PIC Upgrade Flashcards

1
Q

MEL Cat. A time frame?

A

Repair must happen per time stated in MEL

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2
Q

MEL Cat. B timeframe

A

72 hours starting the next day

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3
Q

MEL Cat. C timeframe

A

10 calendar days

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4
Q

MEL Cat. D timeframe

A

120 calendar days

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5
Q

CDL stands for

A

Configuration deviation list

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6
Q

NEF stands for

A

Nonessential equipment & furnishings

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7
Q

Is there ever a situation where something being done to the aircraft won’t need to be tracked?

A

No, SOMEONE has to do a write up.

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8
Q

EODO stands for

A

Eligible on demand operations

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9
Q

What is EODO

A

Designation in the FARs for fractional operators that allow us to operate with decreased tolerances

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10
Q

What OpSpec authorizes EODO

A

A057

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11
Q

When is comes to EODO/DAAPing, when do you look up the requirements for them?

A

ANY time you think you’ll be engaged in them

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12
Q

What are some things a high mins Capt (YOU) should be thinking about

A
  • Wx requirements go up by 100 & 1/2
    -Must use standard takeoff mins
    -Must advise OCC if wx is above normal but below these mins
    -Cant fly with an SIC with <75 hours
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13
Q

Military / foreign airports special TOLD criteria

A

TO vis must be 1mile
Landing vis must be 1/2mile

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14
Q

DAAP stands for

A

Destination Airport Analysis Program

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15
Q

OpSpec that authorizes DAAP

A

C049

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16
Q

What does DAAPing let us do?

A

Let’s us land on 80% of the runway instead of 60%

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17
Q

FOM section for EODO/DAAP

A

FOM 4.9.10

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18
Q

Wx mins to perform “see & avoid” departure

A

3000ft ceiling and 5sm vis

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19
Q

When must we announce minimum fuel?

A

700lbs

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20
Q

Max tailwind on a contaminated runway

A

5kts

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21
Q

When is “line up and wait” prohibited

A

Vis less than 1 mile unless we confirm that the runway is not active for landings

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22
Q

How do you confirm that RAIM is available for the intended route and time?

A

Contact the flight department

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23
Q

Can RNAV SIDs/DPs be flown if the database is out of date?

A

Yes as long as all the waypoints are checked

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24
Q

Can RNAV approaches be flown if the database is out of date?

A

No

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25
Q

O2 mask requirements
FOM 4.13.3

A

-Above 25,000 leaving the cockpit

Part 135: above 35,000 one mask on

Part 91/k: above 41,000 one mask on

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26
Q

If low ceilings/vis caused your go around how many more attempts can you make to the same airport?

A

1

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27
Q

When do we need to perform a landing assessment check?

A

Within 30min of destination

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28
Q

3 landing distance calculations that need to be considered

A

-Company SOP requirements
-Preflight planning (60/80%)
-Enroute/Landing assessment

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29
Q

FOM for landing distance requirements?

A

FOM 4.14.7

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30
Q

Max gust factor

A

20kts which is why we are allowed ref +10 (half of 20 is 10)

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31
Q

Stabilized approach criteria

A

-Fully briefed
-Configured for landing
-On Profile
-Sink rate < 1000 or briefed
-Ref to ref +10
-CDI within one dot
-No flags

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32
Q

Aircraft in AWARE brief

A

501s, MELs, Fuel

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33
Q

Weather in AWARE brief

A

Departure, enroute, destination, alternate

34
Q

Airport in AWARE brief

A

Runway length, approaches, FBOs, NOTAMS

35
Q

Route in AWARE brief

A

SIDs, STARs, special DPs, emergency return plan

Must brief automation for departure

36
Q

CAMI stands for

A

Confirm inputs with copilot
Activate said input
Monitor for desired outcome
Intervene if necessary

37
Q

When do you check IDs?

A

Part 135 flights only

38
Q

When do the owners (or flexjet leadership) have OPCON? What does that mean?

A

Part 91/91k flights. Owner can change destination mid flight and we only have to advise Flexjet.

39
Q

When do the OpSpecs not apply?

A

91k flights only have M specs

40
Q

Weather required to accept vis approach

A

3sm and 1000ft ceiling

C077

41
Q

Standard wx takeoff mins.
OpSpec ?

A

1 mile vis or 5000 RVR

Charlie

42
Q

What takes precedence, miles vis or RVR?

A

RVR takes precedence if the field has it

43
Q

Which OpSpec discusses lower than standard TO mins? How low can we go?

A

Charlie
500RVR (600 Part 91k)

44
Q

TO/Landing alternate wx minimums OpSpec?

A

Charlie

45
Q

Do we have an FAA de-ice/anti-ice program?

A

No

46
Q

When must the precontamination check be done in icing?

A

5 minutes prior to TO

47
Q

What does Type 1 fluid do and how should it be applied?

A

Its good against frost. Should apply two coats, first to de-ice and second to coat.

48
Q

Can we operate in freezing drizzle or rain?

A

No, AFM says we cannot.

49
Q

What type of fluid do we want if we feel the need to have anti-ice?

A

Types 2 & 4

50
Q

What are considered critical surfaces?

A

Wings, horizontal stab, vertical stab, control surfaces, upper surfaces of fuselage, and engine inlets.

51
Q

Where would you go to look for guidance on de/anti-icing?

A

FOM 7.3.7.2

52
Q

How far does a Tstorm have to be for us to receive fueling?

A

outside of 5 miles

53
Q

How long do you have to file an ASAP report?

A

24 hours after end of duty day

54
Q

How many life vests do you need?

A

1 per occupant

55
Q

Are personal o2 tanks allowed on board?

A

No, only oxygen concentrators

56
Q

You end up filing a new flight plan 30 minutes before departure, what do you have to get now?

A

A full route clearance.

57
Q

How late can the pax be before you have to contact OCC?

A

15 minutes

58
Q

How much charge does your Ipad have to have to be good to fly?

A

depends on how long the flight is.

59
Q

If your copilot needs to go to the hospital or ER, do you have to go with them?

A

Yes

60
Q

When can you cancel IFR inflight?

A

In VMC, landing runway in sight, and have established comms with someone on the ground.

61
Q

What Opspec authorizes us in RVSM

A

Bravo

62
Q

Required equipment for RVSM ops?

A

-2 barometric altimeters
-1 radar altimeter
-1 altitude alert system
-1 autopilot

63
Q

Average weights?

A

Pilot = 208/179 lbs
flight bag = 19lbs
crew bag = 34 lbs

64
Q

When must a crew member monitor a lav service?

A

Every time

65
Q

How long should the lav be flushed and how many gallons should be left in the system?

A

3min and 2 gal

66
Q

Can we fly if the top layer of chord is showing on a tire?

A

Yes as long as the wear is no more than 1 inch thick and 5.9in (nose)/9.8in (mains) long

67
Q

Do you have any brakes after performing a hydraulic system check?

A

No not until an engine is spooled up

68
Q

If during the flight control check your rudders don’t move, how do you figure out the issue?

A

Move one of the thrust levers past 25°. If the rudders move it’s the gust lock micro switch, if not then it’s the gust lock actuator motor. Either way call mx.

69
Q

Should the windshield heat switches be turned off simultaneously?

A

No, wait 5 sec in between each switch to avoid speed brake issue.

70
Q

It’s supposed to drop down to -10 or colder over night and you don’t have a hanger. What are you concerned of?

A

Cold soaked batteries, check the time limits if there’s no GPU available

71
Q

Can a lap child be held in seat 1 (closest to cockpit)?

A

No

72
Q

If the plane is full, how many lap children can there be?

A

1 for a total of 8 souls

73
Q

When is a Destination alternate required? FAR?

A

FAR 135.223

1500ft above lowest circling mda or lowest mda if there’s no circling or 2000ft above field (which ever is higher)

3 miles vis or 2 miles more than lowest applicable vis mins (whichever is greater)

74
Q

What does part 135 require for planning obstacle avoidance?

A

FAR 135.379

75
Q

Where is company guidance for winter ops?

A

FOM 7

76
Q

Where’s aircraft specific guidance for winter ops?

A

CFM

77
Q

How many limitations will prevent ipreflight from running numbers?

A

9 limiting factors:
Structural
Field length
Obstacle
Tire speed
Brake energy
Climb limit
TO Thrust
Contaminant depth
Speed limit

78
Q

On straight out departures, APG clears you for how far?

A

30 miles

79
Q

How many days is an Ipreflight typically good for?

A

7

80
Q

Can you taxi when it’s poor? (RCAM1)

A

Yes but you can’t take off unless conditions confirmed and AFM numbers work.

81
Q

Where can we find guidance on what approaches we can accept

A

OpSpec Charlie

82
Q

Phenom runway levels

A

Level 1: 4200/75
Level 2: 3500/60
Level 3: needs approval