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ICM/FCM > PLABABLE FOR PA QUESTIONS > Flashcards

PLABABLE FOR PA QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Out of the following, which one is not a complication of Eczema?

1) Impetigo
2) Molluscum
3) Sleep disturbance
4) Eczema herpeticum
4) Arthritis
6) Depression
7) Behavioural problems

A

Arthritis

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2
Q

Arthritis is a complication of what skin condition?

A

Psoriasis

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3
Q

What imaging is offered to a patient presenting with ureteric calculi?

A

Non-contrast CT KUB

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4
Q

What imaging is offered to a pregnant patient with a kidney stone?

A

US KUB

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5
Q

What is the most common causative bacteria of pyelonephritis?

A

E coli

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6
Q

What are the triad of symptoms of pyelonephritis that differentiate it from a normal UTI?

A

Fever
Loin/back pain
Nausea/vomiting

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7
Q

How do you manage a non-pregnant patient with pyelonephritis? (either one)

A

Cefalexin 7-10 days

Co-amoxiclav 7-10 days

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8
Q

What is the first line management for impetigo?

A

Topical fusidic acid for 5 days and hygiene measures

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9
Q

What advice should you give to parents about school exclusion in a child presenting with impetigo?

A

Stay off school until lesions have crusted over and 48 hours after starting antibiotics

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10
Q

What are the symptoms suggestive of Paget’s disease? (4)

A

Bone pain
Hearing loss
Change in facial shape
Raised ALP

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11
Q

What is paget’s disease?

A

Disorder of bone turnover where there is disorganised formation and reabsorption leading to bone enlargement and deformity that increases risk of fractures

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12
Q

What two bones does Paget’s disease normally affect?

A

Long bones

Skull

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13
Q

What lab findings are indicative of Paget’s disease?

A

Raised ALP with normal calcium

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14
Q

What is the management of Paget’s disease?

A

Bisphosphonates

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15
Q

What is the initial thing you should do in a patient presenting with new acute urinary obstruction?

A

Admit

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16
Q

How long before a catheter is inserted should an alpha blocker be started for urinary retention?

A

At least 24 hours

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17
Q

What treatment do you prescribe for the mother and for the baby if a baby above 4 months presents with oral thrush (even if the mother has no breastfeeding symptoms?)

A

Miconazole cream - mother
Miconazole gel - baby
(anti-fungal)

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18
Q

What is myelodysplastic syndrome?

myeoid cells have gone spastic

A

Syndrome where the myeloid bone marrow cells do not mature properly and do not form healthy bloody cells

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19
Q

What three things would you see on a FBC to confirm myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Anaemia
Neutropenia
Thrombocytopenia

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20
Q

What is the first line investigation for myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Bone marrow aspiration with iron stain

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21
Q

Name 4 risk factors of developing carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

1) Repetitive strain
2) Acromegaly
3) Rheumatoid arthritis
4) Hypothyroidism

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22
Q

What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Median nerve

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23
Q

How do patients present with carpal tunnel syndrome? (onset, when it’s worse, symptoms)

A

Gradual onset
Intermittent
Worse at night

Numbness
Paraesthesia
Pain
Weakness

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24
Q

What are the two special tests for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Phalen’s test - flexion

Tinnel test - tap

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25
Q

What is the primary investigation for establishing the diagnosis of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Nerve conduction studies

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26
Q

What is the initial treatment of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Wrist splints at night for 4 weeks

27
Q

If the wrist splints do not help, what is the next treatment for carpal tunnel?

A

Steroid injections / surgery

28
Q

What are somatoform disorders?

A

Group of psychiatric disorders in which patients present with myriad of clinically significant but unexplained physical symptoms

29
Q

What is the treatment for a pt presenting with somatoform disorder alongside anxiety/depression?

A

CBT & SSRI

30
Q

What is the treatment for a pt presenting with somatoform disorder without anxiety/depression?

A

CBT

31
Q

What would you see on an x-ray for viral pneumonia?

A

Multiple focal patchy pleural infiltrates

32
Q

Pt with unexplained lymphadenopathy and leukocytosis in FBC - management?

A

2WW Haematology Cancer

33
Q

Pt with unexplained lymphadenopathy with no abnormal FBC - management?

A

2WW Head & Neck

34
Q

What is the treatment for a patient with chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

Oral Imatinib

35
Q

What do pts with leukaemia have on their FBC?

A

Pancytopenia

  • low RBC
  • low WHC
  • low platelets
36
Q

What is the initial investigation for Leukaemia?

A

FBC

37
Q

What would you see on a blood film for ALL?

A

Blast cells

38
Q

What would you see on blood film for CLL?

A

Smear / smudge cells

39
Q

What would you see on a blood film for AML?

A

Blast cells –> Auer rods

40
Q

When would you see Tumour Lysis Syndrome?

A

In a patient having chemotherapy as it destroys cells and causes the release of uric acid

41
Q

In an elderly pt with lower back pain and no hx of trauma, what serious diagnosis should you think of?

A

Multiple myeloma

42
Q

What are the features of myeloma?

A

C - High calcium
R - Renal failure
A - Anaemia
B - Bone lesions/pain

43
Q

What would you see in a pts blood suspecting myeloma?

A
  • low WBC and Hb
  • high calcium
  • high ESR
  • High creatinine
44
Q

What would you see on an x-ray for multiple myeloma?

A
  • Punched out lesions
  • Lytic lesions
  • Raindrop skull
44
Q

What would you see on an x-ray for multiple myeloma?

A
  • Punched out lesions
  • Lytic lesions
  • Raindrop skull
45
Q

What is the first line management for constipation?

A

Bulk forming laxative - Isphaghula

46
Q

What is the second line management for constipation?

A

Osmotic - lactulose

47
Q

What is a contraindication for metformin?

A

eGFR less than 30

48
Q

What is a contraindication for glicazide (Sulphonylurea)?

A

Renal impairment -> hypo

High BMI ->weight gain

49
Q

What is a rectocoele?

A

Part of rectum has prolapsed into vagina, causing a bulge in the posterior wall of the vagina

50
Q

What condition is associated with a rectocele?

A

Constipation

51
Q

What is a cystocele?

A

Bladder has prolapsed into the anterior wall of the vagina

52
Q

What symptoms would be associated with a cystocele and uterine prolapse?

A

Urinary symptoms

53
Q

What is the non-conservative management of a prolapse?

A

Pessaries

54
Q

What factor is reduced in haemophilia A?

A

Factor 8

55
Q

What factor is reduced in Haemophilia B?

A

Factor 9

56
Q

What is von-willebrand disease?

A

Autosomal dominant Inherited abnormal bleeding disorder

57
Q

What medication stimulates the release of VWF in the treatment of von wilibrand disease?

A

Desmopressin

58
Q

What type of seizure is associated with lip smacking and a post-ictal state?

A

Complex partial seizure

59
Q

What are the four Fs in relation to acute cholangitis?

A

Fat
Female
Forty
Fertile

60
Q

What is the triad for ascending cholangitis?

A

Fevers & Rigors
RUQ Pain
Jaundice

61
Q

What medication should you start in a patient presenting with temporal arteritis?

A
62
Q

What medication should you start in a patient presenting with temporal arteritis?

A

Prednisolone

ICM/FCM (16 decks)

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