Piper PA-44 Seminole systems Flashcards
1
Q
Engine manufacturer?
A
Lycoming
2
Q
How much rated horsepower does the Seminole have?
A
180
3
Q
What type of engines does the Seminole have?
A
Four cylinder, direct drive, horizontally opposed, and air cooled engines.
4
Q
Who manufactures the props on the Seminole?
A
Hartzell
5
Q
What is total fuel capacity in the Seminole?
A
110 Gallons of which only 108 is usable.
6
Q
How much oil can each engine have at max?
A
8 qts. with a minimum of 6 qts. per UND
7
Q
What is the definition of Va?
A
Maneuvering speed at which fuel application of aerodynamic control may be used without over stressing the airplane. 112-135 knots.
8
Q
What type of auto pilot does the Seminole Have?
Where does it pull it’s info from?
A
Rate Based.
Turn Coordinator and accellarometers
9
Q
What is the other type of auto pilot and where does it pull it’s info from?
A
Attitude Based.
Pulls info from attitude indicator
10
Q
When can the Seminole’s auto pilot not be engaged?
A
Airspeed less than 80 or above 185 kts Flaps above 25 degrees On missed approach/go-around Taking-off or landing When shooting an approach above CAT I Below 200' AGL W/O handbook in the aircraft
11
Q
Which engine installed on the Seminole has an engine designation number LO-360-AH6?
A
The Right
12
Q
The LO-360-AH6 turns _________ as viewed from the cockpit.
A
Counterclockwise
13
Q
The Piper Seminole is rated for 180HP at sea level. This horsepower is best described as _________
A
BHP, brake horsepower
14
Q
How many gallons of fuel does the Seminole’s fuel system contain when completely full?
A
110 gal
15
Q
The basic operating weight of the Seminole contains ______ gallons of fuel.
A
2 gal
16
Q
When calculating weight and balance, if you fill the fuel tanks, you should add how many pounds to the BOW?
A
648 lbs
17
Q
When conducting a 180 turn on the ramp, what is the minimum turning radius?
A
33ft
18
Q
When placing the Seminole in a hanger, what is the minimum hanger door height to clear the horizontal stabilizer?
A
8ft 6in
19
Q
When placing oil in the Seminole, which grade of oil should be used for temperatures from 0F to 90F if a Ashless Dispersant SAE oil grade is used.
A
20W50 or 15W50
20
Q
What are the demensions of the baggage door?
A
22” L x 20” H
21
Q
When flying at Va, the pilot may apply any combination of flight controls without causing damage to the aircraft.
A
False
22
Q
When loaded to maximum ramp weight, the Seminole must burn ____ gallons of fuel before takeoff.
A
3 gals
23
Q
The power loading of the Seminole is _____ lbs per hp.
A
10.55 lbs/hp
24
Q
What is the maximum engine RPM as limited by the propeller governor?
A
2700 RPM
25
What is the maximum CHT with a full rich mixture?
500 deg F
26
When attempting to clear a close-in obstacle after takeoff, with the gear down at maximum gross weight, which speed should be maintained?
82 kts
27
Use of GPSS mode is authorized with VLOC displayed on the PFD?
False
28
What is maneuvering speed at 3,500lbs (typical training weight)?
129 kias
29
While flying in “rough air”, the POH recommends a maximum speed of __________.
Va
30
The limit load factor of 3.8G is positive or negative.
False
3. 8 postive
- 1.52 neg
31
What is the maximum oil pressure for takeoff?
115 PSI
32
The Seminole as equipped at UND is certified for use under FAR part 135.
True
33
If 4 adults are loaded into the aircraft, may a child under the age of 2 be held on a lap without a seat belt?
No
34
The aircraft may be flown under VFR conditions without the MFD.
False
35
Single engine stalls can produce an altitude loss of more than _________ ft and _____ degrees of pitch.
300ft/30 deg
36
The maximum speed for opening the storm window is ________.
129 kias
37
During emergency procedures, checklist should be followed as a substitute for judgment and common sense.
False
38
Using partial carburetor heat is recommended during climb out if ice is suspected to reduce the loss of power associated with full carburetor heat.
False
39
The fuel cross feed position may be used during takeoff and landing.
False
40
The use of fuel cross feed is limited to _____________ only.
Level cruise flight
41
The gear warning mute switch is capable of muting the gear warning horn if the flaps are extended beyond the 10 degrees with the gear up.
False
42
If conducting a gear up landing, the approach should be flown with ________ flaps.
0 deg
43
The LOW BUS annunciator indicates less than _____ VDC on the ________BUS.
12.5 volts/Tie
44
The magnetic compass will have an error of more than ________ degrees with the alternators inoperative.
10
45
After a complete engine failure, the pilot has ________ seconds to activate the standby attitude indicator or it will shut off.
60
46
If the cabin door becomes unlatched during flight, the pilot should slow to _________kias before attempting to close the door.
82
47
During the engine securing procedure, the pilot must select the FEATHER position before the engine RPM reaches _______, otherwise the propeller anti-feathering pin will engage.
950
48
Maximum power can be used on the engine with the cowl flap in the OPEN position without risk of an engine over temp at ______ degrees F at sea level.
100
49
After conducting an air start, it is necessary to decrease the propeller RPM slightly to prevent a propeller overspeed.
True
50
If a engine fire persist the pilot should _____________.
Maintain the maximum allowable speed with the gear up (202 or 169) while diverting to the nearest possible airport.
51
After a loss of fuel pressure, if the electric pump is activated but fuel pressure is not restored, this most likely indicates _________.
a fuel leak, turn the fuel pump OFF.
52
When checking the PITOT heat on the ground, limit its operation to _______ minutes.
3
53
When starting the engine at +20F and below, operate the first engine for no less than ____ minutes at a maximum RPM of _______.
5/1500
54
When starting below +10F, the propeller should be manually rotated through 10 blades before attempting to start the engine.
True
55
The standby attitude indicator will operate for up to _______ minutes if properly charged.
60
56
According to the POH fast taxi turns should be avoided prior to takeoff to _________.
prevent fuel starvation
57
When conducting a maximum performance climb, power should not be reduced to 75% at 500FT AGL.
True
58
To prevent starter damage, the maximum cranking period should be limited to __________ followed by a cool down period.
30 seconds
59
What is the minimum CHT for takeoff?
No set limit as long as the power can be set to full w/o backfiring.
60
While operating on a single alternator, the pilot should limit the maximum alternator output to _____ amps to ensure adequate charging of the battery.
60
61
When conducting a cross-wind landing, the pilot should maintain a crab angle, and transition to a side slip when ___________.
Ready to flare
62
Interpolation and extrapolation are approved while conducting preflight performance calculations.
False
63
When calculating your cruise performance, the Seminole will burn ____GPH fuel at best economy (PEAK EGT) while using 75% power.
19.2
64
In the Seminole, you can maximize the aircraft endurance by flying at a ___________ pressure altitude.
minimum
65
In zero wind, the Seminole will have a greater range at a ______ pressure altitude.
higher
66
The oil cooler winterization place should be installed any time the ambient temperature is ____F or less.
50
67
What are the demensions of the Seminole?
Length .......... 27’ 7.2”
Wing Span .... 38’ 6.6”
Height .............. 8’ 6.0”
Wing Area ..... 183.8 ft2
68
What is the wing loading of the PA-44-180?
20.6 pounds per sq foot
69
What are the max weights of the Seminole?
* Takeoff ............................. 3800 lbs.
* Ramp ............................... 3816 lbs.
* Landing ........................... 3800 lbs.
* Baggage Compartment ... 200 lbs.
* No Zero Fuel Weight
70
What type of construction is the airframe?
Semi monocoque
71
What type of wings does the Seminole have and what is their service life?
Semi tapered
| 14,663 flight hours
72
What is the travel of the rudder and rudder trim tab?
Rudder: 37 deg
| Rudder Trim Tab: 26 deg Travel
73
What is the travel of the stabilator and it's trim tab?
Stabilator Travel
•15 deg Up
•3 deg Down
Stabilator Trim Tab
•4 Up
•9 Down
74
What does the elevator down spring do? What activates it?
Forces the elevator into a nose down position.
| Activated when the trim tab becomes ineffective.
75
What type of Ailerons does the Seminole have?
| What is their travel?
Modefied Frise with differential travel
23 Up
17 Down
76
What type of flaps does the Seminole have?
Single Slot
77
What is the firing order of the left engine?
1,3,2,4
78
What is the firing order of the right engine?
1,4,2,3
79
What can we use to control the tempurater of the engine?
* Cowl Flaps
* Power Setting
* Airspeed
* Fuel Mixture
80
Where is the carb heat located?
| Is the air filtered?
Shroud over the #4 cylinder
| No
81
What secondary function does the carb heat provide?
An alternate air source
82
What are the 7 uses of engine oil?
* Lubricates
* Cools
* Cleans
* Protects engine against corrosion
* Seals
* Cushions
83
What is the minmum amount of oil the LO-360-AH6 requires to safely run?
How much does UND require?
2 qt
| UND requires 6 qt
84
What are the CHT limits for best power and best economy?
435 deg F, best power
| 400 deg F, best economy
85
What are some benefits of super/turbo charging your engine?
- Flying at high altitudes
- Increases margin of safety while flying in mountainous terrain
- Maintain altitudes above icing
- Avoid turbulence
- Utilize beneficial winds aloft
- Improved TAS
86
Explain forced induction.
–Provides the engine with higher manifold pressures than can be achieved with normal aspiration.
–Increases volumetric efficiency by “pushing” more air into the cylinder than could normally be pushed into the cylinder by atmospheric pressure.
–More Oxygen + More Fuel = More POWER
87
What is an 'Altitude Engine' according to FAR 1.1?
A reciprocating aircraft engine having a rated takeoff power that is producible to an established higher altitude
88
What is a Critical Altitude?
The maximum altitude at which a turbocharged engine can produce its rated horsepower
89
Manifold pressure decreases __ per ____ above sea level
1", 1000ft
90
What is the difference between a supercharger and a turbocharger?
•Supercharger
–Driven directly by the engine via gears or belts.
–Compresses the fuel/air mixture AFTER it leaves the carburetor.
•Turbocharger
–Driven by high velocity exhaust gases that are passing through the exhaust system.
–Compresses the induction air BEFORE it is mixed with fuel from the carburetor.
91
What are the two biggest disadvantages to a super charger?
- Uses a significant amount of engine power
| - More complex maintenance and failure wise
92
Explain the difference between a turbocharged and turbonormalized engine.
Turbocharged
›A turbocharged engine has boosted manifold pressure above ambient sea level pressure, increasing the amount of power the engine is capable of producing.
Turbonormalized
›A turbonormalized engine compensates for the loss of ambient sea level pressure as the aircraft’s altitude increases.
›This allows the engine to maintain sea level rated horsepower up to very high altitudes. It does not increase the amount of horsepower the engine is capable of producing.
93
The nitrogen charge, govenor spring and counter weights bring the propeller to _________ pitch _________ RPM.
high, low
94
Sluggish propeller control and propeller overspeed with poor RPM recovery after rapid throttle application are indications that?
the nitrogen charge is low
95
Engine oil pressure by the propeller governor is boosted to ______ PSI.
275
96
True or False
| If the engine loses oil pressure the propeller will overspeed?
False
97
A windmilling propeller reduces single-engine climb performance by ______ FPM
-200
98
True or False
The unfeathering accumulator is designed to bring the propeller out of the feathered position and reduce wear and tear on the starter?
True
99
Feathering time on the Seminole with the accumulator installed is _____ to _____ seconds.
10-17
100
Feathering time on the Seminole without the unfeathering accumulator installed is ____ seconds.
6-8
101
The purpose of the anti-feathering pins is to prevent?
The propeller from feathering during shutdown.
102
What forces push the propeller to a low angle, high RPM position?
Oil Pressure
| Aerodynamic twisting
103
The anti-feathering pins prevent feathering below what RPM?
950
104
How long does it take to unfeather the prop?
8-12 seconds
105
The oil stored in the accumulator is at what PSI?
90-100
106
What is the difference between Synchronize and Synchrophase
* Synchronize means to have both propellers at the same RPM
* Synchrophase means to have the propellers at the same RPM and the blades passing the fuselage in a programmed phase where no two blades pass it at the same time
