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Psychology - Year 1 Weekly Flashcards > PL1030: Biological Psychology > Flashcards

PL1030: Biological Psychology Flashcards

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1
Q

Which six methods can be used to record brain activity while a behaviour is occurring?

A
  1. record from electrodes in the brain
  2. electroencephalograph (EEG)
  3. evoked potentials
  4. magnetoencephalograph (MEG)
  5. positron emission tomography (PET)
  6. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
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2
Q

Which two methods can be used to correlate brain anatomy with behaviour?

A
  1. computerised axial tomography (CAT)2. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
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3
Q

Records changes in brain activity from the scalp by miliseconds with poor location signal resolution

A

EEG

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4
Q

Records magnetic fields in brain activity from the scalp by miliseconds with poor location signal resolution

A

MEG

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5
Q

Uses radiation to measure brain activity changes over time and location

A

PET

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6
Q

Invasive way of stimulating a brain area, rarely used with humans but frequently with lab animals

A

stimulating electrodes

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7
Q

Records changes in brain activity from the scalp by miliseconds with poor location signal resolution in response to a stimuli

A

evoked potentials

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8
Q

Measures changes in brain activity over around 1 second and identifies locatin within 1 to 2mm

A

fMRI

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9
Q

Uses radiation to map brain areas

A

CAT
| uses X-rays

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10
Q

Maps brain areas in detail using magnetic fields

A

MRI

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11
Q

Invasive way of recording brain activity, rarely used with humans but frequently with lab animals

A

record from electrodesin the brain

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12
Q

Way of examining stimulating effects in any particular type of cell frequently with lab animals

A

optogenetic stimulation

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13
Q

inflicting controlled damage

A

lesion

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14
Q

removing a brain area

A

ablation

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15
Q

intense application of magnetic stimulation to temporarily deactivate a brain area

A

transcranial magnetic stimulation

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16
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do

A
  • prepare the organs for a burst of vigorous activity by creating a sympathetic system using the ganglia
  • Prepare the organs for flight, fight or freeze
  • axons release norepinephrine mostly and acetylcholine in minority
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17
Q

How does the sympathetic nervous system prepare the body and its organs for activity?

A

increasing breathing and heart rate and decreasing digestive activity

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18
Q

What activities does the parasympathetic nervous system promote and inhibit, for example?

A
  • increases digestive activity and promotes sexual arousal, including erection in males
  • decreases heart rate
  • conserves energy
  • flow of sinus fluids is a parasympathetic response that releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine onto the organs
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19
Q

How are the cell body clusters in the parasympathetic system organised?

A
  • Not in interactive chains but long preganglionic axons
  • extend from the spinal cord to parasympathetic ganglia close to each internal organ and short postganglionic fibres extending from the parasympathetic ganglia into the organs themselves
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20
Q

What does the hindbrain consist of and where is it located?

A

The posterior part of the brain consists of the medulla, the pons, and the cerebellum.

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21
Q

What is the brainstem made of

A

the medulla and pons, the midbrain, and certain central structures of the forebrain constitute the brainstem (see Figure 3.8).

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22
Q

Where do cranial nerves originate from and what do they control

A

in the medullavital reflexes such as breathing, heart rate, vomiting, salivation, coughing, and sneezing.

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23
Q

What is the cerebellum known for in terms what it controls

A

many older textbooks describe the cerebellum as important for “balance and coordination” → control of movement
* Types of learning and conditioning, auditory and visual stimuli
* if damaged:trouble shifting their attention back and forth between auditory and visual stimuli

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24
Q

What is the midbrain made of?

A

tectum –> tengmentum (intermediate level of midbrain) –> superior colliculus (visual processing)/ inferior colliculus (auditory processing), substantia nigra (dopamine pathways (movement))

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25
Q

What is the Forebrain and what structure does it include

A

Thalamus, hypothalamus and pituitary gland (next to which we can find the amygdala), basal ganglia

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26
Q

What is the difference between diencephalon and telencephalon

A

thalamus and hypothalamus form the diencephalon, a section distinct from the telencephalon

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27
Q

What is the limbic system

A

interlinked structure under the cerebral cortex forming a border around the brain stem

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28
Q

What is the role of the hypothalamus

A

controlling eating, drinking, temperature control, and reproductive behaviours.

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29
Q

Amygdala

A

evaluating emotional (fear) information

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30
Q

Thalamus

A

sensory processing not olfactory direct to the cortex

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31
Q

What are the three germinal layers?*

A
  1. subsections of the ectoderm
    *Surface ecto: nails, hair, skin
    * Neural ecto: neural tube, crest
  2. endoderm –>mucosa of gastro/respiratory system and abdominal organs
  3. mesoderm –>
    * Paraxial: skeleton/muscles;
    * Intermediate: urogenital, kidneys; Lateral plate: limb skeleton, muscular wall
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32
Q

What are the developmental steps of the genesis of the PNS in the first 8 weeks?

A

← form glioblasts (support cells/ Schwann cells), neurons, ependymal cells ← differentiate ventricular layer of spinal chord ← pia mater ← neuroepithelial cells

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33
Q

What are the developmental steps of the genesis of the spinal chord in the first 8 weeks?

A
  • Spinal Chord: neural plate
  • Dorsal root ganglia: ← neural crest cells ← neural ectoderm→ central canal: ventricular layer→
  • grey matter: neuronal bodies ← mantle layer of the neural plate→
  • white matter: axons ← marginal layer*
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34
Q

What is the abreviated neuroembryogenic development?

A

Zygote (linear)/ germ disc (trilaminar meso-ecto-endo) → epiblast cells replace hypoblast → proliferate to form mesoderm → 2nd onwards there is superior lining on the thicked region of the ectoderm notochord due to gastrulation → grows in the direction of the tail (caudal) and induces the notochord formation → ectoderm invaginates (ventral sucilus) → neurolation (folding of the neural plate via notochord induction)

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35
Q

What two categories can cells be placed into

A
  • eukaryotic:membrane-enclosed DNA inside the nucleus ; membrane-bound organelles of varying shapes and sizes
  • prokaryotic: nomembrane-bound DNA and no other membrane-bound organelles
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36
Q

What is optogenetics and why is it used?

A

Research field in which particular cells are stimulated through light
* Psychiatric and medical disorders (narcolepsy) because controlling excitatory and inhibitory functions can be seen/measured

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37
Q

What is an EEG mainly used for?

A

distinguish between wakefulness and sleep stages, if measured repeatedly also for epilepsy; evoked potentials/responses in children that cannot

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38
Q

What’s the benefit of a MEG?

A

Shows temporal changes accurately in 1ms; can identify the amount of time an area responds which forms a wave from point of origin to processing areas

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39
Q

What is a PET device called and how does it measure activity?

A

Cyclotron
* radioactive glucose (a sugar) is injected into a vein
→ PET measures where glucose is used as an indicator of brain activity
→ radioactive atom enhancement decays and releases positron
→ positron collides with neighbouring neurons by sending two gamma rays in the opposite direction
→ PET measures how much radioactive chemicals are in one area from the middle of the two gamma rays

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40
Q

Why are PETs being replaced with fMRIs?

A

expensive , inaccessible and potentially dangerous

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41
Q

What is the difference between fMRI and MRI?

A

MRI records energy released by water molecules after removal of a magnetic field and fMRI does the same for hemoglobin which binds to oxygen whereby hemoglobin with and without oxygen react differently to fMRIs

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42
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages of fMRI?

A
  • Brain activity increases blood flow, aka more haemoglobin to react to, increases oxygen use, so amount of haemoglobin without oxygen decreases → measuring people falling asleep
  • Scans (need more data) + interpretation is difficult (researchers take mean activity, reduce certain areas to their reaction during a task)
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43
Q

What is phrenology and surrounding issues?

A

Inferring brain functions and behaviour form skull

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44
Q

What is a sterotaxic Instrument?

A

Device with an electrode tip which is inserted into a hole in the skull and passes an electrical current in then damaged brain area

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45
Q

What are the different forms of lesions ?

A

Electric - most damaging to axons and neuronsChemical - more common because it either damages, temporarily suspends neurons or synapsesGene-knockout approach - induce a mutation in a gene regulating neural cells, transmitters or receptors

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46
Q

How does transcranial magnetic stimulation work?

A

Magnetic stimulation is applied to the scalp whereby stong stimulation produces a virtual lesion as it deactivates neurons below the magnets –> allows non invasive study of lesions on brain-behaviour link

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47
Q

What are dendrites?

A

branching fibers that get narrower near their ends (etym: tree) that are lined with specialised synaptic receptors that receive information*

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48
Q

What is a cranial nerve?

A

Any peripheral nerve that has its central nervous system connection with the brain, as opposed to the spinal cord.

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49
Q

What’s the difference between vertebrates and invertebrates axons?

A

Vertebrate axons are covered with myelin sheaths interrupted by nodes of Ravier (connected to the spine) while invertebrates do not have that

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50
Q

How do the shape of a neuron and connection relate?

A

Determines function and connective strength more area covered more informational input and output*

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51
Q

What is the ratio of glia and neurons?

A

Glia (etym. Glue of neurons old) outnumber neurons in the cerebral cortex, but neurons outnumber glia in several other brain areas (cerebellum)

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52
Q

excitotoxic lesion

A

A brain lesion produced by intracerebra l injection of an excitatory amino acid, such as kainic acid.

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53
Q

stereotaxic surgery (stair ee oh tak sik)

A

Brain surgery using a stereotaxic apparatus to position an electrode or cannula in a specified position of the brain.

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54
Q

bregma

A

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures of the skull; often used as a reference point for stereotaxic brain surgery.*

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55
Q

stereotaxic atlas

A

A collection of drawings of sections of the brain ofa particular animal with measurements that provide coordinates for stereotaxic surgery.

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56
Q

fixative

A

A chemical such as formalin; used to prepare and preserve body tissue. formalin (for ma /in) The aqueous solution of formaldehyde gas; the most commonly used tissue fixative.

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57
Q

stereotaxic apparatus

A

A device that permits a surgeon to position an electrode or cannula into a specific part of the brain.

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58
Q

microtome

A

An instrument that produces very thin slices of body tissues.

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59
Q

anterograde labeling method

A

A histological method that labels the axons and terminal buttons of neurons whose cell bodies are located in a particular region.*

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60
Q

immunocytochemical method

A

A histological method that uses radioactive antibodies or antibodies bound with a dye molecule to indicate the presence of particular proteins of peptides.*

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61
Q

retrograde labeling method

A

A histological method that labels cell bodies that give rise to the terminal buttons that form synapses with cells in a particular region.*

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62
Q

transneuronal tracing method.

A

A tracing method that identifies a series of neurons that form serial synaptic connections with each other, either in an anterograde or retrograde direction; involves infection of specific neurons with weakened forms of rabies or herpes viruses*

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63
Q

optogenetic methods

A

The use of a genetically modified virus to insert light-sensitive ion channels into the membrane of particular neurons in the brain; can depolarize or hyperpolarize the neurons when light of the appropriate wavelength is applied.<img></img>*

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64
Q

microelectrode

A

A very fine electrode, generally used to record activity of individual neurons.<img></img>

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65
Q

single-unit recording

A

Recording of the electrical activity of a single neuron.

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66
Q

Give three examples of constructs that can be measured using standardised behavioural tasks in rodents.

A

Forced swim, tail suspension and learned helplessness tests.Tests of anhedonia (for example, sucrose preference, social interaction and sexual behaviour).
* Diverse tests of attention, working memory and episodic memory or prepulse inhibition.

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67
Q

Q: Do the transgenic mouse models have construct validity?

A

A: The transgenic mouse models meet some criteria for face and predictive validity, but not construct validity

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68
Q

What is the issue surrounding construct validity and the use of animal research in psychopathology?

A
  1. Injecting animals with a known genetic mutation linked to the disease → not possible
  2. Altering the expression of proteins hypothesised to lead to disease pathogenesis → lack of human evidenceExposure to validated environmental risk factors → not as straightforward
  3. how penetrant a given genetic variant is in producing a disorder/ how clearly linked; lack of human evidence for common genetic variants being irrefutably linked to mental health conditions*
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69
Q

brain area that is rich in dopamine and is central to the brain’s reinforcement system

A

nucleus accumbens

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70
Q

The main purpose of the Diffusion tensor imaging technique is that it helps researchers identify:
a. which brain regions are particularly active during certain stimuli.
b. how specific brain regions look when they are damaged.
c. white matter and how different brain regions are connected.
d. the timing of brain activity relative to presentation of certain visual stimuli

A

C

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71
Q

A researcher wants to compare the volume of grey matter in the brain during development, starting in early development until adulthood. Which of the following methods would be the most suitable?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computerized tomography (CT)
c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
d. Optogenetic stimulation

A

A

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72
Q

What’s the defining difference between MRI and CT

A

Although CT is used for structural/anatomical imaging of the brain, it requires X-rays - this is not the most suitable to be used in child and multiple times during development.

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73
Q

What does the corpus callosum do?

A

communicate between the two hemispheres

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74
Q

What are the layers of the brain/spinal chord? (In order)

A

meningees > dura > arachnoidea > pia

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75
Q

What does this sequence of images show?

A

EEG - TMS machine- PET – FMRI – CT and CT scan – MEG scan

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76
Q

How invasive are the different neuroimaging techniques?

A
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77
Q

What is the synaptic effect of amphetamine?

A

blocks reuptake of dopamine and other transmitters

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78
Q

What is the synaptic effect of cocaine?

A

blocks reuptake of dopamine and other transmitters

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79
Q

What is the synaptic effect of methylphenidate?

A

gradually blocks dopamine reuptake

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80
Q

What is another name for methylphenidate?

A

Ritalin

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81
Q

What is the synaptic effect of MDMA?

A

releases dopamine and serotonin

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82
Q

What is the synaptic effect of Nicotine?

A

stimulates acetylcholine receptors which among other effects increases dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens

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83
Q

What is the synaptic effect of Opiates?

A

stimulates endorphin receptors

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84
Q

What is the synaptic effect of cannabinoids?

A

triggers negative feedback receptors, which usually respond to anandamide and 2AG on presynaptic cells

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85
Q

What is the synaptic effect of hallucinogens?| like LSD

A

Stimulates serotonin type 2A receptors (5-HT2a)

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86
Q

Where are neurotransmitters and neuropeptides synthesised?

A

transmitters: presynaptic terminalpeptides: cell body

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87
Q

Where are neurotransmitters and neuropeptides released?

A
  • transmitters: axon ending
  • peptides: from dendrites, soma, and sides of axon
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88
Q

Whom are neurotransmitters and neuropeptides released by?

A
  • transmitters: single action potential
  • peptides: repeated depolarisation
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89
Q

What are the effects of neurotransmitters and neuropeptides on their respectively neighbouring cells?

A
  • transmitters: no effect
  • peptides: they also release peptides
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90
Q

How do the effects of neurotransmitters and neuropeptides spread?

A
  • transmitters: to receptors of adjacent postsynaptic cells
  • peptides: diffuse to wide areas
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91
Q

How long do neurotransmitters and neuropeptides effects last?

A
  • transmitters: milliseconds to seconds
  • peptides: minutes
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92
Q

What two categories can cells be placed into

A
  • eukaryotic:membrane-enclosed DNA inside the nucleus ; membrane-bound organelles of varying shapes and sizes
  • prokaryotic: nomembrane-bound DNA and no other membrane-bound organelles
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93
Q

What is the phospholipid bilayer and its railroad track appearance?

A

hydrophobic tails of phospholipids that are the interior of the membrane while their polar head group are seperated by the inner hydrophobic lipid chain portion –> impermeability to hydrophilic molecules, viscosity that allows proteins and phospholipids to move freely

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94
Q

What is cholesterol’s role when it comes to temperature and membrane permeability?

A

can insert itself into the phospholipid bilayer because of its polar hydroxyl group at the end of the phospholipid head group
* High temperature: reduces permeability by hindering the movement of phospholipid of the outer part
* Low temperature: prevents membranes from freezing and maintains membrane fluidity by interfering with interactions between fatty acid chains

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95
Q

What is the fluid mosaic model?

A
  • plasma membrane as a fluid combination of phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins.
  • Carbohydrates attached to lipids (glycolipids) and to proteins (glycoproteins) extend from the outward-facing surface of the membrane
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96
Q

Which two scientists are regarded as the founders of neuroscience and why?

A

Charles Sherrington: synapse guy
* Santiago Ramón y Cajal: neurons exist as separate units guy

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97
Q

Which type of animal cells do not contain nuclei?

A

Red blood cells

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98
Q

What do the protein channels in the plasma membrane let pass through?

A

controlled flow of water, oxygen, sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, and other important chemicals

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99
Q

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)

A

Membranous network studded with ribosomes involved in protein synthesis

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100
Q

Mitochondria

A

Membrane enclosed organelle responsible for generating chemical energy

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101
Q

Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)

A

Membranous network involved in lipid synthesis, regulation of calcium and metabolism of carbohydrates

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102
Q

Lysosome

A

Contains enzymes to remove waste

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103
Q

Nucleolus

A

Within the nucleus composed of proteins and nucleic acids

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104
Q

Golgi apparatus

A

Sorts and chemically modifies proteins for specific uses

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105
Q

Cytoskeleton

A

Made up a of different types of tube-like structures responsible for maintaining shape of cell

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106
Q

Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER)

A

Ribonucleic acids and proteins in the cytoplasm involved in manufacture of proteins

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107
Q

What is optogenetics and why is it used?

A

Research field in which particular cells are stimulated through light
* Psychiatric and medical disorders (narcolepsy) because controlling excitatory and inhibitory functions can be seen/measured

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108
Q

What is the presynaptic terminal?

A

The end bulb of each dendrite releases chemicals and electrical signals to communicate with other neurons or cells via their postsynaptic bulbs

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109
Q

How do the shape of a neuron and connection relate?

A

Determines function and connective strength more area covered more informational input and output*

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110
Q

What is the ratio of glia and neurons?

A

Glia (etym. Glue of neurons old) outnumber neurons in the cerebral cortex, but neurons outnumber glia in several other brain areas (cerebellum)

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111
Q

What are the two types of synapses?

A

Synapses = junctions between neurons allowing communicationelectrical synapses = fast but rarely in the brainchemical synapses: most common in the brain; slow in signalling, but more diverse functions

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112
Q

What are neurotransmitters?

A

chemical messengers that allow the transmission of signals across chemical synapses

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113
Q

What are the four major structures that compose a neuron?

A

Dendrites, soma (cell body), axon, and presynaptic endings

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114
Q

Explain the blood-brain barrier including which cells get to pass

A

viruses> Rabies, spirochete → syphilis Actively transported:

  • Glucose (fuel)amino acids (protein building blocks)
  • Water: through protein channels in the plasma membrane of endothelial cells purines, choline, a few vitamins, iron, hormones and insulin* <img></img>*
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115
Q

Why is the blood-brain barrier needed

A

the mechanism that excludes most chemicals from the vertebrate brain is needed because neurons cannot be replaced. When there is an infection there antibodies could potentially distroy neurons like they do in other parts of the body but skin cells or blood cells can be renewed.

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116
Q

What cell is crucial for the blood-brain barrier?

A

endothelial cells that form the walls of the capillaries, which do not let viruses nor nutrients pass depending on their ability to dissolve

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117
Q

What molecules can pass freely the capillaries of the blood-brain barrier?

A

fat-soluble molecules (vitamins, drugs), small uncharged molecules oxygen & carbon dioxide

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118
Q

How do Alzheimer’s and cancer and the blood-brain barrier relate?

A

Capillary walls are weakenedTreatment molecules cannot pass

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119
Q

How much glucose and oxygen uses the brain and why?

A

25% of body’s glucose, 20% of oxygen because of energy metabolisation;

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120
Q

Why can’t the brain rely on ketone and lactate?

A

glucose is the only nutrient that crosses the blood–brain barrier in large quantities

121
Q

How does the liver produce glucose in case of malnourishment or starvation?

A

from many kinds of carbohydrates and amino acids, as well as from glycerol, a breakdown product from fats but the issue then becomes the lack of vitamin B (thiamine)

122
Q

What does a lack of thiamine lead to?

A

leads to death of neurons and a condition called Korsakoff’s syndrome, marked by severe memory impairments. (common in alcoholism)

123
Q

How much slower would neurons propagate without the myelin sheath?

A

30 times slower

124
Q

What do high concentrations of microglia indicate?

A

Infection, trauma, stroke

125
Q

What are perivascular feet?

A

Astrocytes attach to blood vessels and inducing their endothelial cells to form tight junctions that reinforce the blood-brain barrier and prevent moluclues passing into the cerebral fluid

126
Q

Why do astrocytes absorb potassium ions

A

regulate abnormal accumulation of extracellular potassium ions→ link to epileptic activity

127
Q

How does the electrical gradient function, and what prevents it from collapsing?
What does the sodium-potassium pump do?

A

transports three sodium ions out of the cell while drawing two potassium ions into the cell → sodium 10x outside the cell

128
Q

Why is the electrical and concentration gradient of potassium ions almost equal?

A

Being positively charged, the potassium leak through the membrane even when the gates are shut which increases the electrical gradient

129
Q

How are the electrical and concentration gradients for Potassium and Sodium?

A

Sodium (positive Na+) more concentrated outside but negative electrical gradient to the insidePotassium (K+) more concentrated inside so wants to leave but electrical gradient draws them back → almost balanced

130
Q

What is the function of the resting membrane potential?

A

resting potential prepares the neuron to respond rapidly

131
Q

What are the steps of the action potential?

A

Calcium, sodium channels and potassium channels open → potassium are not girlbosses so nothing happens → sodium channels open so sodium rushes into the axon → positive charge propergates → sodium is me in therapy (shuts down) at the peak of depolarisation but potassium channels stay opened and potassium flows out → depolarised and potassium channels close

132
Q

What are the three principles to remember to understand the chemical basis of the action potential?

A

1.At the start, sodium ions are mostly outside the neuron, and potassium ions are mostly inside.2. When the membrane is depolarized, sodium and potassium channels in the membrane open.3. At the peak of the action potential, the sodium channels close.

133
Q

Q: How does saltatory conduction conserve energy?

A

Saves energy by only letting sodium ions into the nodes of the myelinated part and not at every point of the axon

134
Q

Q: What happens to axons in multiple sclerosis?

A

A: the immune system attacks myelin sheaths → impairments in conducting action potentials and various symptoms including visual impairments and poor muscle coordination.

135
Q

What is the role of inhibitory synapses?

A

Needed for the trade-off between stimulated muscles and the rest
* Sensory input in one part leads to EPSP → to counterbalance

136
Q

What did Sherrington observe about the speed of conduction through reflex arcs, and what did this suggest about the existence of synapses?

A

<15m/s while axon communication is 40m/s
* Interneuronal space communication slows speed down → synapses are responsible<img></img>

137
Q

What is temporal summation, and how did Sherrington use it to explain how repeated stimuli can produce a stronger reflex?

A

Repeated stimuli in short time accumulates → graded potential is created (EPSP/depolarisation) → exceeds the threshold in the postsynaptic neuron if not the excitation decays over time<img></img>

138
Q

What is spatial summation, and how did Sherrington demonstrate this property of synapses?

A

Synaptic input from different locations synchronised (different sensory axons) → EPSP can sum up <img></img>

139
Q

What is the process of synaptic transmission and how does it differ from the conduction of action potentials along an axon?

A

Summation effects vary on the order of sensory input

140
Q

What is the purpose of inhibitory synapses?

A

Inhibitory synapses are a testament of the connections at the spinal chord (when EPSP is triggered in one part an IPSP needs to occur somewhere else) and that muscles counterbalance each other*

141
Q

How do inhibitory synapses work?

A

Postsynaptic cell needs to be hyperpolarised → +potassium channels open and + leaves the cell → or -choloride ions enter the cell*

142
Q

What was Loewi’s experiment and what did he discover?

A

Loewi stimulated a frogs vagus nerve → slows heartbeat and then transferred the fluid around the heart to another frog also slowed heart in second frog → most synapse communicate chemically

143
Q

What are the sequence of events at chemical transmission?

A

Neuron synthesises chemicals
→ neurotransmitters
→ also in axon terminals/ neuropeptides in cell body
→ action potential propagates and calcium releases neurotransmitters in the terminals into the synaptic cleft
→ travel to the postsynaptic neuron
→ neurotransmitter separate from receptors and are potentially returned to presynaptic neuron
→ postsynaptic neuron communicates with presynapse to control neurotransmitters<img></img>

144
Q

What are neurotransmitters and how are they synthesized?

A

Chemicals produced and released by neurons around 100 most shared gaba is the oldest;<img></img>

145
Q

What is MAO, and what is its role in neurons that release serotonin, dopamine, or norepinephrine?

A

Monoamine oxidase enzyme inhibiting the production of neurons that release serotonin, dopamine, or norepinephrine by breaking them into nonfuctioning units → used as basis for antidepressants

146
Q

What is the most common neurotransmitter in the nervous system?

A

Glutamate
* most inhibitory ionotropic synapses function with GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid), opening chloride gates to have -chloride in the cells
* Glycine mostly in spinal cordAcetycholine mostly excitatory ionotropic synapses

147
Q

What is the difference between ionotropic and metabotropic effects?

A

Sequence of metabolic effects after 30ms not 5ms: smell, pain,taste, arousal, emotion
Don’t depend on GABA or glutamine, but a lot of different NTs
First messenger aka NT binds at receptor → otherside connected with a guanosine triphosphate G-protein releases energy → more second messengers<img></img>

148
Q

What are neuropeptides?

A

Neuromodulators different function to neurotransmitters, similar to hormones in producing longer lasting effects by alterning gene activity

149
Q

What are the six main neurotransmitters found in the brain?

A

Acetylcholine GABA Serotonine Dopamine NorepinephrineEpinephrine

150
Q

What is an EPSP and IPSP and how are they caused?

A
  • Excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
  • Inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
151
Q

Which six methods can be used to record brain activity while a behaviour is occuing?

A
  1. record from electrodes in the brain
  2. electroencephalograph (EEG)
  3. evoked potentials
  4. magnetoencephalograph (MEG)
  5. positron emission tomography (PET)
  6. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
152
Q

Records changes in brain activity from the scalp by miliseconds with poor location signal resolution

A

EEG

153
Q

Records magnetic fields in brain activity from the scalp by miliseconds with poor location signal resolution

A

MEG

154
Q

Uses radiation to measure brain activity changes over time and location

A

PET

155
Q

Invasive way of stimulating a brain area, rarely used with humans but frequently with lab animals

A

stimulating electrodes

156
Q

Records changes in brain activity from the scalp by miliseconds with poor location signal resolution in response to a stimuli

A

evoked potentials

157
Q

Measures changes in brain activity over around 1 second and identifies locatin within 1 to 2mm

A

fMRI

158
Q

Uses radiation to map brain areas

A

CAT
| uses X-rays

159
Q

Maps brain areas in detail using magnetic fields

A

MRI

160
Q

Invasive way of recording brain activity, rarely used with humans but frequently with lab animals

A

record from electrodesin the brain

161
Q

Way of examining stimulating effects in any particular type of cell frequently with lab animals

A

optogenetic stimulation

162
Q

inflicting controlled damage

A

lesion

163
Q

removing a brain area

A

ablation

164
Q

intense application of magnetic stimulation to temporarily deactivate a brain area

A

transcranial magnetic stimulation

165
Q

What are ways to study brain-behaviour connection?

A

Investigating Brain Damage
* observing effects of deliberate stimulation TMS

166
Q

What is optogenetics and why is it used?

A

Research field in which particular cells are stimulated through light
* Psychiatric and medical disorders (narcolepsy) because controlling excitatory and inhibitory functions can be seen/measured

167
Q

What is an EEG mainly used for?

A

distinguish between wakefulness and sleep stages, if measured repeatedly also for epilepsy; evoked potentials/responses in children that cannot

168
Q

What’s the benefit of a MEG?

A

Shows temporal changes accurately in 1ms; can identify the amount of time an area responds which forms a wave from point of origin to processing areas

169
Q

What is a PET device called and how does it measure activity?

A

Cyclotron
* radioactive glucose (a sugar) is injected into a vein
→ PET measures where glucose is used as an indicator of brain activity
→ radioactive atom enhancement decays and releases positron
→ positron collides with neighbouring neurons by sending two gamma rays in the opposite direction
→ PET measures how much radioactive chemicals are in one area from the middle of the two gamma rays

170
Q

Why are PETs being replaced with fMRIs?

A

expensive , inaccessible and potentially dangerous

171
Q

What is the difference between fMRI and MRI?

A

MRI records energy released by water molecules after removal of a magnetic field and fMRI does the same for hemoglobin which binds to oxygen whereby hemoglobin with and without oxygen react differently to fMRIs

172
Q

What are advantages and disadvantages of fMRI?

A
  • Brain activity increases blood flow, aka more haemoglobin to react to, increases oxygen use, so amount of haemoglobin without oxygen decreases → measuring people falling asleep
  • Scans (need more data) + interpretation is difficult (researchers take mean activity, reduce certain areas to their reaction during a task)
173
Q

What is phrenology and surrounding issues?

A

Inferring brain functions and behaviour form skull

174
Q

What is a sterotaxic Instrument?

A

Device with an electrode tip which is inserted into a hole in the skull and passes an electrical current in then damaged brain area

175
Q

What are the different forms of lesions ?

A

Electric - most damaging to axons and neuronsChemical - more common because it either damages, temporarily suspends neurons or synapsesGene-knockout approach - induce a mutation in a gene regulating neural cells, transmitters or receptors

176
Q

How does transcranial magnetic stimulation work?

A

Magnetic stimulation is applied to the scalp whereby stong stimulation produces a virtual lesion as it deactivates neurons below the magnets –> allows non invasive study of lesions on brain-behaviour link

177
Q

excitotoxic lesion

A

A brain lesion produced by intracerebra l injection of an excitatory amino acid, such as kainic acid.

178
Q

stereotaxic surgery (stair ee oh tak sik)

A

Brain surgery using a stereotaxic apparatus to position an electrode or cannula in a specified position of the brain.

179
Q

bregma

A

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures of the skull; often used as a reference point for stereotaxic brain surgery.*

180
Q

stereotaxic atlas

A

A collection of drawings of sections of the brain ofa particular animal with measurements that provide coordinates for stereotaxic surgery.

181
Q

fixative

A

A chemical such as formalin; used to prepare and preserve body tissue. formalin (for ma /in) The aqueous solution of formaldehyde gas; the most commonly used tissue fixative.

182
Q

stereotaxic apparatus

A

A device that permits a surgeon to position an electrode or cannula into a specific part of the brain.

183
Q

microtome

A

An instrument that produces very thin slices of body tissues.

184
Q

anterograde labeling method

A

A histological method that labels the axons and terminal buttons of neurons whose cell bodies are located in a particular region.*

185
Q

immunocytochemical method

A

A histological method that uses radioactive antibodies or antibodies bound with a dye molecule to indicate the presence of particular proteins of peptides.*

186
Q

retrograde labeling method

A

A histological method that labels cell bodies that give rise to the terminal buttons that form synapses with cells in a particular region.*

187
Q

transneuronal tracing method.

A

A tracing method that identifies a series of neurons that form serial synaptic connections with each other, either in an anterograde or retrograde direction; involves infection of specific neurons with weakened forms of rabies or herpes viruses*

188
Q

optogenetic methods

A

The use of a genetically modified virus to insert light-sensitive ion channels into the membrane of particular neurons in the brain; can depolarize or hyperpolarize the neurons when light of the appropriate wavelength is applied.<img></img>*

189
Q

microelectrode

A

A very fine electrode, generally used to record activity of individual neurons.<img></img>

190
Q

single-unit recording

A

Recording of the electrical activity of a single neuron.

191
Q

Give three examples of constructs that can be measured using standardised behavioural tasks in rodents.

A

Forced swim, tail suspension and learned helplessness tests.Tests of anhedonia (for example, sucrose preference, social interaction and sexual behaviour).
* Diverse tests of attention, working memory and episodic memory or prepulse inhibition.

192
Q

Q: What are behavioural assays used for in animal models of schizophrenia?

A

A: Behavioural assays are used to assess the face validity of animal models of schizophrenia.

193
Q

What assays might be useful in initial screens?

A

Assays based on acute stress procedures or anxiety-like behaviour might be useful in initial screens, but such screens should not be used as definitive evidence of a depression phenotype. Greater focus on anhedonia and homeostatic symptoms and broadening the scope of these assays would add a useful objective dimension to rodent studies.

194
Q

Q: Do the transgenic mouse models have construct validity?

A

A: The transgenic mouse models meet some criteria for face and predictive validity, but not construct validity

195
Q

What is the issue surrounding construct validity and the use of animal research in psychopathology?

A
  1. Injecting animals with a known genetic mutation linked to the disease → not possible
  2. Altering the expression of proteins hypothesised to lead to disease pathogenesis → lack of human evidenceExposure to validated environmental risk factors → not as straightforward
  3. how penetrant a given genetic variant is in producing a disorder/ how clearly linked; lack of human evidence for common genetic variants being irrefutably linked to mental health conditions*
196
Q

The study of humans with brain injuries allowed researchers to find that patients with deficits in speech also presented lesion in_________ area.
a. Amigdala
b. Broca
c. Hippocampus
d. occipital lobe

A

B

197
Q

The main purpose of the Diffusion tensor imaging technique is that it helps researchers identify:
a. which brain regions are particularly active during certain stimuli.
b. how specific brain regions look when they are damaged.
c. white matter and how different brain regions are connected.
d. the timing of brain activity relative to presentation of certain visual stimuli

A

C

198
Q

A researcher wants to compare the volume of grey matter in the brain during development, starting in early development until adulthood. Which of the following methods would be the most suitable?
a. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
b. Computerized tomography (CT)
c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI)
d. Optogenetic stimulation

A

A

199
Q

What’s the defining difference between MRI and CT

A

Although CT is used for structural/anatomical imaging of the brain, it requires X-rays - this is not the most suitable to be used in child and multiple times during development.

200
Q

Which of the following statements is MOST true regarding the brains of severely depressed patients?
a. Severely depressed patients’ brains show increased hippocampal volumes as compared to controls.
b. Severely depressed patients’ brains have a lower hippocampal function as compared to healthy individuals.
c. Severely depressed patients’ brains havehigher concentrations of 5-HT and catecholamines.
d. Severely depressed patients’ brains are characterised by up-regulated adult neurogenesis.

A

B

201
Q

How invasive are the different neuroimaging techniques?

A
202
Q

Intracranial cannula

A
203
Q

What is the role of the pretectum in the visual neural pathway?

A

reflex control of pupil and lens

204
Q

What is the role of the superior colliculus in the visual neural pathway?

A

orienting the movements of headand eyes

205
Q

What is the role of the hypothalamus in the visual neural pathway?

A

regulates the circadian rhythms

206
Q

Where is the concentration of rods and cones the highest across the retina?

A
  • Rods in the periphery and in between the fovea and blind spot
  • Cones in the fovea
207
Q

If you lost all of your cones, which of the following would likely occur?A) Loss of color visionB) Loss of peripheral visionC) Loss of night visionD) Loss of focused perception

A

A and D
| also light sensitivity

208
Q

Lateral inhibition describes

A

the reduced activity in one neuron induced by a neighbouring neuron that is active

209
Q

Which of the following statements best describes complex cells in the visual cortex?
a) They respond best to stationary stimuli.
b) They respond best to stimuli moving in a specific direction.
c) They are primarily involved in color perception.
d) They are sensitive to changes in brightness.

A

b

210
Q

Which type of retinal cell is primarily responsible for transmitting visual information from photoreceptors to ganglion cells?a) Bipolar cellb) Complex cellc) Amacrine celld) Horizontal cell

A

a| receives input directly from the receptors

211
Q

What is the primary function of end-stopped cells in visual processing?a) Detection of motionb) Perception of colorc) Recognition of facial featuresd) Detection of line orientation

A

d

212
Q

group of ganglion cell axons that exit through the back of the eye

A

optic nerve

213
Q

area at the back of the retina devoid of receptors

A

blind spot

214
Q

tiny area of the retina specialized for acute, detailed vision

A

fovea

215
Q

opening in the center of the iris where light enters

A

pupil

216
Q

law of specific nerve energies

A

rule that whatever excites a nerve always sends the same information to the brain

217
Q

ganglion cell

A

type of neuron in the retina that receives input from the bipolar cells

218
Q

blind spot

A

area at the back of the retina devoid of receptors

219
Q

neuron in the fovea of humans and other primates*

A

midget ganglion cell

220
Q

chemical contained in rods and cones that release energy when struck by light

A

photopigment

221
Q

horizontal cell

A

type of cell that receives input from receptors and delivers inhibitory input to*

222
Q

thalamic nucleus that receives incoming visual information

A

lateral geniculate nucleus

223
Q

receptive field

A

area in visual space that excites or inhibits any neuron

224
Q

small cell body with small receptive field in or near the fovea

A

parvocellular neuron

225
Q

large cell body with a large receptive field that is distributed evenly throughout the retina

A

magnocellular neuron

226
Q

area responsible for the first stage of visual processing

A

primary visual cortex (area V1)

227
Q

simple cell

A

cell that has a receptive field with fixed excitatory and inhibitory zones

228
Q

blindsight

A

ability to respond in limited ways to visual information without perceiving it consciously

229
Q

hypercomplex cell

A

cell that responds to a bar-shaped pattern of light in a particular orientation

230
Q

strabismus

A

condition in which the eyes do not point in the same direction

231
Q

What are cones for?

A

daytime lighting, or photopic conditions. 3 types of cones (with different photopigments)<img></img>

232
Q

What are rods?

A
  • nighttime lighting, or scotopic conditions.
  • Higher photopigment concentration.
  • More sensitive to light
  • (with different photopigments)<img></img>
233
Q

Are there rods or cones in the retina?

A

There are no rods in the central fovea, but there are manymore rods than cones in the peripheral retina

234
Q

Explain the process of phototransduction

A

<img></img> In rod cells in the dark, sodium-potassium-pump is in a depolarised state due to cGMP (glutamate release)
–> When light hits rhodopsin channel, it activates transducin
–> activates phosphodiesterase
–> phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP
–> hyperpolarised cell + decreased glutamate release
–> light stimulus! so rhodopsin is inactivated and via arrestin bound to rhodopsin transducin is blocked
–> cell becomes depolarised + glutamate release until the next light impulse hits

235
Q

What is the reason for color vision deficiency?

A

People with certain genes fail to develop one type of cone,or develop an abnormal type of cone.

236
Q

What’s the prevalence of colour blindness?

A

1 in 12* <img></img>

237
Q

Which gene is responsible for red-green colour deficiency?

A

The gene causing red-green colordeficiency, is on the X chromosome.* <img></img>

238
Q

What are parts of the parallel processing in the visual cortex?

A
  • Ventral stream (towards temporal cortex): identifying and recognizing objects and faces.
  • Dorsal stream (towards parietal cortex): important for identifying where the objects are.
239
Q

What is the IT?

A

<img></img>: inferior temporal cortex recognizes objects –>

240
Q

What’s visual agnosia

A

happens when the inferior temporal cortex is damaged and inhibits object recognition

241
Q

What is the role of the fusiform gyrus

A

recognising faces –> damage: prosopagnosia

242
Q

What is the MT?

A

Area MT: middle temporal cortex (=V5 area) –> responsible for processing visuospatial motion: inability to perceive or detect motion

243
Q

What happens if V4 is damaged?

A

loss of color vision at the corresponding location in the visual field, visual attention and object recognition issues

244
Q

What is the MST?

A

middle superior temporal cortex
* Motion perception
* Damage leads to motion blindness

245
Q

Rods –

A
  • nighttime lighting, or scotopic conditions. Higherphotopigment concentration. More sensitive to light.
246
Q

vision in the fovea?

A

<img></img>
* daytime lighting, or photopic conditions. 3 types of cones (with different photopigments)<img></img>

247
Q

In retinitis pigmentosa, early symptoms include the loss of peripheral vision and night vision. The loss of what type of cells couldlead to such symptoms?

A

rods

248
Q

What about people with maculardegeneration, which symptoms dothey have?<img></img>

A

cones

249
Q

Name the hidden parts

A
250
Q

Name the hidden parts of the eye

A
251
Q

Name the hidden parts of the eye

A
252
Q

Which ten structures are part of the visual neural pathway?

A
  1. Eye
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Optic chiasm
  4. Hypothalamus
  5. Optic tract
  6. Pretectum
  7. Superior colliculus
  8. Lateral geniculate nucleus
  9. Optic radiation
  10. Striate cortex
253
Q

What happened if I cut the optic chiasm in the middle?

A

I’d see the right visual hemisfield only with the left eye and the left visual hemisfield only with the right eye

254
Q

What are the features of light?

A
255
Q

What is astigmatism?

A
256
Q

What is presbyopia?

A
257
Q

What is myopia?

A
258
Q

What is hyperopia?

A
259
Q

What are the layers of the fovea?

A
260
Q

What is the trichromatic theory?

A

We perceive colour through the relative rates of response by three kinds of cones, each one maximally sensitive to a different set of wavelengths.

261
Q

Which cone is missing?

A

Image as viewed by an observer lacking green cones (deuteranomaly)

262
Q

Which cone is missing?

A

Image as viewed by an observer lacking blue
cones (tritanopia)

263
Q

Which cone is missing?

A

Image as viewed by an observer lacking red cones (protanopia)

264
Q

What are the odds of inheriting colour deficiency?

A

The gene causing red-green color deficiency, is on the X chromosome.

265
Q

Which visual cortex and other brain regions are implicated in vision?

A
266
Q

How does visual information process from the V1?

A
267
Q

What is the occipital lobe’s, temporal lobe and ventral stream role in vision?

A
268
Q

explain the neurochemical processes underpinning vision

A
269
Q

What is the measurement unit for loud sounds?

A

decibels (dB)

270
Q

Frequency is measured in X and describes….

A

the rate at which sound waves oscillateX= hertz (Hz)

271
Q

Part of the outer ear are the:

A
  • the pinna
  • auditory canal
272
Q

Part of the middle ear are the

A
  • ossicles
  • tympanic membrane
273
Q

Part of the inner ear are

A
  • oval window
  • cochlea
  • auditory vestibular nerve
274
Q

What is the importance of hair cell depolarization in auditory perception?

A

crucial for the transduction of mechanical stimuli (sound waves) into electrical signals that can be interpreted by the brain, enabling us to hear and perceive sound.

275
Q

What is the specific neurotransmitter released by hair cells in the cochlea to stimulate sensory neurons?

A

Glutamate

276
Q

How are the calium and potassium channels in the hair cells connected?

A

The intracellular release of calium during depolarisation also controls the potassium channels

277
Q

What is the auditory range of humans?

A

0-200db/20-20.000Hz
20-50db for Normal Speech

278
Q

What is the abbreviated pathway of sound to the ear?

A

Sound waves gathered into the outer ear aretransduced from air pressure into mechanicalenergy in the middle-ear ossicles (the hammer,anvil, and stirrup) and into electrochemicalactivity in the inner-ear cochlea.

279
Q

McGurk effect

A

brains give more credit to visual information than to auditory input

280
Q

THE SOUND AND THE EAR ?

A
  • Sound waves gathered into the outer ear aretransduced from air pressure into mechanicalenergy in the middle-ear ossicles (the hammer,anvil, and stirrup) and into electrochemicalactivity in the inner-ear cochlea.
281
Q

Why doesn’t unilateral damage to the inferior colliculus ormedial geniculate nucleus lead to deafness in one ear?

A

sound is split

282
Q

What is the role of the basilar membrane in sound detection?

A

The basilar membrane senses different sound frequencies at specific locations.
* Low-frequency sounds: The membrane vibrates in synchrony with the sound waves.
* The number of firing cells identifies loudness

283
Q

What happens in theTonotopic maps on the basilar membrane and cochlear nucleus?

A

From the base to the apex of the cochlea, the basilar membrane resonates with increasingly lower frequencies. This tonotopy is preserved in the auditory nerve and cochlear nucleus.

284
Q

Why does sound localisation vary?

A

Across three domains:
* Difference in time of arrival
* Difference in intensity between the ears (sound shadow)
* Phase difference between the ears

285
Q

How common are hearing disorders?

A

Hearing loss is the third most common condition among older adults
* 25-40% of people over 65 years old
* 50% of people over 75
* 80% of people over 85

286
Q

What leads to conductive hearing loss

A

Diseases, infections, or tumorous bone growth can prevent the middle ear from transmitting sound waves properly to the cochlea. It includes all pathologies in the external and middle ear.

287
Q

What leads to sensorineural hearing loss

A

Nerve deafness: damage to the cochlea, the hair cells, or the auditory nerve (disease, exposure to loud noises)

288
Q

Presbycusis

A

Age-Related Hearing Loss

289
Q

Age-Related Hearing Loss

A

Degeneration of the sensory cells in the cochlea, supportingcells and auditory nerve; brain areas responsible for languagecomprehension become less active, decreased attentionalcapacities

290
Q

Cochlear implant

A

medical device that uses electricity tostimulate the spiral ganglion cells of the auditory nerve torestore sensorineural hearing loss<img></img>

291
Q

LANGUAGE PERCEPTION

A

Listening to speech activates extensive areas in the temporal lobe, with the activation strongly biased toward the left hemisphere
* Early organization of auditory areas and lateralization for language similar to adults.

292
Q

Developmental changes in native language phonetic perception?

A

Significant increase in performance for the native-language contrast in the first year
* Decline in nonnative perception over the same time period
* <img></img>

293
Q

Transduction by hair cell

A
294
Q

Depolarization of a hair cell

A
295
Q

THE AUDITORY PATHWAY

A
296
Q

How does sound localisation vary?

A
297
Q

What leads to central auditory processing disorders

A
298
Q

What can be said about brain activity in musicians and non-musicians?

A

Nonmusicians showed larger activity on the right than the left hemisphere, whereas musicians showed symmetrical activation

299
Q

How can we hear sound?

A

Psychology - Year 1 Weekly Flashcards (4 decks)

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