Planning Techniques: Budgeting & Analysis Flashcards

1
Q

The goals and objectives upon which an annual profit plan is most effectively based are:

a. Qualitative measures of organizational activity such as product innovation leadership, product quality levels, and product safety.
b. A combination of financial, quantitative, and qualitative measures.
c. Financial and quantitative measures.
d. Quantitative measures such as growth in unit sales, number of employees, and manufacturing capacity.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The goals and objectives upon which an annual profit plan (also known as budgeted, targeted or estimated financial statements) is most effectively based are a combination of financial, quantitative (number of units), and qualitative (e.g., to be the best) measures. Not all goals and objectives can be quantified.

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2
Q

Which of the following Performance Management Measures integrates both financial and non-financial measures of performance?

a. Balanced Scorecard.
b. Variance Analysis.
c. Control Charts.
d. Return on Investment.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The balanced scorecard seeks to fully integrate financial measures of performance with non-financial measures of performance.

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3
Q

In analyzing company operations, the controller of the Jason Corporation found a $250,000 favorable flexible-budget revenue variance. The variance was calculated by comparing the actual results with the flexible budget. This variance can be wholly explained by:

a. Changes in the number of units sold.
b. Changes in unit selling prices.
c. The total sales volume variance.
d. The total flexible budget variance.

A

Choice “b” is correct. A revenue variance (also known as a sales price variance) is due to a change in unit selling prices.

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4
Q

For a company that produces more than one product, the sales volume variance can be divided into which two of the following additional variances?

a. Sales price variance and flexible budget variance.
b. Sales efficiency variance and sales price variance.
c. Sales quantity variance and sales mix variance.
d. Sales mix variance and production volume variance.

A

Choice “c” is correct. For a company that produces more than one product, the sales volume variance can be divided into sales quantity variance and sales mix variance.

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5
Q

The variance that arises solely because the quantity actually sold differs from the quantity budgeted to be sold is:

a. Sales mix variance.
b. Static budget variance.
c. Sales volume variance.
d. Flexible budget variance.

A

Choice “c” is correct. Sales volume variance arises solely because the quantity actually sold differs from the quantity budgeted to be sold.

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6
Q

Strategic Business Units (SBUs) are classified into different types based on the responsibility levels assigned to their managers. Which SBU has the least amount of responsibility?

a. Profit SBU.
b. Cost SBU.
c. Revenue SBU.
d. Investment SBU.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Managers in a cost SBU only have responsibility for one dimension of financial performance and it is one that they control entirely, the level of costs incurred.

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7
Q

The performance measurement tool generally associated with the display of information evaluating multiple dimensions of business outcomes is referred to as the:

a. Balanced scorecard.
b. Kaizen.
c. Return on Investment.
d. Market value added.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The balanced scorecard reports management information regarding organizational performance as defined by “critical success factors.” These critical success factors are often classified as human resource, business process, customer satisfaction, and financial performance, to demonstrate that no single dimension of organizational performance can be relied upon to evaluate success.

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8
Q

Although there is no single format for the balanced scorecard, the report generally includes a variety of measurements associated with objectives classified by critical success factors. Critical success factors often include:

a. Shareholder satisfaction, customer satisfaction, vendor satisfaction, and employee satisfaction issues.
b. Financial, internal business process, customer, and human resource considerations.
c. Sales, net income, cash flow, and return on investment performance.
d. Throughput and lifecycle times.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Critical success factors identified in the balanced scorecard generally include human resource aspects, particularly as it relates to harnessing employee innovation, internal business process improvement, customer satisfaction, and financial performance.

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9
Q

Responsibility accounting defines an operating center that is responsible for revenue and costs as a(n):

a. Operating unit.
b. Revenue center.
c. Profit center.
d. Investment center.

A

Choice “c” is correct. A profit center is responsible for revenue and costs.

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10
Q

Decentralized firms can delegate authority and yet retain control and monitor managers’ performance by structuring the organization into responsibility centers. Which one of the following organizational segments is most like an independent business?

a. Investment center.
b. Profit center.
c. Revenue center.
d. Cost center.

A

Choice “a” is correct. An investment center is most like an independent business. Investment centers are responsible for revenues, expenses, and invested capital.

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11
Q

A successful responsibility accounting reporting system is dependent upon:

a. The correct allocation of controllable variable costs.
b. A reasonable separation of costs into their fixed and variable components since fixed costs are not controllable and must be eliminated from the responsibility report.
c. Identification of the management level at which all costs are controllable.
d. The proper delegation of responsibility and authority.

A

Choice “d” is correct. Responsibility for costs, and the authority to do something about them, are necessary for a successful responsibility accounting system.

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12
Q

Which of the following balanced scorecard perspectives examines a company’s success in targeted market segments?

a. Customer.
b. Learning and growth.
c. Financial.
d. Internal business process.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The customer perspective of a balanced scorecard is concerned with target markets (e.g., low-price leader).

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13
Q

Under the balanced scorecard concept developed by Kaplan and Norton, employee satisfaction and retention are measures used under which of the following perspectives?

a. Learning and growth.
b. Financial.
c. Customer.
d. Internal business.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Employee satisfaction and retention measures are used under the “learning and growth” perspective of the balanced scorecard. Employee satisfaction typically correlates with productivity, employee effectiveness, and retention. Retention itself often relates to reduced retraining, increased opportunity for human resource development, and reduced investment in learning curves.

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14
Q

Organizations focus on both financial and non-financial features of their operations to evaluate the degree to which they will be successful in their strategies. These financial and non-financial dimensions of their operations are sometimes referred to as:

a. Benchmarks.
b. Balanced scorecards.
c. The total quality management continuum.
d. Critical success factors.

A
Choice "d" is correct. Financial and non-financial features of an organization that contribute to its success in achieving strategy are referred to as critical success factors and are normally classified as:
Financial solvency and return,
Customer satisfaction,
Internal business processes, and
Human resource innovation.
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15
Q

Strategic Business Units (SBUs) are classified into different types based on the responsibility levels assigned to their managers. Each of the following items are reasons for classifying Strategic Business Units as cost, revenue, profit, or investment, except to:

a. Promote goal congruence.
b. Communicate segment goals to managers for improved operational and financial control.
c. Isolate financial measurement for segment performance.
d. Highlight different responsibility levels among managers in highly centralized organizations.

A

Choice “d” is correct. Strategic Business Units are established in a decentralized environment not a centralized environment. Highlighting different responsibility levels in centralized environments is not a reason for using cost, revenue, profit and investment SBUs.

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16
Q

Which is not an example of responsibility accounting?

a. Profit center.
b. Cost center.
c. Investment center.
d. Product center.

A

Choice “d” is correct. Product center does not refer to any responsibility or decision center.

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17
Q

Fairmount, Inc. uses an accounting system that charges costs to the manager who has been delegated the authority to make the decisions incurring the costs. For example, if the sales manager accepts a rush order that will result in higher than normal manufacturing costs, these additional costs are charged to the sales manager because the authority to accept or decline the rush order was given to the sales manager. This type of accounting system is known as:

a. Transfer price accounting.
b. Responsibility accounting.
c. Contribution accounting.
d. Functional accounting.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Responsibility accounting is a system of accounting that recognizes various responsibility or decision centers throughout an organization and reflects the plans and actions of each of these centers by assigning particular revenues and costs to the one having the responsibility for making decisions about these revenues and costs.

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18
Q

The purpose of identifying manufacturing variances and assigning their responsibility to a person/department should be to:

a. Pinpoint fault for operating problems in the organization.
b. Use the knowledge about the variances to promote learning and continuous improvement in the manufacturing operations.
c. Determine the proper cost of the products produced so that selling prices can be adjusted accordingly.
d. Trace the variances to finished goods so that the inventory can be properly valued at year-end.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The purpose of identifying and assigning responsibility for a variance to a person/department should be to use the knowledge to promote learning and continuous improvement.

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19
Q

Organic Enterprises cultivates potted plants and hybrids. Management conducted a careful engineering study of product requirements and has developed standards to control production. Standards of this type are also referred to as:

a. Authoritative standards.
b. Ideal standards.
c. Attainable standards.
d. Participative standards.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Standards imposed by management without employee input are referred to as authoritative standards.

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20
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of participative budgeting?

a. It decreases motivation.
b. It decreases acceptance.
c. It is less accurate.
d. It is more time consuming.

A

Choice “d” is correct. Participative budgeting requires input from multiple stakeholders and spreads the decision-making process over multiple layers of managers and individuals. Implementing this approach effectively is time consuming. Authoritative (top down) budgeting is faster.

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21
Q

Which of the following budgets provides information for preparation of the owner’s equity section of a budgeted balance sheet?

a. Cash budget.
b. Capital expenditures budget.
c. Sales budget.
d. Budgeted income statement.

A

Choice “d” is correct. The budgeted income statement produces anticipated accrual basis net income or loss and is added to beginning owner’s equity to generate the owner’s equity section of the budgeted balance sheet.

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22
Q

Fargo, Mfg., a small business, is developing a budget for next year. Which of the following steps should Fargo perform first?

a. Forecast Fargo’s sales volume.
b. Compute the dollar amount of Fargo’s forecasted sales.
c. Determine the price of Fargo’s products.
d. Identify costs of Fargo’s forecasted sales volume.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Forecast of sales volume is the first step in the budget development process. Sales volumes will drive product supply requirements and, by extension, purchasing and inventory requirements.

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23
Q

Which of the following would be most impacted by the use of the percentage of sales forecasting method for budgeting purposes?

a. Bonds payable.
b. Common stock.
c. Accounts payable.
d. Mortgages payable.

A

Choice “c” is correct. Of the items listed, accounts payable would be the most impacted by the use of the percentage of sales forecasting method for budgeting purposes. If sales increased or decreased, purchases would presumably increase or decrease, by whatever percentage was being used in the budgeting process. If purchases increased or decreased, accounts payable would presumably increase or decrease by approximately the same percentage. The other items listed have no relationship at all to sales and would thus not be affected by the method used to forecast sales.

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24
Q

Which of the following listings correctly describes the order in which the four types of budgets must be prepared?

a. Sales, direct materials purchases, production, cash disbursements.
b. Cash disbursements, direct materials purchases, production, sales.
c. Production, direct materials purchases, sales, cash disbursements.
d. Sales, production, direct materials purchases, cash disbursements.

A

Choice “d” is correct. The order of budget preparation begins with the sales budget which logically drives the production budget (to support sales), which, in turn, drives the direct materials purchases (to support production) from which the cash disbursements budget is derived.

25
Q

The difference between standard hours at standard wage rates and actual hours at standard wage rates is referred to as which of the following types of variances?

a. Indirect labor spending.
b. Direct labor spending.
c. Labor usage.
d. Labor rate.

A
Rule: The two-way direct labor variances are computed as follows:
Actual Hours
Actual Rate
←Rate Variance→
Actual Hours
Standard Rate
←Usage/Efficiency→
Standard Hours
Standard Rate
Choice "c" is correct. The difference between standard hours at standard wage rates and actual hours at standard rates is the labor usage/ efficiency variance
26
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a flexible budget?

a. Provides budgeted numbers for various activity levels.
b. Allows for modification during the budgeted period.
c. Isolates the impact of variable costs on the overall budget.
d. Can be utilized by several product divisions.

A

Choice “a” is correct. A flexible budget adjusts the budget amounts for different levels of activity. The flexible budget identifies volume components of variances from planned activity.

27
Q

All of the following are considered operating/financial budgets, except the:

a. Sales budget.
b. Production budget.
c. Cash budget.
d. Capital budget.

A

Choice “d” is correct. Operating budgets describe the plan for revenue and expenses and the supporting schedules that go with them. Examples include sales, materials, labor, overhead, production, purchases and the forecasting of cash that will be necessary to pay for them. Capital budgets plan for the purchase of capital assets, which will only affect the operating budget through their subsequent effect on expense via depreciation.

28
Q

There are various budgets within the master budget cycle. One of these budgets is the production budget. Which one of the following best describes the production budget?

a. It includes required direct labor hours.
b. It is calculated from the desired ending inventory and the sales forecast.
c. It includes required material purchases.
d. It aggregates the monetary details of the operating budget.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The production budget is based on the sales budget (or forecast), with modification for increases or decreases in inventory levels.

29
Q

The information contained in a cost of goods manufactured budget would most directly relate to the:

a. Materials used, direct labor, overhead applied, and work-in-process inventories budgets.
b. Materials used, direct labor, overhead applied, work-in-process inventories, and finished goods inventories budgets.
c. Materials used, direct labor, overhead applied, unit production, and raw materials inventories budgets.
d. Materials used, direct labor, overhead applied, and finished goods inventories budgets.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Materials, labor, and overhead applied are all “inputs” to the cost of goods manufactured. Work-in-process affects both inputs (for beginning W-I-P) and outputs (for ending W-I-P).

30
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding selling and administrative budgets is most accurate?

a. Selling and administrative budgets should be a certain percentage of sales, and should be developed using a bottom-up approach.
b. Selling and administrative budgets are fixed in nature.
c. Selling and administrative budgets need to be detailed in order that the key assumptions can be better understood.
d. Selling and administrative budgets are difficult to allocate by month and are best presented as one number for the entire year.

A

Choice “c” is correct. Selling and administrative budgets, like any budgets, need to be detailed in order that the key assumptions are better understood.

31
Q

A firm develops an annual cash budget in order to:

a. Avoid the opportunity costs of noninvested excess cash and minimize the cost of interim financing.
b. Support the preparation of its cash flow statement for the annual report.
c. Balance the noncash and cash activities of the company.
d. Ascertain which capital expenditure projects are feasible and which capital expenditure projects should be deferred.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The main reason for preparing a cash budget is to anticipate cash flows so that excess cash can be invested and to minimize the need for interim financing.

32
Q

The cash budget is a useful tool in the planning process. Which of the following is not a true statement relating to the preparation of a cash budget?

a. The cash budget is usually broken down into monthly periods.
b. The cash budget is typically done before all other budgets.
c. The cash budget alerts management to periods when there will be excess cash available for investment
d. The cash budget shows itemized cash receipts and disbursements during the period, including the financing activities and the beginning and ending cash balances.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The cash budget is done after all budgets have been prepared.

33
Q

The cash budget provides management with information. Which of the following is not an example of information a cash budget provides?

a. The need for internal financing.
b. Availability of funds for the repayment of debt.
c. Availability of funds for investment purposes.
d. Availability of funds for distribution to owners.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The cash budget provides information concerning the need for external financing, not internal financing.

34
Q

The cash budget must be prepared before you can complete the:

a. Forecasted balance sheet.
b. Forecasted income statement.
c. Production budget.
d. Capital expenditure budget.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The cash budget must be prepared before you can complete the forecasted balance sheet.

35
Q

Which one of the following items would have to be included for a company preparing a schedule of cash receipts and disbursements for the calendar year Year 1?

a. Borrowing funds from a bank on a note payable taken out in June Year 1 and agreeing to pay the principal and interest in June Year 2.
b. The amount of uncollectible customer accounts for Year 1.
c. Dividends declared in November Year 1 to be paid in January Year 2 to shareholders of record as of December Year 1.
d. A purchase order issued in December Year 1 for items to be delivered in February Year 2.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Borrowing funds on a note in June Year 1 would be a cash inflow in Year 1 and would have to be included in a schedule of cash receipts and disbursements for Year 1. The repayment would be a cash outflow in Year 2.

36
Q

Pro forma financial statements are part of the budgeting process. Normally, the last pro forma statement prepared is:

a. Statement of cost of goods sold.
b. Capital expenditure plan.
c. Income statement.
d. Statement of cash flows.

A

Choice “d” is correct. The statement of cash flows is usually the last pro forma statement prepared. This is because everything affects cash. Only when everything else has been estimated can cash flow be projected.

37
Q

The financial budget process includes:

a. All of the above.
b. The cash budget.
c. The budgeted statement of cash flows.
d. The budgeted balance sheet.

A

Choice “a” is correct. All of the above.

The financial budget process includes:
Cash and capital purchases budgets.
Balance sheet and statement of cash flows.

The operating budget process includes:
All budgets except cash and capital purchases.
The pro forma income statement.

38
Q

When preparing the series of annual operating budgets, management usually starts the process with the:

a. Balance sheet.
b. Sales budget.
c. Capital budget.
d. Production budget.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The budgeting process usually begins with the sales budget.

39
Q

Which one of the following items should be done first when developing a comprehensive budget for a manufacturing company?

a. Development of a sales budget.
b. Determination of equipment acquisitions.
c. Determination of the advertising budget.
d. Preparation of a pro forma income statement.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The first step in developing a comprehensive budget is development of a sales budget.

40
Q

Which one of the following items is the last schedule to be prepared in the normal budget preparation process?

a. Manufacturing overhead budget.
b. Cost of goods sold budget.
c. Cash budget.
d. Selling expense budget.

A

Choice “c” is correct. When preparing a budget, the last schedule to be prepared is the cash budget. Sometimes, pro forma accrual financial statements are prepared after this last schedule.

41
Q

After the goals of the company have been established and communicated, the next step in the planning process would be the development of the:

a. Sales budget.
b. Capital expenditure budget.
c. Production budget.
d. Selling and administrative budget.

A

Choice “a” is correct. The sales budget is usually the first budget prepared.

42
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding the difference between a flexible budget and a static budget is correct?

a. A flexible budget primarily is prepared for planning purposes while a static budget is prepared for performance evaluation.
b. A flexible budget is established by operating management while a static budget is determined by top management.
c. A flexible budget provides cost allowances for different levels of activity whereas a static budget provides costs for one level of activity.
d. A flexible budget includes only variable costs whereas a static budget includes only fixed costs.

A

Choice “c” is correct. A flexible budget provides cost allowances (adjustments) for different levels of activity. A static budget provides costs for one level of activity.

43
Q

In general, the purchasing manager is held responsible for unfavorable material price variances. Causes of these variances include all of the following, except:

a. Purchasing from suppliers other than those offering the most favorable terms.
b. Inadequate supervision.
c. Failure to correctly forecast price increases.
d. Purchasing nonstandard or uneconomical lots.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Inadequate supervision pertains to management of employees, materials, and equipment by the production manager, and results in material usage variances.

44
Q

In general, the production manager or foreman is held responsible for unfavorable labor efficiency variances. Causes of these variances include all of the following, except:

a. High hourly rates.
b. Inadequate supervision.
c. Poorly trained labor.
d. Substandard or inefficient equipment.

A

Choice “a” is correct. High hourly rates are the responsibility of the Personnel Dept, and pertain to labor rate variances.

45
Q

A favorable material price variance coupled with an unfavorable material usage variance would most likely result from:

a. The purchase and use of higher than standard quality material.
b. Machine efficiency problems.
c. The purchase of lower than standard quality material.
d. Product mix production changes.

A

Choice “c” is correct. The purchase of lower than standard quality material will often result in an unfavorable material usage variance (the inferior material causes more waste) and a favorable material price variance (the inferior material costs less).

46
Q

An unfavorable direct labor efficiency variance could be caused by a(n):

a. Favorable variable overhead spending variance.
b. Unfavorable variable overhead spending variance.
c. Unfavorable fixed overhead volume variance.
d. Unfavorable material usage variance.

A

Choice “d” is correct. An unfavorable direct labor efficiency variance could be caused by an unfavorable material usage variance. Poor quality materials could mean unfavorable material usage and cause inefficient labor usage.

47
Q

A standard costing system is most often used by a firm in conjunction with:

a. Participative management programs.
b. Management by objectives.
c. Flexible budgets.
d. Job order cost systems.

A

Choice “c” is correct. A standard costing system is most often used by a firm in conjunction with flexible budgets.

48
Q

The inventory control supervisor at Wilson Manufacturing Corporation reported that a large quantity of a part purchased for a special order that was never completed remains in stock. The order was not completed because the customer defaulted on the order. The part is not used in any of Wilson’s regular products. After consulting with Wilson’s engineers, the vice president of production approved the substitution of the purchased part for a regular part in a new product. Wilson’s engineers indicated that the purchased part could be substituted providing it was modified. The units manufactured using the substituted part required additional direct labor hours resulting in an unfavorable direct labor efficiency variance in the Production Department. The unfavorable direct labor efficiency variance resulting from the substitution of the purchased part in inventory would best be assigned to the:

a. Production manager.
b. Sales manager.
c. Engineering manager.
d. Vice president of production.

A

Choice “d” is correct. The direct labor efficiency variance was expected once the vice president of production made the decision to substitute the non-standard part.

49
Q

The basic difference between a master budget and a flexible budget is that a master budget is:

a. For an entire production facility whereas a flexible budget is applicable to single departments only.
b. Based on one specific level of production and a flexible budget can be prepared for any production level within a relevant range.
c. Only used before and during the budget period and a flexible budget is only used after the budget period.
d. Based on a fixed standard, whereas a flexible budget allows management latitude in meeting goals.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The master budget is based on one production level and a flexible budget is designed to reflect any production level within a relevant range of production activities.

50
Q

Management has reviewed the standard cost variance analysis and is trying to explain an unfavorable labor efficiency variance of $8,000. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the variance?

a. The department manager has chosen to use highly skilled workers.
b. The maintenance of machinery has been inadequate for the last few months.
c. The new labor contract increased wages.
d. The quality of raw materials has improved greatly.

A

Choice “b” is correct. If machinery is inadequately maintained, there will be worker downtime for repairs. This will lead to an unfavorable efficiency variance.

51
Q

Performance reports should be formatted and designed to meet organizational needs. In this regard, performance reports normally include all of the following, except:

a. Strategic plans.
b. Specific time horizons.
c. Exceptional items that are controllable.
d. A user focus.

A

Choice “a” is correct. Strategic plans are broad-based and long-term in nature. Performance reports are much more specific and shorter term. A performance report would not normally include strategic plans.

52
Q

Which of the following is one of the four perspectives of a balanced scorecard?

a. Just in time.
b. Activity-based costing.
c. Innovation.
d. Benchmarking.

A

Choice “c” is correct. Innovation is a perspective defined by the balanced scorecard. The balanced scorecard typically defines organizational performance in four dimensions including innovation, customer satisfaction, internal business processes and finance.

53
Q

The basic difference between a master budget and a flexible budget is that a master budget is:

a. Based on a fixed standard and a flexible budget allows management latitude in meeting goals.
b. Based on one specific level of production and a flexible budget can be prepared for any production level within a relevant range.
c. Only used before and during the budget period and a flexible budget is only used after the budget period.
d. For an entire production facility and a flexible budget is applicable to single departments only.

A

Choice “b” is correct. A master budget is an overall budget, consisting of many smaller budgets, that is based on one specific level of production. A flexible budget is a series of budgets based on different activity levels within the relevant range.

54
Q

Which of the following types of variances would a purchasing manager most likely influence?

a. Direct labor rate.
b. Direct materials price.
c. Direct labor efficiency.
d. Direct materials quantity.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The purchasing manager is directly involved in the negotiation of materials prices and would have the greatest influence over the direct materials price variance. The direct materials price variance could be used to monitor purchasing manager performance.

55
Q

The only sales variance listed below that does not use contribution margin to compute results is:

a. Market share variance.
b. Sales price variance.
c. Market size variance.
d. Sales volume variance.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The sales price variance does not use contribution margin.

56
Q

Discount Super Stores has adopted a strategy of becoming the low cost leader for consumer products in the northwest. The company defines its value in the marketplace through low prices and consistently measures its prices against those of its competitors. The location of these measurements would most likely be classified and summarized in which section of Discount’s balanced scorecard?

a. Financial.
b. Customer.
c. Learning and innovation.
d. Internal business processes.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Measurement of customer value, such as Discount’s prices compared to competitor’s prices for a cost leader, would most likely be included in the customer section of the balanced scorecard.

57
Q

Controllable margin is used as a refined measure of strategic business unit reporting that is best described as:

a. Margins derived after comprehensive consideration of all costs designed to achieve strategic objectives.
b. Contribution margin net of controllable fixed costs (those costs that managers can impact in less than one year).
c. Margins exclusively focused on entirely direct costs.
d. Margins reported to strategic business unit managers related to the revenues and costs specifically within the managers’ control and responsibility.

A

Choice “b” is correct. Controllable margin is computed as contribution margin net of controllable costs. Controllable costs represent those fixed costs that managers can impact in less than one year.

58
Q

A static budget contains which of the following amounts?

a. Budgeted costs for actual output.
b. Actual costs for actual output.
c. Actual costs for budgeted output.
d. Budgeted costs for budgeted output.

A

Choice “d” is correct. A static budget is based on costs at one level of output. Static budgets thus include budgeted costs for budgeted output. They are not based on or adjusted for actual performance.

59
Q

Which of the following types of budgets is the last budget to be produced during the budgeting process?

a. Marketing.
b. Cash.
c. Capital.
d. Cost of goods sold.

A

Choice “b” is correct. The annual business plan process typically begins with operating budgets that are driven by sales budgets that, in turn, provide the required variables for production, selling and personnel budgets. Financial budgets including pro forma financial statements and cash budgets come at the end of the process and are prepared last. Cash budgets are typically derived from the operating budgets that assume accrual basis assumptions (e.g., credit sales and credit purchases).