Pilot Training Manual Book Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The EMB 120 is certified under:

A

Part 25

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2
Q

The EMB 120 has how many generators?

A

5

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3
Q

The EMB 120 forward entry door my be:

A

Raided and lowered manually
Raised hydraulically—lowered manually

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4
Q

The EMB 120 DV windows may be removed by the crew? T/F

A

True

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5
Q

If the main entry door is not securely closed and locked:

A

A door open light will illuminate in the cockpit

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6
Q

How many cycles can the forward entry door be operated without recharging its accumulator?

A

4

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7
Q

The EMB 120 has how many landing lights?

A

2

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8
Q

The EMB 120 has how many taxi lights?

A

2

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9
Q

Passenger cabin lighting is controlled by:

A

A 3 position switch located on the attendants panel

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10
Q

Taxi lights turn off automatically on landing gear retraction? T/F

A

True

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11
Q

The flight attendant my be called from:

A

The cockpit
The cabin
The lav

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12
Q

The emergency lights come on if:

A

The cockpit switch is in ARM and the EDC bus 1 fails
The cockpit switch is placed to ON
The attendants switch us placed to ON, regardless of the position of the cockpit switch

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13
Q

What warning systems does the EMB 120 have?

A

Visual
Aural
Vocal

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14
Q

The color of the alarm/indication system lights are:

A

Red and green
Amber and white

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15
Q

Visual alarm light dim levels are controlled automatically? T/F

A

False

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16
Q

How many power sources does the multiple alarm panel have?

A

2

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17
Q

Does the crew how the ability to lower the volume of the aural warning system?

A

No

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18
Q

The total usable fuel capacity is:

A

5732 pounds

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19
Q

The fuel system consists of what kinds of fuel pumps and how many of each?

A

4 Electric boost pumps
4 Scavenger jet pumps
2 Main jet pumps

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20
Q

The firewall shutoff valve is operated through the:

A

Fire extinguisher T-handle

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21
Q

What color light indicates crossfeed operation

A

White

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22
Q

When pressure fueling, the airplane must be electrically powered? T/F

A

False

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23
Q

APU fuel used goes through the fuel totalizer? T/F

A

True

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24
Q

What happens when fuel flow indicators loose power?

A

Digital indication goes blank

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25
Q

The APU provides a source of

A

Pneumatic and electrical power

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26
Q

Can the APU receive fuel from the left fuel tank?

A

Yes

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27
Q

The APU will automatically shutdown if rotating parts exceed

A

110%

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28
Q

During the APU start cycle, what commands starter disengagement?

A

ECU

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29
Q

Can the APU be operated in flight?

A

Yes

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30
Q

What engines does the EMB 120 have?

A

Pratt-Whitney 118 A/B

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31
Q

The engine has how many compressors?

A

2

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32
Q

The engine has how many turbines?

A

4

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33
Q

The engine power control is accomplished by the operation of

A

A combination of the EEC and the HMU

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34
Q

The device that provides essential fuel control functions in the absence of electrical power is

A

Hydromechanical metering unit (HMU)

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35
Q

The maximum torque allowed is

A

110% for 5 min

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36
Q

The EEC is normally used in what positions?

A

TO or ON positions

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37
Q

If the EEC light on the glareshield illuminates, this indicates

A

An electrical failure exists in the system

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38
Q

Which turbine provides power to the propeller shaft?

A

Power turbine

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39
Q

Maximum continuous torque

A

100%

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40
Q

Maximum continuous engine RPM

A

100%

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41
Q

Minimum oil temp for takeoff

A

45C

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42
Q

Oil pressure alarm light illuminates at

A

40 PSID

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43
Q

Condition lever positions are

A

MAX RPM
MIN RPM
FEATHER
FUEL CUT-OFF

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44
Q

The PW118 combustion section is defined as

A

Reverse flow annular combusor

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45
Q

Power lever movement provides direct control to

A

HMU

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46
Q

During engine start, with the ignition system set to AUTO

A

The igniters come on automatically
The igniters go off automatically

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47
Q

What if any indication does the pilot have to indicate that the engine igniters are energized

A

A white ignition light on the start/ignition panel will illuminate

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48
Q

After initiation the start cycle is automatically interrupted at approximately

A

50% Nh

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49
Q

How is the fuel heated

A

Engine oil

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50
Q

How many compressor bleed ports does each engine have?

A

2

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51
Q

How is fuel flow to the engine metered?

A

HMU/EEC

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52
Q

Failed fixed is a function of

A

The EEC

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53
Q

When does the EEC control function activate?

A

25% Nh

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54
Q

If the gust lock is set, power levers are restricted in movement? T/F

A

True

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55
Q

The condition lever has free movement from feather to fuel cut-off? T/F

A

False

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56
Q

Engine compressors are axial or centrifugal?

A

Centrifugal

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57
Q

The free power turbine is

A

A two stage axial flow

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58
Q

What are the engine bleed ports called?

A

P 2.5
P 3

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59
Q

Who makes the propeller

A

Hamilton-sundstrand

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60
Q

I’m normal operation, maximum governed propeller speed is

A

1300 - 1309 rpm

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61
Q

Normal operational pitch range is

A

79.2 (feather) to -15 (reverse)

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62
Q

In flight, Np is controlled by

A

PCU and condition lever

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63
Q

The main component for selecting propeller pitch is

A

PCU

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64
Q

The main component for changing propeller pitch is

A

Propeller servomechanism

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65
Q

If through a malfunction the propeller become fixed pitch, what items control Np

A

Power and speed changes

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66
Q

During taxi and reverse, which unit controls Np?

A

EEC

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67
Q

Pitch lock is term used to describe

A

A device which lock the propeller pitch in flight of the propeller oil pressure is lost

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68
Q

Which controls input sets the propeller speed

A

Condition lever

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69
Q

When operating in the beta range

A

The speed governor system has no control of propeller pitch

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70
Q

The beta valve position is adjusted by the

A

Power lever

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71
Q

Propeller blade angle at flight idle

A

17.6

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72
Q

In flight, if the engine has failed and propeller has not been feathered, it will then automatically feather? T/F

A

False

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73
Q

If an approach with autofeather armed and engine fail, with its propeller autofeather

A

No

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74
Q

Propeller syncs us activated by

A

System selected on and Np > 80%

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75
Q

The main purpose of the least selector value is to

A

Select the proper speed governor
(Normal or overspeed)

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76
Q

Engine bleed air is ducted from 3 separate ports? T/F

A

False

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77
Q

The duct leak warning system is activated when temperature is the duct region reaches

A

195* F

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78
Q

If a “duct leak” is detected, the bleed-air system will automatically shut off? T/F

A

False

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79
Q

If a “bleed overheat” is detected, the bleed-air system will automatically shut off? T/F

A

False

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80
Q

What prevents moisture from entering tubing or Deicers

A

A water separator system

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81
Q

Deicer boots are operated by pneumatic air flowing through

A

4 ejector flow control valves

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82
Q

Leading edge deicer boots are controlled by

A

2 timers

83
Q

The modes of leading edge deicing are

A

On or off

84
Q

Deice boots are inflated for a maximum of

A

6 seconds

85
Q

When the leading edge system is selected the system cycles every

A

60 seconds

86
Q

Angel-of-attack and slip-skid sensors are deiced by

A

Electric heat

87
Q

Propeller deice is accomplished by

A

Electrical heat

88
Q

The propeller deice system is protected from damage during ground operation by

A

Low oil pressure switch

89
Q

When the “cold” mode of propeller deice is used the propeller blades are heated for

A

20 seconds

90
Q

The recommended temperature for selecting “cold” mode operation is

A

Below -10* C

91
Q

The windshield heat system heats the windshield to approximately

A

40-45* C

92
Q

Should any segment of the anti-ice/deice system fail, the pilot would be alerted by a

A

Amber light

93
Q

Static ports are electrically anti-iced? T/F

A

True

94
Q

Windshield wipers move at a rate if _____ on high mode

A

140 strokes/minute

95
Q

The EMB 120 is air conditioned by

A

Environmental control packs

96
Q

On the ground an air conditioner malfunction (PACK FAIL) would probably be caused by

A

Failure of the ground cooling fan

97
Q

Should there be a PACK FAIL malfunction, the system may be restarted by

A

Turning the pack control selector OFF then on

98
Q

The conditioned air temperature is controlled by

A

The mixture of cold air from the turbine and bleed air

99
Q

Temperature can be read from both the cockpit and the cabin? T/F

A

True

100
Q

To increase air flow to the cabin, the system has

A

2 recirculation fans

101
Q

With air conditioning system in the AUTO mode, the temperature range can controlled within

A

60* - 90* F

102
Q

The manual mode of operation can be used at the pilots discretion? T/F

A

False

103
Q

Should the air conditioning system malfunction and cause a DUCT OVERHEAT, the pilot will be warned by a

A

Amber light

104
Q

The DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on when the internal temp reaches

A

245* F

105
Q

The air distribution ratio between cockpit and cabin is

A

40-60

106
Q

Gasped fans should not be used in the MIX position during flight

A

It may blow warm air on the passengers head

107
Q

The airplane pressurized by mean of

A

Conditioned air from air-conditioning system

108
Q

Pressurization is controlled in

A

Automatic mode and manual mode

109
Q

Is the avionics compartment pressurized?

A

No

110
Q

The maximum pressurization differential is

A

7.2 psid

111
Q

How many outflows valves control air discharge?

A

2

112
Q

In the AUTO mode, which valves are operational

A

Electropneumatic outflow valve

113
Q

On the ground, engines running, electrical power on, power levers at GND IDLE, which pneumatic valves are open

A

Both, pneumatic and electropneumatic

114
Q

The AUTO mode of setting pressurization is Alway used unless

A

The AUTO system fails

115
Q

In manual mode, which valves are operational?

A

Pneumatic outflow valve

116
Q

The cabin warning light comes on at

A

10,000 ft

117
Q

With the engines and electrical system off which outflow valves are open

A

Both

118
Q

The absolute cabin altitude limit is

A

13,000 ft

119
Q

The cabin climb rate may be set between

A

200 - 1500 fpm

120
Q

The cabin decent rate is may be set between

A

150 - 1000

121
Q

During decent, if the controller is set as recommended the cabin should descend at

A

450 fpm

122
Q

Upon landing does the the cabin automatically depressurize?

A

Yes

123
Q

Does the EMB 120 have 2 independent hydraulic systems

A

Yes

124
Q

How are the hydraulic systems identified

A

Green and blue

125
Q

Hydraulic pressure is provided by

A

Engine-driven pumps

126
Q

Hydraulic fluid may be blocked from flowing through the main hydraulic pump by

A

Pulling the engine fire T-handle

127
Q

Are the hydraulic system basically identical

A

Yes

128
Q

Which ways can the landing gear be extended

A

Gear handle
Alternate electrical system
Free-fall system

129
Q

Position status of the landing gear is provided by

A

Proximity switches

130
Q

The landing gear system is powered by which hydraulic system

A

Green

131
Q

If the free fall emergency method of lowering the gear is necessary what unlocks the unlocks

A

Mechanical cables

132
Q

How many landing gear positions indications are there

A

2

133
Q

What will cause the gear warning system to sound off

A

Flaps selected beyond 17* with gear up
Power lever angle reduced below 66* with gear up
Airplane descends below 200 agl
Airplane descends below 1500 agl

134
Q

Hydraulic pressure to the brake system is

A

3000 psi

135
Q

Does the EMB 120 have antiskid feature

A

Yes

136
Q

When the parking break is applied how many brakes are actuated

A

4

137
Q

If during takeoff the pilot forgot to release the parking break

A

A voice message will warn the pilot

138
Q

Are breaks automatically applied when landing gear is raised

A

Yes

139
Q

Does the nose wheel have its own brake system

A

No

140
Q

How many indications does the pilot have to warm him that the emergency/parking break is on

A

2

141
Q

Can the anti skid system be turned on or off

A

Yes

142
Q

The nose wheel steering is operated

A

Hydraulically through the green hydraulic system

143
Q

Is the nosewheel steered by rudder pedals and the tiller

A

Yes

144
Q

If the pilot sees the PRDAL STEER INOP warning light, what does this indicate

A

The nose wheel is not centered

145
Q

The nose wheel may be steered through a ____ degree arc with the tiller

A

100*

146
Q

Rudder pedals control nose wheel steering through a _____ degree arc

A

14 *

147
Q

The EMB 120 has ____ rudders

A

2

148
Q

The rudder system may be actuated by

A

Both green and blue hydraulic systems
Mechanically by push rode

149
Q

Can the rudder system be turned on and off

A

Yes

150
Q

If airspeed is above 120 knots and both hydraulic systems remain connected to the rudder what cockpit indication will the pilot see

A

OVERBOOST light

151
Q

Does the gust lock hold the rudder in place

A

No

152
Q

Rudder trim is a function of

A

Hydraulics

153
Q

Ailerons are actuated by means of

A

A cable and rod assembly

154
Q

Can the left and right ailerons may be operated independently by disconnecting one from the other in case of a stuck or jammed aileron

A

Yes

155
Q

If the left aileron is jammed and the the system is disconnected can the aircraft be controlled with the autopilot

A

No

156
Q

The autopilot servo is connected to

A

The left aileron actuator

157
Q

With the disconnect system actuated the copilots control wheel operates

A

The right aileron

158
Q

The elevator is actuated by means of

A

A cable and rod assembly

159
Q

If the the elevator disconnect system was actuated and only the pilot sides was free, would the stall warning system still be completely operational

A

No

160
Q

What axis of trim is available

A

Roll
Pitch
Yaw

161
Q

The aircraft is equipped with ____ flap panels per wing

A

3

162
Q

Flaps are actuated by

A

A hydraulic assembly

163
Q

Flap setting positions are

A

0 -15
15 - 25
25 - 45

164
Q

Which hydraulic system is the outboard flakes actuated by

A

Blue

165
Q

An asymmetrical flap condition occurs when

A

Two flap panels in the same pare differ in position by more then 7*

166
Q

A flap disagreement condition occurs when

A

2 pair of flaps differ by more then 7*

167
Q

What method or indication does the pilot have to determine a flap position malfunction

A

View the flap annunciator panel

168
Q

The EMB 120 has ____ independent pitot static systems

A

3

169
Q

The mode C input for the ATC transponder comes from

A

Pilots encoding altimeter

170
Q

The altitude alerted system visual and aural warnings triggers when

A

The aircraft is 400 feet from selected altitude
The aircraft deviates approximately 200 feet from selected altitude

171
Q

Does the EMB 120 have 2 identical and independent AHRS

A

Yes

172
Q

The auto flight system consists of

A

2 flight director systems
2 autopilots

173
Q

Will the electric pitch trim switch on the control wheel disengage the autopilot

A

Yes

174
Q

Will the vertical trim switch on the autopilot control panel disengage the autopilot

A

No

175
Q

The electronics bay ventilation system

A

Had 2 internal recirculation fans that come in when temps exceed 80* F

176
Q

The EMB 120 electrical system supplies

A

28 VDV and 26/115 VAC

177
Q

The EMB 120 has how many generators

A

5

178
Q

The EMB has how many batteries

A

2

179
Q

When using external power, can the APU generator be used

A

No

180
Q

The EMB 120 main battery rating is

A

24 volt
36 AH

181
Q

The main generator ratings are

A

28VDC
400 amps

182
Q

During the start phase, the starter generator is powered from

A

The central DC bus

183
Q

Can engine start be accomplished with the electrical system in emergency mode

A

No

184
Q

The main generators are connected to the electrical system by

A

Main generator contactors

185
Q

How many inverters does the aircraft have

A

2

186
Q

The number 1 inverter is powered by

A

DC bus 2

187
Q

With a total generator failure, the main battery will last for approximately

A

30 min

188
Q

The auxiliary generators come on line at

A

Approximately 70% Np

189
Q

Is the APU starter generator identical to the main starter generator

A

Yes

190
Q

Are the auxiliary generators identical to the main generators

A

Yes

191
Q

Can the APU generator be used in flight

A

Yes

192
Q

Can the APU generator be used with the battery for engine start

A

Yes

193
Q

The primary reason reason for the electrical system to automatically switch from normal mode to emergency mode is

A

Both main generator fail

194
Q

During normal flight, auxiliary generators power

A

DC bus 3 and relay DC bus 3

195
Q

The backup battery will automatically supply electrical power to the standby horizon when the voltage on EDC 1

A

Drops below 19 v

196
Q

Where are the aircraft batteries located

A

Left nose section

197
Q

During engine start the main purpose of the backup battery is

A

To prevent transients affecting certain instruments

198
Q

In a total electrical failure, the primary purpose of the backup battery is

A

To power the standby horizon only

199
Q

The auxiliary generators power the

A

Auxiliary DC bus
DC bus 3
Relay box DC BUS 3

200
Q

The backup battery is charged by the

A

EDC 2

201
Q

What RPM does the overspeed gov hood Np at

A

103%

202
Q

What prevents propeller blades from decreasing below 17.6 at FLT IDLE

A

Primary low pitch stop

203
Q

When does the the secondary low pitch stop automatically actuate

A

When propeller pitch decreases below 12.6

204
Q

What are the autofeather system requirements

A

Auto feather switch on
PLA Greater then 62*
Tq above 62*