produces a rounded/lobulated, paraspinal soft-tissue mass, usually between T8 and T12.

Unlike other causes of paraspinal masses, there is usually no pain or bone erosion.

Bronchogenic cysts are of fluid density.

Bochdalek’s hernia can present in adults as a paravertebral mass, which is usually asymptomatic and contains fat as well as abdominal organs (bowel, kidney or spleen). It is usually left sided.

Tuberculous abscesses are usually associated with bone destruction.

Neurogenic tumors are rounded/ovoid and may extend through the intervertebral foramen into the spinal canal and/or produce bone erosion.

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10
Q

55) A 58-year-old male presents with malaise and left chest discomfort. A chest radiograph shows a well-defined mass in the left paravertebral region. CT shows that this is fatty but has soft-tissue stranding within it. Some enhancement of soft-tissue elements is seen along with foci of calcification. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. lipoma

b. liposarcoma

c. hamartoma

d. neurofibroma

e. Thymolipoma

A

b. liposarcoma

Liposarcoma is an uncommon tumor in the thorax. It contains variable amounts of fat, with soft-tissue components that may enhance following intravenous contrast. Calcification may occur within these lesions.

Lipomas are more common and occur anywhere within the mediastinum.

Hamartomas usually present as soft-tissue nodules within the peripheral lung and classically show popcorn calcification. They may contain fat.

Neurofibromas present as paravertebral masses, often extending into the intervertebral canal, and may have fatty attenuation due to the presence of myelin.

Thymolipomas occur in the anterior mediastinum and are found in young adults.

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11
Q

59) A 52-year-old male presents with mild dyspnea. A chest radiograph shows a raised left hemidiaphragm which demonstrates paradoxical movement on fluoroscopy. Which of the following would be the likely cause?

a. Pancoast’s tumor

b. left lower lobe tumor

c. mediastinal small cell carcinoma

d. eventration

e. cerebrovascular accident

A

c. mediastinal small cell carcinoma

Diaphragmatic elevation with paradoxical motion is usually due to phrenic nerve paralysis. Mediastinal tumors are one of the commonest causes.

Pancoast’s tumors invade the brachial plexus, though they can uncommonly invade the phrenic nerve.

Eventration tends not to show paradoxical motion, though it can if large.

Strokes may cause diaphragmatic elevation, but due to bilateral innervation of the diaphragm, this is not usually due to phrenic nerve involvement and has other causes, such as weakness of chest wall muscles.

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12
Q

65) A 43-year-old female presents with stridor. A chest radiograph shows a superior mediastinal mass with narrowing of trachea and displacement to right. Foci calcification are seen within. What is the likely diagnosis?

a. thymoma

b. teratoma

c. aneurysm of the aortic arch

d. thyroid goitre

e. lymph node mass

A

d. thyroid goitre

Thyroid goitres extend into the mediastinum in 3–17% of cases. Tracheal displacement may occur due to any adjacent enlarging mass, but narrowing is specific for thyroid lesions, especially goitre. Calcification is common. Teratomas tend to arise more often in the anterior mediastinum, though they may involve the superior mediastinum by extension. Thymomas may arise in the superior or anterior mediastinum. Either of these may show calcifi

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13
Q

67) A 20 year old presents with shortness of breath and cough. A chest radiograph shows a well-defined right hilar mass. CT shows a 4 cm, rounded, soft-tissue mass arising from the mediastinum adjacent to the right side of the carina. The attenuation value of the lesion is 10 HU. No other abnormal findings are seen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. bronchogenic cyst

b. pericardial cyst

c. carcinoid tumor

d. lymphoma

e. bronchogenic carcinoma

A

a. bronchogenic cyst

Bronchogenic cyst is an abnormality of the ventral diverticulum of the primitive foregut and is the most common foregut abnormality in the thorax. Typical appearances are of a thin-walled cyst containing mucus or fluid. CT shows a well-defined mass of water density in 50% (0–10 HU) or slightly higher density in the rest (10–50 HU); 86% are mediastinal and 50% pericarinal. Pericardial cysts largely occur in the cardiophrenic angle and are rarely mediastinal. Like bronchogenic cysts, these may change shape with position and respiration. Carcinoids occur in the lungs within bronchi and are mainly central. These are solid and may calcify. Bronchogenic carcinomas are usually solid, and centrally located in 38% of cases, where they are usually small cell tumors. These occur in the older population. Lymphadenopathy secondary to lymphoma is usually solid (unless treated) and involves multiple nodes in 95% of cases. The anterior mediastinum and retrosternal lymph nodes are usually affected first.

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14
Q

80) A CT scan performed on a patient shows a soft-tissue mass in the medial aspect of the left lung, invading the mediastinum between the aortic arch and pulmonary artery. Neither vessel is compromised. Which symptom may the patient have presented with?

a. stridor

b. dysphagia

c. pain

d. swelling of face and neck

e. hoarse voice

A

e. hoarse voice

The space between the pulmonary artery and aortic arch is the aortopulmonary window, which contains the ligamentum arteriosum and the left recurrent laryngeal nerve. Invasion here by tumors can lead to paralysis of the left vocal fold, which attains a fixed adducted position, by involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve. Stridor and dysphagia could result from deeper invasion into the mediastinum, as the trachea and esophagus form the medial border of the aortopulmonary window. Swelling of the face, neck and upper limbs occurs with superior vena cava obstruction, which is a feature of right sided mediastinal disease.

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15
Q

89) A 20-year-old male has a chest radiograph following a slow-to resolve chest infection. There is a mass arising from the mediastinum on the right side. Teratoma is suspected. Which feature on CT would suggest that the lesion is more likely to be benign?

a. lobulated margin

b. calcification

c. pleural effusion

d. pericardial effusion

e. mass projecting from both sides of the mediastinum

A

b. calcification

A definite diagnosis as to whether a teratoma is benign cannot be made on radiological features. Features suggestive of a benign nature are a rounded lesion, projection from one side of the mediastinum, and calcification (especially if in the form of a tooth). A fat–fluid level is characteristic of a benign lesion but is rare.

Features more suggestive of malignancy are lobulated margins, invasion into adjacent structures (may cause pleural or pericardial effusions), and projection from both sides of the mediastinum.

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16
Q

1-A 42-year-old fit and well male has a CXR for emigration purposes. There is a rounded opacity in the right mediastinum. Subsequent CT chest reveals a 4.5 cm nodal mass with central calcification and marked enhancement following contrast administration. There are no focal lung lesions. Which is diagnosis?

a) Castleman’s disease

b) Colorectal cancer metastasis

c) Langerhans’s cell histiocytosis

d) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

e) Silicosis

A

a) Castleman’s disease

Castleman’s disease is a low-grade B-cell lymphoid proliferation of unknown etiology. It can be localized or multicentral (multiple LNs, typically with systemic symptoms, with a poorer prognosis). The nodes may be as large as 16 cm, classically enhance avidly, and may have central calcification. Resection is curative in 90% of patients with the localized form.

Metastases from vascular tumors may also produce similar findings (e.g. melanoma, RCC, papillary thyroid cancer).

NHL can have similar features, but untreated lymphoma is not expected to produce calcified lymph nodes.

The acute disseminated form of LCH can be associated with lymphadenopathy, but this is usually generalized, the patient would be expected to be systemically unwell, and these nodes do not typically calcify.

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17
Q

8- In the staging of pleural mesothelioma, which of the following constitutes T4 disease?

(a) Invasion of a rib

(b) Invasion of the endothoracic fascia

(c) Invasion of mediastinal fat

(d) Invasion of the soft tissue of the chest wall

(e) Non-transmural invasion of the pericardium

A

(a) Invasion of a rib

The remaining scenarios constitute T3 disease.

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18
Q

9- A CXR is performed and shows a unilateral right-sided pleural effusion. Which of the following extra-pulmonary conditions is most likely to produce these appearances?

(a) Boerhaarve’s syndrome

(b) Gastric neoplasm

(c) Stanford type B aortic dissection

(d) Transection of the proximal thoracic duct

(e) Traumatic aortic rupture

A

(d) Transection of the proximal thoracic duct

Unilateral right-sided pleural effusions are associated with congestive cardiac failure and proximal thoracic duct transaction and, rarely pancreatitis (Which can be unilateral left (68%), unilateral right (10%) or bilateral, in 22%)- Unilateral left-sided pleural effusions include those mentioned and transection of the distal thoracic duct- The vast majority of traumatic aortic transections occur at the isthmus, distal to the left SCA origin, thus result in left-sided pleural effusions.

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19
Q

30- With regard to the thymus, which of the following statements is true?
(a) 30—40% of patients with myasthenia gravis have a thymoma

(b) 10% of patients with a thymoma have myasthenia gravis

(c) Thymoma usually presents before the age of 40

(d) Cyst formation in the thymus is a feature of malignant degeneration

(e) The average age of thymoma diagnosis is less in patients with associated myasthenia gravis

A

(e) The average age of thymoma diagnosis is less in patients with associated myasthenia gravis

Thymoma typically presents around 50 years of age and is associated myasthenia gravis; the percentages values for (a) and (b) are reversed. Thymic cysts are benign and may be congenital or acquired, particularly after mediastinal radiotherapy.

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20
Q

34- According to the British Thoracic Society guidelines, ‘What distance between the lung edge and the chest wall constitutes a ‘large’ pneumothorax?

(a) >1 cm

(b) >2 cm

(c) >3 cm

(d) >4 cm

(e) >5 cm

A

(b) >2 cm

Measuring the volume of a pneumothorax from the 2—D chest film is difficult, not least because the distance from the chest wall to the lung edge varies along its course. These authors estimate 2 cm to be a 50% pneumothorax, although earlier papers would estimate it at 20%.

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21
Q

35- A 20-year-old woman undergoes a CXR as part of an occupational assessment. She is found to have an abnormal lesion in the right cardio phrenic space and subsequently undergoes CT examination which shows an anterior mass predominantly composed of fat fine higher attenuation linear structures within it. The lesion also contains some round, defined gas containing areas. What is the likeliest diagnosis?

(a) Liposarcom

(b) Pericardial fat necrosis

(c) Thymolipoma

(d) Diaphragmatic hernia

(e) Teratoma

A

(d) Diaphragmatic hernia

In the adult, congenital diaphragmatic hernias are typically asymptomatic.

The presence of gas within bowel loops is pathognomonic.

Mesenteric vessels typically appear as linear opacities.

If the lesion only contains omental fat, it can be difficult to differentiate from lipoma or liposarcoma.

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22
Q

5 You are asked to report the CXR of a 58 year old man. The request form simply states ‘shortness of breath’, there are no previous films available for comparison. There is bibasal atelectasis and pleural calcification is seen within the right hemithorax. What is the least likely of the following diagnoses?

(a) Berylliosis

(b) Prior haemothorax

(c) Radiation therapy

(d) Talcosis

(e) Tuberculosis

A

(a) Berylliosis

Pleural calcification can be due to infection (TB, healed empyema), trauma (healed haemothorax), radiation therapy, pneumoconiosis (asbestosis), talcosis, hyperparathyroidism. Berylliosis rarely involves the pleura.

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23
Q

@# 19 An adolescent male patient presents with dyspnoea, cough, and complains of feeling increasingly tired. The subsequent CXR shows a mass located within the anterior mediastinum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Bochdalek hernia

(b) Bronchopulmonary foregut malformation

(c) Extramedullary haemopoeisis

(d) Germ cell tumour

(e) Neuroblastoma

A

(d) Germ cell tumour

The other options are either exclusively or typically found within the posterior mediastinum.

The anterior mediastinum is the third most common site of primary germ cell tumour, after gonadal and sacrococcygeal location.

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24
Q

31 A 55 year old man undergoes a CT to assess pleural thickening previously noted on a chest radiograph. Which of the following features is not an indicator of malignancy?

(a) Involves mediastinal pleural surface

(b) Depth greater than 1 cm

(c) Volume loss

(d) Nodularity

(e) Pleural effusion

A

(e) Pleural effusion

Pleural effusions are seen in both benign and malignant pleural disease. In addition to the other signs, encasement of the lung by pleural disease is a feature of malignancy.

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25
Q

(MSK) 33 A 14 year old boy has a CXR which shows clear lungs, no cardiomegaly, an indistinct right heart border, decreased heart density and leftward displacement of the heart. Which of the following conditions is not associated with these findings?

(a) Prematurity

(b) Down’s syndrome

(c) Noonan’s syndrome

(d) Marfan’s syndrome

(e) Homocystinuria

A

(c) Noonan’s syndrome

These findings are those of pectus excavatum which is most usually an isolated abnormality, but in addition to the above is also associated with foetal alcohol syndrome. Other radiological signs include a horizontal course of the posterior portion of the ribs along with an accentuated downward course of the anterior ribs.

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26
Q

42 A 67 year old male non-smoker presents with cough, dyspnoea and weight loss. The CXR shows a large right sided pleural effusion which occupies three quarters of the hemithorax. There is no mediastinal shift. The film is otherwise normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Congestive cardiac failure

(b) Bronchogenic carcinoma

(c) Meig’s syndrome

(d) Mesothelioma

(e) Pancreatitis

A

(d) Mesothelioma

Mesothelioma more typically produces a unilateral pleural effusion (only 10% of effusions will be bilateral) which is exudative and may be haemorrhagic. There is classically no mediastinal shift (‘frozen’ hemithorax) due to fixation by the pleural rind of neoplastic tissue. 5-10% of workers exposed to asbestos will develop mesothelioma (30x increased risk), with a latency period of 35 years; an occupational exposure history is not always present. Crocidolite is the most carcinogenic of the asbestos fibres (> amosite, > chrysotile).

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27
Q

43 A tall, thin 18 year old man with no medical history presents with acute pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. On examination there is reduced air entry on the right side, with hyper-resonant percussion. Which of the following signs would you not expect?

(a) Continuous diaphragm sign

(b) Deep sulcus sign

(c) Increased sharpness of the cardiomediastinal border

(d) Double diaphragm sign

(e) Ipsilateral hypochondrial transradiancy

A

(a) Continuous diaphragm sign

In the erect film, a pneumothorax can be easily diagnosed when the visceral pleural can be seen separated from the chest wall by a transradiant zone devoid of vessels.

In supine films, more subtle signs may be present, including

‘deep sulcus sign’, due to pleural air tracking anterior to the hemidiaphragm into the costophrenic angle,

‘double diaphragm’ sign describes air outlining the anterior costophrenic angle combined with aerated lung outlining the diaphragmatic dome.

There may also be a relative hyper-lucency in the ipsilateral hemithorax/ hypochondrial region or increased sharpness of the cardiomediastinal border due to anteromedial collection of air.

The continuous diaphragm sign is due to pneumomediastinum or pneumopericardium.

28
Q

48 A 20 year man has recently completed chemotherapy for NHL. A follow-up PET-CT scan is arranged. There is increased uptake within the region of the thymus. Subsequent MRI shows intermediate signal within the thymus on T1 and T2- weighting and signal drop out on in/out of phase imaging. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Lymphomatous infiltration

(b) Thymic carcinoma

(c) Thymic hyperplasia

(d) Thymic lipoma

(e) Thymoma

A

(c) Thymic hyperplasia

Rebound hyperplasia is seen in recovery from illness, after chemotherapy or radiotherapy.

PET may be positive in all the given options.

MRI chemical shift ratio can be used to distinguish thymic hyperplasia and thymoma, as the latter contains no fat.

Thymic lipoma would also show this but would have high (not intermediate) signal on T1 W and T2W.

Thymoma typically appears asymmetrical with a lobulated contour.

29
Q

67 After a prolonged stay on ITU for pancreatitis, a- 53 year old patient develops bilateral pleural effusions along with sepsis of unknown origin. Which of the following US features suggests a transudate rather than an exudate?

(a) Homogeneously hyperechoic material

(b) Anechoic material

(c) Complex septated material

(d) Complex non-septated material

(e) Parenchyp-ial hyperechogenicity

A

(b) Anechoic material

Hyperechoic effusions can be difficult to discriminate from normal lung but can be differentiated by observing movement with respiration.

30
Q
  1. A 56 year old female is found to have a small, well-defined anterior mediastinal mass on a chest radiograph which demonstrates homogeneous soft-tissue density with some peripheral calcification on CT. On MRI it is isointense to skeletal muscle on T1-weighted images and slightly increased signal on T2-weighted images. It is most likely to be:

a. Thymic cyst

b. Thymoma

c. Thymolipoma

d. Thymic hyperplasia

e. Thymic carcinoma

A
  1. b. Thymoma

This case describes the typical features of a thymoma.

Thymic hyperplasia and thymic carcinoma are usually ill-defined abnormalities.

The signal from the lesion is not typical for a thymic cyst or thymolipoma

31
Q

@#e 23. A 25 year old man has a routine chest radiograph prior to a work permit application. It demonstrates a well-defined, rounded mediastinal mass. Which of the following features on CT would make a diagnosis of bronchogenic cyst less likely?

a. Soft-tissue density

b. Thick wall

c. Precarinal location

d. Communication with tracheal lumen

e. Unilocularity

A
  1. b. Thick wall

Bronchogenic cyst is the most common intrathoracic foregut duplication cyst. It could have all the above features, but in a mediastinal location, the cyst walls are usually thin.

Thick-walled cysts are more likely to be oesophageal.

32
Q

(Ped) 28. A neonate presenting with respiratory distress and a scaphoid abdomen is diagnosed with congenital diaphragmatic hernia following imaging. Which of the following is true?

a. Right-sided hernia is frequently fatal

b. The anterior hernias are larger

c. The stomach is the commonest viscera to herniate

d. Morgagni hernia present earlier

e. Early intrauterine diagnosis is associated with an improved prognosis

A
  1. a. Right-sided hernia is frequently fatal

Whilst congenital diaphragmatic hernias are commoner on the left, right-sided ones are frequently fatal.

Anterior (Morgagni) hernia is usually smaller and presents in childhood, whilst posterior (Bochdalek) hernia is larger and presents early.

Small bowel is the commonest viscera to herniate.

Intrauterine diagnosis before 25 weeks is an indicator of poor outcome.

33
Q
  1. A 30 year old man has a routine chest radiograph which reveals a small soft-tissue shadow resulting in loss of part of the mid-descending aortic outline. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

a. Thymoma in the left lobe of thymus

b. Hilar lymphadenopathy

c. Lingular collapse

d. Intercostal schwannoma

e. Teratoma

A
  1. d. Intercostal schwannoma

The description is of a posterior mediastinal lesion obscuring part of the descending thoracic aorta. The other lesions are anterior mediastinal apart from hilar lymphadenopathy, which is hilar/middle mediastinal.

34
Q

QUESTION 9
An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department chronically short of breath. On examination, there is dullness at the left lung base and a CXR reveals loss of the left costophrenic angle. An ultrasound is performed and demonstrates a pleural effusion with no internal echoes. Diagnostic aspiration reveals that the pleural fluid has a protein concentration of 15 g/L. Which one of the following would be the most likely cause?

A Cardiac failure

B Collagen vascular diseases

C Infection

D Malignancy

E Pulmonary infarction

A

A Cardiac failure

A transudate is defined as a fluid collection with a low protein concentration (< 30 g/L),

whereas an exudate has a high protein concentration (> 30 g/L).

Cardiac failure increases the capillary hydrostatic pressure which forces protein poor fluid across intact membranes.

Any pathological process that leads to damage of cell membranes will allow the passage of protein macromolecules through the membrane and consequently an exudate.

35
Q

QUESTION 8
A 16-year-old man has been sent for a CXR by his GP. He has had a chronic cough for 3 months and the GP is concerned that there may be an underlying pneumonia. Having reviewed the film and decided that this is not the case, you note the presence of a unilateral hypertransradiant hemithorax. Which of the following causes would not be in your differential diagnosis?

A MacLeod’s syndrome

B Poland’s syndrome

C Poliomyelitis

D Pulmonary agenesis and hypoplasia

E Pulmonary embolus

A

D Pulmonary agenesis and hypoplasia

Pulmonary agenesis and hypoplasia is usually asymptomatic with mediastinal displacement towards a dense hemithorax.

Poliomyelitis can cause atrophy of the overlying pectoral muscles.

MacLeod’s syndrome is a late sequel of childhood bronchiolitis with a small lung, small pulmonary arteries and expiratory air trapping on the affected side.

If there is an embolus lodged in a major pulmonary artery, the vessels distal to the obstruction will be under perfused with associated loss of lung volume.

36
Q

QUESTION 12
A 60-year-old man with Hodgkin’s disease and hypertension complains of shortness of breath. He attends the Radiology Department for a CXR and it is noted that he has bilateral pleural effusions. No lung parenchymal abnormality is identified and a recent transthoracic echocardiogram was normal. It is clinically suspected that the pleural effusions may have been caused by one of the drugs he is currently taking. Which one of his drug treatments is the most likely to have caused the pleural effusions?

A Amoxycillin

B Bleomycin

C Frusemide

D Lisinopril

E Propranolol

A

B Bleomycin

A number of drugs have been described as causing pleural effusions, the most common agents being cytotoxics (eg bleomycin). Antimigraine agents, amiodarone, bromocriptine and gonadotrophins are also associated with pleural effusions

37
Q

QUESTION 13
A young man is involved in a road traffic accident and complains of pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath. An initial supine CXR performed in the Emergency Department demonstrates several left-sided posterior rib fractures. There is also the suspicion that a pneumothorax is present. Once stabilised, the patient attends the Radiology Department for an erect PA chest radiograph. Which one of the following signs not seen on the initial supine film will now predominate?

A A deep left costophrenic recess laterally

B Left apical transradiancy and pleural line

C Undue clarity of the left mediastinal border

D Unilateral left lung transradiancy

E Visualisation of the undersurface of the heart

A

B Left apical transradiancy and pleural line

Typical signs of a pneumothorax are seen on the erect radiograph where pleural air rises to the apex. Here the visceral pleural line at the apex becomes separated from the chest wall by a transradiant zone devoid of vessels.

38
Q

QUESTION 14
A 60-year-old man presents to his GP with a cough, fever, dyspnoea and some chest pain. He also complains of painful wrists and hands which are worse at night. A CXR demonstrated a pleural-based left chest wall mass with a well demarcated and slightly lobulated contour. No rib destruction is evident. A subsequent CT confirmed these findings with the mass demonstrating slightly heterogeneous enhancement after contrast administration. No pleural effusion was seen. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A Empyema

B Localised mesothelioma

C Pleural extension of a lung tumour

D Pleural metastasis

E Subpleural lipoma

A

B Localised mesothelioma

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy is a well-recognised complication seen with a localised mesothelioma

39
Q

QUESTION 15
A previously fit and well 30-year-old woman undergoes a CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) for suspected acute pulmonary embolism. The CTPA excludes a pulmonary embolism but an incidental mediastinal mass is noted. This solitary mediastinal mass is seen inferior to the carina with displacement of the carina anteriorly and the oesophagus displaced posteriorly. The contents of the lesion are of uniform attenuation 0 Hounsfield Units (HU). Prior to this admission the patient had not reported any symptoms of note. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A Bronchogenic cyst

B Mediastinal pancreatic pseudocyst

C Neurenteric cyst

D Neurogenic tumour

E Oesophageal duplication cyst

A

A Bronchogenic cyst

Bronchogenic cysts are the most common intrathoracic foregut cyst.

40
Q

QUESTION 16
A 40-year-old woman has a previous histoiy of histoplasmosis. She undergoes a chest CT which demonstrates confluent soft tissue infiltration throughout the mediastinum. Tissue biopsy determines a diagnosis of fibrosing mediastinitis subsequent to the histoplasmosis infection. Which one of the following complications would be the most common to occur?

A Oesophageal obstruction

B Pulmonary artery obstruction

C Pulmonary venous obstruction

D Superior vena cava obstruction

E Tracheal obstruction

A

D Superior vena cava obstruction

Superior vena cava obstruction is the most common complication of fibrosing mediastinitis, but occasionally it can present with pulmonary arterial obstruction, pulmonary venous obstruction (peribronchial obstruction, septal lines etc), central airway narrowing (stridor) and oesophageal narrowing (dysphagia).

41
Q
  1. A 72-year-old former ship builder has presented with increasing shortness of breath to the respiratory physicians. A CXR reveals a pleural mass. You carry out a CT scan, which shows a 1cm diameter area of pleural thickening extending along the lateral chest wall inferiorly to the diaphragm. On coronal reconstructions the diaphragm appears smooth. There are a number of >1-cm nodes noted in the ipsilateral hilum as well as a solitary 1.2-cm node noted in the contralateral hilum. Following discussion with thoracic surgery a core biopsy is done, which confirms the diagnosis of malignant mesothelioma. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is carried out. The lesion is increased signal on T2 weighted imaging (T2WI). The enlarged nodes are also identified. On post-gadolinium coronal fat saturation sequences a focus of high signal is noted to extend from the parietal pleura through the diaphragm to involve the peritoneum. A single focus of chest wall invasion is also noted. PET-CT shows high uptake in the lesion with a standard uptake value maximum (SUV max) of 25. All nodes with the exception of the contralateral node demonstrate uptake. Which of these factors means this tumour is inoperable?

A. The contralateral enlarged node noted on CT and MRI.

B. The tissue diagnosis of malignant mesothelioma.

C. The high SUV max.

D. The chest wall disease noted on MRI.

E. The diaphragmatic disease noted on MRI.

A
  1. E. The diaphragmatic disease noted on MRI.

The finding of peritoneal disease upstages this tumour to Stage 4, which is inoperable. CT is the main imaging modality in malignant mesothelioma, which is sufficient in a lot of cases that are obviously inoperable on this modality alone. MRI has been shown to be superior to CT in the detection of local invasion, hence the normal CT appearance in this case, where peritoneal disease was noted on MRI. PET or PET-CT are better at detecting nodal disease than either CT or MRI. As such, in some cases all three modalities are necessary to stage disease. As MM does not respond well to radiotherapy or chemotherapy, the key therapeutic decision is whether or not the lesion is suitable for surgery. Even then, surgery alone has poor results and combination surgery, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy are required. T3 tumours and lower are all surgically resectable. Nodal disease extending to the contralateral mediastinum or internal mammary regions, or any supraclavicular nodal disease, denotes N3 disease. N3 disease is also unresectable, as are distant metastases.

42
Q
  1. A 55-year-old female patient presents to the neurology service with features of myasthenia gravis. As part of the routine work-up a CXR is requested which demonstrates an anterior mediastinal mass. A CT scan is requested. This reveals a 5cm mass located centrally within the anterior mediastinum. This mass has poorly defined margins, resulting in obliteration of the mediastinal fat plane. There are areas of low attenuation within this lesion which have an attenuation value of 3 HU. There are stippled areas of calcification noted. There is also a right-sided pleural effusion. There is no evidence of disease elsewhere in the mediastinum, or invasion of the great vessels. You plan to carry out a CT guided biopsy, but at this stage what is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Benign thymoma.

B. Atypical thymoma.

C. Thymic carcinoma.

D. Thymic lymphoma.

E. Malignant thymic germ cell tumour.

A
  1. B. Atypical thymoma.

Whilst the ultimate differentiation between these lesions is pathological, there are a number of clinical and imaging features that can help limit the differential if present.

Whilst benign thymoma, atypical thymoma, and thymic carcinoma can all present as focal mass lesions in the thymus,

benign thymoma would not demonstrate the locally aggressive features found on this patient’s scan.

Atypical thymoma is a locally aggressive lesion with benign features on pathology; it has a better prognosis than thymic carcinoma.

Atypical thymoma, thymic carcinoma, thymic lymphoma, and malignant thymic germ cell tumours can all be locally aggressive.

The presence of mediastinal lymphadenopathy, invasion of the great vessels, or distant metastases are uncommon for atypical thymoma, but are features of the other three tumours; none of these were present in this case.

The final key differentiating feature in this case to indicate atypical thymoma over the other differentials is the presence of myasthenia gravis.

As thymic lymphoma and malignant germ cell tumours are not of thymic origin, they would not cause this. It is rarely a feature of thymic carcinoma.

43
Q
  1. A 57-year-old patient has a CXR carried out. This shows a mass in the left apex, adjacent to the spine. Numerous soft tissue densities are noted projected across the lungs. A lateral radiograph is carried out which projects the mass over the vertebral bodies and indicates that the smaller densities are cutaneous. You request additional information from the referring clinician. This patient has a complex history. He has type 1 neurofibromatosis, but has also recently been diagnosed with myelofibrosis. You perform a CT scan, which shows widening of the neural foramen on the left side, which is in continuity with the left apex mass. This mass measures 2 cm in diameter and has an attenuation value of 4 HU. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Neuroblastoma.

B. Neurofibroma.

C. Extramedullary haematopoesis.

D. Lateral meningocele.

E. Neuro-enteric cyst.

A
  1. D. Lateral meningocele.

Neuroblastoma is a tumour of childhood and would be extremely rare in a 57-year-old.

Whilst the history of neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1) would raise the possibility of this lesion being a neurofibroma, the CT findings of a cyst discount this.

Extramedullary haematopoesis is a rare feature of myelofibrosis and commonly gives bilateral soft tissue masses.

Lateral meningoceles are herniations of CSF through a dilated neural foramen, most commonly in patients with a history of NF-1. As they contain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), the attenuation value would be comparable to water.

A neuro-enteric cyst can have a similar appearance. These are often symptomatic and detected in childhood, unlike lateral meningoceles, which are asymptomatic. They are associated with congenital spinal abnormalities rather than widening of the neural exit foramen as described in this case.

44
Q
  1. A 4-year-old with a history of asthma is admitted with an acute exacerbation. A post-admission CXR shows evidence of pneumomediastinum. Which one of the following is a recognized sign of pneumomediastinum?

A. Spinnaker/thymic sail sign.

B. Air-crescent sign.

C. Deep sulcus sign.

D. Inverted V sign.

E. Outline of the medial diaphragm inferior to the cardiac silhouette.

A
  1. A. Spinnaker/thymic sail sign.

This is due to mediastinal air outlining the thymus in children.

Other features of pneumomediastinum are streaky lucencies in the thoracic inlet, air outlining the major arteries (tubular artery sign), and the continuous diaphragm sign, where air in the posterior mediastinum outlines the diaphragm.

This is different to air outlining the medial diaphragm under the cardiac silhouette, which is the earliest sign of a pneumothorax in a supine patient.

The deep sulcus sign is also a sign of a pneumothorax in a supine patient.

The air-crescent sign is a feature to note in cavitating lung lesions and mycetomas.

The inverted V sign is an indicator of pneumoperitoneum.

45
Q

@# (Ped) 18 A previously well seven-year-old boy has a chest radiograph for a possible chest infection. The lungs are clear but the film is reported as showing a posterior mediastinal mass with an air-fluid level and hemivertebrae of T3 and T4. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Intramural oesophageal tumour

b Morgagni diaphragmatic hernia

c Oesophageal duplication cyst

d Cystic hygroma

e Bronchogenic cyst

A

18 Answer C: Oesophageal duplication cyst

Oesophageal duplication cysts account for 10-20% of all duplication cysts in the gastrointestinal tract. They are associated with vertebral anomalies, oesophageal atresia and small bowel duplication. They are most commonly found in the distal oesophagus where they are frequently asymptomatic.

46
Q

34 A 75-year-old gentleman who had worked in the construction industry had a chest radiograph prior to an elective cholecystectomy. Multiple calcified pleural plaques were visible bilaterally with lower zone predominant reticular opacification. What is the most likely pleural manifestation of this disease?

a Diffuse pleural thickening

b Pleural effusion

C Focal pleural plaques

d Pleural calcification

e Mesothelioma

A

34 Answer B: Pleural effusion

Pleural effusion is often the earliest abnormality in asbestos-related pleural disease but focal pleural plaques are more common during the later part of the disease. Very fine fibres such as crocidolite are more likely to result in extensive pleural disease.

47
Q

35 A patient with long-standing severe rheumatoid arthritis developed progressive dyspnoea. What is the most frequent intra-thoracic manifestation of the disease?

a Pleural disease

b Interstitial fibrosis

C Bronchiectasis

d Bronchiolitis obliterans

e Pulmonary nodules

A

35 Answer A: Pleural disease

Rheumatoid lung occurs more frequently in males with rheumatoid arthritis (although rheumatoid arthritis is more common in females). Pleural involvement is the most common thoracic manifestation while rheumatoid nodules are the rarest.

48
Q

49 A 64-year-old female was seen in the Emergency Department for dyspnoea. She was otherwise fit and well and had no significant past medical history. A full blood count showed a mild neutrophilia and a chest radiograph revealed significant elevation of the right hemidiaphragm. What is the most likely cause?

a Herpes zoster infection

b Previous iatrogenic trauma

C Compression of the phrenic nerve by a tumour

d Peripheral neuropathy secondary to cervical spondylosis

e Compression of the phrenic nerve caused by a thoracic aortic aneurysm

A

49 Answer C: Compression of the phrenic nerve by a tumour

This is largely a question of probability, as the clinical history is non-specific. A tumour causing compression is the commonest cause in adults.

49
Q

54 A 62-year-old widow presented to the Neurology Clinic with fatigue and weakness, particularly after minimal exertion. Cranial nerve examination revealed rapid fatigability of the facial muscles and her chest radiograph showed mediastinal widening. The patient then underwent contrast enhanced CT of the chest. Which of the following findings best fits the given clinical scenario?

a Diffuse mediastinal adenopathy and a widespread interstitial thickening

b Retrosternal goitre demonstrating areas of necrosis and haemorrhage with avid contrast enhancement

C Isolated homogeneous soft tissue mass within the anterior mediastinum outlined by fat

d Diffuse, invasive mass containing areas of haemorrhage and calcification encasing the major vessels

e Large, eccentric aortic arch aneurysm

A

54 Answer C: Isolated homogeneous soft tissue mass within the anterior mediastinum outlined by fat

The neurological findings are classic of the myasthenia gravis - an autoimmune disorder characterised by antibodies against postjunctional acetylcholine receptors. The condition is often associated with thymoma.

50
Q

57 A retired railway worker underwent plain chest radiography and CT scanning. What appearance would be most in keeping with benign asbestos-related pleural plaque disease?

a Asymmetric pleural thickening of the right lung, predominantly involving the mediastinal pleural surface. No calcification is evident; however, there is a moderately large pleural effusion.

b Bilateral focal pleural thickening involving the apices and costophrenic angles, but sparing the diaphragms. Most of the plaques are calcified.

c Bilateral focal pleural thickening predominantly affecting the diaphragms and lower thorax, sparing the apices, costophrenic angles and mediastinal pleura. Only a few of the plaques are calcified.

d Bilateral focal pleural thickening involving the lower thorax and sparing the costophrenic angles, diaphragms, mediastinal pleura and apices. Most of the plaques are calcified.

e Bilateral focal pleural thickening involving the costophrenic angles and lower thorax, but sparing the diaphragms, mediastinal pleura and apices. Only a few of the plaques are calcified.

A

57 Answer C: Bilateral focal pleural thickening predominantly affecting the diaphragms and lower thorax, sparing the apices, costophrenic angles and mediastinal pleura.Only a few of the plaques are calcified.

The typical appearances of benign asbestos-related pleural plaques are bilateral focal pleural thickening of the chest wall between the seventh and tenth ribs and diaphragms with sparing of the costophrenic angles, apices and mediastinal pleura. Plaques show a predilection for the posteriorlateral portion of the chest wall and may or may not be calcified. Appearances raising the possibility of malignant mesothelioma include concentric pleural thickening involving the mediastinal pleura, pleural effusion and effacement of the subpleural fat plane.

51
Q

60 You are asked to perform a chest ultrasound and diagnostic aspiration on a 50-year-old patient with a history of recent pneumonia. The attending physician is concerned as the patient has developed a pleural effusion and remains febrile and unwell despite four days of intravenous antibiotics. What findings are most in keeping with a parapneumonic empyema?

a Simple pleural effusion and underlying atelectasis on ultrasound. Biochemical/cytological analysis: ph 7.4, lymphocytes ++

b Septated effusion and underlying consolidation on ultrasound. Biochemical/cytological analysis: ph 7.2, lymphocytes +

C Simple effusion with underlying consolidation on ultrasound. Biochemical/cytological analysis: ph 7.7, neutrophils ++

d Septated effusion with underlying atelectasis on ultrasound. Biochemical/cytological analysis: ph 7.4, neutrophils ++, lymphocytes +

e Septated effusion with underlying consolidation on ultrasound. Biochemical/cytological analysis: ph 7.1, neutrophils ++

A

60 Answer E: Septated effusion with underlying consolidation on ultrasound. Biochemical/cytological analysis: ph 7.1, neutrophils ++

Ultrasound is useful for delineating small effusions that may not be easily appreciated on plain radiography.

Typical features of an infected effusion (empyema) on ultrasound are the presence of reflective debris and septations, although the absence of these findings does not exclude empyema.

Pathological analysis of the fluid is needed to confirm or refute the presence of an empyema.

Typically the ph is <7.3, glucose is low, LDH is raised and neutrophils are present.

52
Q

32 A 61-year-old female developed gradually worsening hoarseness of her voice. Her PA chest radiograph showed a widened mediastinum and a CT confirmed a lobulated anterior mediastinal mass. The surrounding mediastinal fat showed no stranding fascial planes were preserved. There was no lymphadenopathy and the lungs were of normal appearance. What is the likely density of this lesion?

a Similar to lung

b Similar to mediastinal fat

C Similar to skeletal muscle

d Similar to cancellous bone

e Fluid density

A

32 Answer C: Similar to skeletal muscle

Thymomas are the most common primary tumour of the anterior mediastinum and half are detected incidentally. The remainder may demonstrate symptoms secondary to mediastinal compression. Malignant thymomas tend to show changes in the mediastinal fat and fascial planes.

53
Q

@# 43 A 74-year-old man presented with dyspnoea and chest pain. A chest radiograph showed pleural thickening encasing the right hemithorax and a right pleural effusion. There are no pleural plaques and the visible lung is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Metastatic thymoma

b Malignant mesothelioma

C Tuberculosis

d Metastatic colonic carcinoma

e Pleural fibroma

A

43 Answer B: Malignant mesothelioma

It is associated with pleural plaques in only about 50% of cases. Pleural effusions are common and can often be large enough to obscure the underlying tumour. A useful differentiator from other causes of pleural effusion is the lack of shift of midline structures as the mediastinum is fixed by the disease process.

54
Q

54 A 43-year-old social worker underwent chest radiography and chest CT. On the chest radiograph there was right-sided widening of the mediastinum in the region of the right hilum and calcification was also seen within the mediastinum with signs of right heart dilatation. Within the right lung there was peribronchial cuffing, septal thickening and wedges of consolidation. CT confirms the presence of a focal, partly calcified right perihilar mediastinal mass, right heart dilatation and peripheral wedge shaped areas of consolidation in the right lung. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Fibrosing mediastinitis

b Mediastinal granuloma

C Primary pulmonary lymphoma

d Thymic carcinoma

e Histoplasmosis

A

54 Answer A: Fibrosing mediastinitis

The findings are classical of fibrosing mediastinitis. The most common presentation is that of a focal mass lesion containing calcification causing compression of the pulmonary vasculature leading to right heart strain, peribronchial cuffing, septal thickening and wedge-shaped areas of pulmonary infarction. There is an association with retroperitoneal fibrosis and orbital pseudotumour.

55
Q

37 Following radiotherapy for thoracic Hodgkin’s disease, a new anterior mediastinal cystic structure was identified on CT thorax of a young adult male. It was well defined and showed no aggressive features. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Bronchogenic cyst

b Thymic cyst

C Pericardial cyst

d Oesophageal enteric cyst

e Pancreatic pseudocyst tracking up into the mediastinum

A

37 Answer B: Thymic cyst

Thymic hyperplasia and cysts may develop following radiotherapy to the thorax. Bronchogenic cysts are usually pericarinal in location. Half of these have water attenuation and the other half have higher attenuation due to the presence of mucous or milk of calcium contents. An air fluid level may be seen if it communicates with the airways. A pericardial cyst can be located in the mediastinal but it is very rare. Most pericardial cysts are located at the costophrenic angle, right more than left. They can change their shape and size with variation in respiration and position.

56
Q

47 A 24-year-old fit and well man had an occupational chest radiograph that showed loss of the right heart border and a straight left heart border. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Pectus excavatum

b Middle lobe consolidation

c Right lower lobe collapse

d Right atrial enlargement

e Oesophageal dilatation

A

47 Answer A: Pectus excavatum

The two findings are compatible with pectus excavatum as is a horizontal course of the posterior ribs and vertical course of the anterior ribs.

57
Q

50 You are asked to review a chest radiograph by a respiratory physician. There is a discrete mass arising behind the heart on the left. The lateral border is smooth and rounded. Medially, the mass obscures the lateral border of the descending thoracic aorta. No other abnormalities are visible. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a Thyroid carcinoma

b Schwannoma

C Teratoma

d Ectopic parathyroid adenoma

e Lymphoma

A

50 Answer B: Schwannoma

The appearances are those of a posterior mediastinal mass. Thyroid/parathyroid masses, lymphoma and teratoma are most commonly seen within the anterior mediastinum. Although lymphoma remains a diagnostic possibility, a neurogenic tumour (e.g. schwannoma) is the most likely diagnosis in this case.

58
Q

53 A 47-year-old primary school teacher, due to emigrate to Australia, underwent chest radiography that showed a mass in the superior mediastinum. The mass extended into the neck and there was slight deviation of the trachea to the left. No information is available as to whether the patient has any symptoms or signs. What is the most likely cause for this appearance?

a Mediastinal dermoid

b Thyroid enlargement

C Thymic tumour

d Lymphadenopathy

e Fibrosing mediastinitis

A

53 Answer B: Thyroid enlargement

The most common cause of a superior mediastinal mass is a goitre, followed by lymphadenopathy. Retrosternal goitres are seen to extend into the neck from the superior mediastinum and almost invariably displace or compress the trachea.

59
Q

54 A 12-year-old boy with a long-standing history of mild dysphagia underwent endoscopy, which demonstrated extrinsic compression of the mid oesophagus. The paediatric team were keen to avoid radiation exposure and the patient was re-booked for endoscopic ultrasound. This showed a rounded, thin-walled, echo-poor cyst located ant to the oesophagus in a subcarinal location. Mucoid material was aspirated from cyst. What is the most diagnosis?

a Extralobar pulmonary sequestration

b Thymic cyst

C Intralobar pulmonary sequestration

d Tarlov cyst

e Bronchogenic cyst

A

54 Answer E: Bronchogenic cyst

Bronchogenic cysts are budding abnormalities of the ventral diverticulum of the primitive foregut. They invariably contain mucoid material and are most commonly located in the mediastinum, although they can be seen within the lungs, they predispose to infection.

Tarlov cysts are dilated nerve root sleeves containing CSE

60
Q
  1. A 40-year-old man presents shortness of breath after mild smoke inhalation. The chest radiograph shows a right paratracheal soft tissue shadow. The lungs and hila are clear. CT shows a right paratracheal mass in the mediastinum which contains fluid of 10 Hounsfield units. This has well-defined margins and conforms to the shape of surrounding structures without compressing them. No contrast enhancement is seen. The most likely diagnosis is?

(a) Sarcoidosis

(b) Lymphoma

(c) Metastases from unknown primary

(d) Bronchogenic cyst

(e) Pericardial cyst

A
  1. (d) Bronchogenic cyst

These are developmental cysts that are a part of bronchopulmonary foregut malformations. These often have a fibrous capsule and filled with fluid attenuation mucoid material. They do not cause any mass effect and conforms to the shape of surrounding mediastinal structures. On MRI, they are bright on T2 but due to protein content, the signal on T1 is variable. No contrast enhancement is seen.

61
Q
  1. A 58-year-old man was found to have an incidental lesion measuring 5 cm in the anterior mediastinum. The lesion shows heterogenous enhancement on CT with punctate calcifications. On MRI, the lesion is isointense to muscle, with cystic components and hyperintense on T2. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Thymolipoma

(b) Thymoma

(c) Lymphoma

(d) Thymic carcinoma

(e) Metastasis

A
  1. (b) Thymoma

Thymolipoma are rare, predominantly fat-containing neoplasms. Lymphoma presents with extensive lymph node masses in the mediastinum

62
Q
  1. A 32-year-old man presents with cough. The chest radiographs shows a 4 cm paraspinal mass lesion. CT chest demonstrates a smooth, well-defined dumbbell shaped mass in the left paravertebral region. The lesion expands the neural foramen and extends into the spinal canal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

(a) Neuroblastoma

(b) Neurofibroma

(c) Bronchogenic carcinoma

(d) Lymphoma

(e) Extramedullary haematopoiesis

A
  1. (b) Neurofibroma

Neurofibromas are typically dumbbell shaped and extend into the spinal canal with expansion of the neural foramen.

Neuroblastoma is seen usually in children, are heterogenous tumours and show calcification.

Bronchogenic carcinoma causes bony destruction and lymphoma rarely has isolated posterior mediastinal mass.

63
Q
  1. Which of the following are true regarding malignant mesothelioma? (T/F)

(a) Selective involvement of the parietal pleura is typical.

(b) Pleural effusions are common.

(c) Chest wall invasion occurs in 12% of cases at presentation.

(d) Circumferential pleural thickening is typical.

(e) It is a cause of hypertrophic osteoarthropathy.

A

Answers:

(a) Not correct
(b) Correct
(c) Correct
(d) Correct
(e) Correct

Explanation:
Nodular thickening of both parietal and visceral pleura is usual in mesothelioma.

64
Q
  1. Which of the following are correct regarding Thymic carcinoma: (T/F)

(a) Commonly presents with myasthenia gravis.

(b) Extrathoracic metastases are an early feature.

(c) The most common histology is adenocarcinoma.

(d) Calcification is a recognized finding.

(e) Vascular invasion on CT distinguishes thymic carcinoma from lymphoma.

A

Answers:

(a) Not correct
(b) Not correct
(c) Not correct
(d) Correct
(e) Not correct

Explanation:
Thymic epithelial tumours are of three types;

benign thymoma,

type 1 malignant thymoma (showing local invasion or metastasis)

and type 2 malignant thymoma or thymic carcinoma (showing endothoracic metastasis without extrathoracic involvement).

Thymic carcinoma is rarely associated with paraneoplastic syndromes like myasthenia gravis, pure red cell aplasia and hypogammaglobulinaemia.

Various histopathological types are squamous cell (epidermoid 36%), lymphoepithelioma like (poorly differentiated squamous cell 32%), undifferentiated (anaplastic 11%), small cell (8%), basaloid (4%), sarcomatoid (4%), clear cell (2%), mucoepidermoid (2%), carcinoma and adenocarcinoma (1%).

65
Q
  1. Which of the following are correct regarding bronchogenic cysts: (T/F)

(a) They are associated with spina bifida.

(b) Mediastinal bronchogenic cysts account for 85-90%.

(c) They may contain air fluid levels.

(d) Mediastinal bronchogenic cysts are more common on the left.

(e) Intrapulmonary bronchogenic cysts are found more commonly in the lower lobes.

A

Answers:

(a) Correct
(b) Correct
(c) Correct
(d) Not correct
(e) Not correct

Explanation:
Mediastinal bronchogenic cysts are more common on the right side.
Intrapulmonary cysts are more common in upper lobes.