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Flexjet Phenom 300 > Flexjet Systems Study Guide > Flashcards

Flexjet Systems Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Dimensions

A

L 51’4
W 52’2
H 16’9

Wheel base 9’4

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2
Q

What equip is powered by static inverter?

A

AC Outlets

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3
Q

Power source for the static inverter

A

Shed bus 1

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4
Q

What normal pilot action turns off the the static inverter?

A

Selecting the SIGNS/OUTLET switch to the PED-BELTS/OFF

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5
Q

Which conditions cause static inverter to be depowered automatically

A

Generator failure

Oxygen mask deployment

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6
Q

How many latch pins installed on main door

A

8

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7
Q

Auto off period for baggage lights

A

5 min

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8
Q

Where is the beacon light

A

Top of vertical stabilizer

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9
Q

What activates the beacon

A

Either START/STOP knob in RUN

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10
Q

Where are the strobes located

A

Top/Bottom of fuselage

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11
Q

Nav lights location

A

Wing tips

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12
Q

Landing/Taxi lights location

A

4 elements on lower fuselage adjacent to the wing root

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13
Q

TAXI lights on means

A

4 elements turn on with moderate intensity

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14
Q

Landing light on means

A

Center 2 elements go max intensity, outer 2 stay moderate

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15
Q

When do emergency lights turn on when In ARM

A

Electrical emergency
Impact

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16
Q

Static wicks

A

Total 14/16
Winglet 2 each
Aileron 2-3 each
Elevator 2 each side
Rudder 2

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17
Q

What locks the gear in the down position

A

MLG: Locking ring internal to actuator
NLG: over centered spring loaded locking stay mechanism

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18
Q

What unlocks the gear during retraction

A

MLG: Hyd press applied to the retract side of actuator

NLG: Hyd press applied to downlock release actuator

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19
Q

What keeps the gear locked in up position

A

Hook attached to Uplock box

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20
Q

What unlocks gear during extension

A

Hyd press applied to Uplock box release actuator

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21
Q

What happened when you pull the Gear Emergency Extension handle

A

Mechanically release Uplock hooks
Hyd fluid released
Gear extends through gravity

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22
Q

What criteria must be met to trigger GEAR aural warning with flaps 0-2

A

At least one gear not down AND
Altitude less than 700 LFE or AGL
Airspeed less than 160kts
One thrust lever angle less than 26 degree with other less than 40 (both engines)
Thrust lever less than 40 degrees (one engine)

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23
Q

What will trigger GEAR aural warning flaps 3-4

A

A least one gear not down (can’t be silenced)

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24
Q

Types of Brake/Wheel protection provided by brake control unit

A

Antiskid
Locked wheel
Touchdown
Retraction braking
Integrated built in test

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25
Q

Is antiskid avail when using emergency brake handle

A

No

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26
Q

Can the EMER/Parking Brake accumulator be charged without system pressure

A

No

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27
Q

How many brake applications are available with full accumulator charge

A

6

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28
Q

Min cooling period required for RTO or landing above Quick Turn Around Weight

A

20 min

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29
Q

Reference source for brake cooling periods

A

POH 2

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30
Q

Engine make and model with rated thrust

A

PW535E 3360lbs of thrust up to 30 degrees

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31
Q

Components of the accessory gear box

A

HYD pump
Oil pump
Fuel Management
Starter/Generator

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32
Q

FADEC protections with auto abort

A

Hot
Hung
No Lightoff

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33
Q

When are Engine start protections inhibited

A

In-flight start

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34
Q

How is the FADEC powered normally

A

Permanent magnet ALTERNATOR in the FMU mounted to the engine accessory case

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35
Q

Alternate power for FADEC

A

On side DC bus

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36
Q

ATR is armed when…

A

ATR is selected on (avionics)
Thrust levers in TOGA

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37
Q

What causes the ATR to automatically activate

A

ATR armed with either

20% Differential N1
Loss of communication between FADECs

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38
Q

How does ATR provide max thrust

A

FADEC commands FCSOV (ECS) valves closed so no bleed air is wasted on environmental

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39
Q

Position of FCSOV and PRSOV valves during ATR activation

A

All closed except PRSOV valve on operating engine with wing/stab anti ice valves open

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40
Q

How many FADEC channels?

A

2, one active and one standby

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41
Q

Function of active FADEC channel

A

Actively Control all engine functions

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42
Q

Function of standby FADEC channel

A

Monitors all engine functions and assumes control with failure of active channel

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43
Q

What determines active FADEC channel

A

Alternates between engine cycles

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44
Q

When will both igniters be commanded to operate

A

Engine inflight start
Auto relight
Ground start with temps below 0deg

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45
Q

When is only one igniter commanded on

A

Ground start with temps above 0deg

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46
Q

Ignition switch in the OFF position allows you to

A

Dry motor

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47
Q

Where do we find approved oil types

A

POH vol 1

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48
Q

Recommended time for checking oil following shutdown

A

10 to 20 min

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49
Q

3 main sections of each wing tank

A

Main
Collector
Surge

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50
Q

Types of fuel approved

A

Jet A
Jet A-1
JP8

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51
Q

Total fuel pumps per wing

A

Main Ejector pump
Scavenge Ejector pump
Dc Aux pump

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52
Q

Function of Main Ejector Pump

A

Draw fuel from Collector tank into line that supplies Fuel Management Unit

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53
Q

Function of Scavenge Ejector pump

A

Maintain the fuel level in Collector tank

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54
Q

How are the Main and Ejector pumps powered

A

Motive flow from FMU

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55
Q

With switch in Auto when do the Dc Aux pumps operate

A

Low pressure in engine supply line with START/STOP knob in RUN

Crossfeed

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56
Q

What happens when Fuel Xfeed is moved to LO1/LO2

A

Xfeed valve opens
Supply side DC pump turns on

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57
Q

Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another

A

No

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58
Q

How can the DC pumps be operated manually

A

Select the pump switch on

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59
Q

Can a DC fuel pump operate with the pump switch off

A

No

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60
Q

What pilot action closes the fuel shutoff valves

A

Depressing the fire SHUTOFF 1/2 button

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61
Q

When does the yellow FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL (CAS) illuminate

A

Less than 310lbs fuel remaining in collector tank

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62
Q

What triggers yellow FUEL IMBALANCE

A

Imbalance equal or greater than 220lbs, will remain illuminated until imbalance below 88lbs

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63
Q

When will the FUEL EQUAL cas appear after an imbalance

A

Imbalance is less than 44lbs

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64
Q

How many fuel quantity sensors installed

A

8 total, 4 per side

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65
Q

Location of fuel temp sensor

A

Right collector tank

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66
Q

Location and number of Main Tank fuel vents

A

One per side, under the wing below the Surge tank

67
Q

How is refueling and fuel sampling accomplished

A

Gravity through dump valve under each wing

68
Q

Aircraft components that are hydraulically actuated

A

Gear
Brakes
Emer/Parking brake
Multi-function spoilers
Spring loaded rudder booster
Stick pusher

69
Q

Function of main hydraulic accumulator

A

Stores pressure for periods of increased demand (simultaneous braking and ground spoiler application)

70
Q

Function if the Priority Valve

A

Restricts flow to landing gear actuators during operation of multiple hydraulic loads since in worst case scenario the gear can free fall down

71
Q

Number of hydraulic filters

A

2

72
Q

Normal pressure of the hydraulic pumps

A

Left pump 3000psi
Right pump 2850psi

73
Q

Indications of impending hydraulic filter bypass

A

Pop up indicators on the reservoir/manifold assembly

74
Q

What will close the hydraulic shutoff valves

A

HYD pump switch CLOSED
Fire shutoff button pushed
Hydraulic fluid overtemp (auto closes both valves)

75
Q

Pilot action required for accurate hydraulic fluid check

A

Emer/parking brake accumulator completely discharged

76
Q

Above what value should the hydraulic system pressure fall rapidly

A

1200psi

77
Q

How many batteries are installed and what type

A

2 lead acid

78
Q

Amp hour rating for each battery

A

Batt 1/ 34
Batt 2/ 48

79
Q

MIN temp for battery start

A

-18c

80
Q

Min voltage for battery start

A

24v

81
Q

On ground, batteries off, what busses are powered

A

Hot buses

82
Q

On ground, batteries on, which busses are powered

A

All except SHED busses

83
Q

Voltage range to accept GPU power

A

25-30v

84
Q

Indication that the plane will accept GPU power

A

GPU AVAIL light

85
Q

Function of the 1 OPEN or 2 OPEN position of BUS TIE switch

A

Forces respective bus tie open against system logic, other side operates normally

86
Q

Buses and equipment powered by Batt 2 during start

A

Hot batt bus 2
Central bus
Engine starter

87
Q

Buses powered by Batt 1 during start

A

Hot Batt bus 1
Emergency bus
Both DC buses

88
Q

How does DC Bus 2 receive power during start

A

Quiet start contactor

89
Q

Which buses are depowered during start

A

Shed buses

90
Q

Bus tie contactors position during start and normal operation

A

Start: Both open
Normal op: 1 open, 2 closed

91
Q

Which generators power which buses in flight

A

Gen 1: onside buses and Emergency bus
Gen 2: onside buses and Central bus

92
Q

Battery duration in Electrical Emergency configuration

A

45 min

93
Q

Purpose of ELEC EMER button

A

Manually forces the contactors into ELEC EMER configuration if system logic failed to do so

94
Q

Xbleed switch in auto, when will the valve open

A

Loss of bleed from one engine

95
Q

Cockpit indication that one or both Pressure Regulating SOVs is closed

A

CAS: BLEED 1 (2) OFF
ECS Synoptic
Ice protection synoptic

96
Q

What occurs when the ECS switch is over to either 1 or 2

A

Opposite side Pressure regulating SOV and ECS valve closes
Xbleed closed if wing/stab anti ice valves are closed

97
Q

What happens with the ECS switch in OFF VENT

A

Ram Air opens
ECS sovs close
Pressure reg sovs close if wing/stab off

98
Q

How does temp control work in Auto?

A

Valves automatically adjust to mix air to achieve selected temps

99
Q

How does temp control work in Man?

A

You manually adjust the valve to make it hotter or colder

100
Q

What happened when the temp control mode switch is OFF?

A

Vapor cycle system is off but valves are in auto

101
Q

How do you know if the vapor cycle system is working?

A

Environmental synoptic page

102
Q

Where are all the pressure valves located?

A

Aft cabin pressure bulkhead

103
Q

In what position does the outflow valve fail?

A

its last position

104
Q

In what position does the pressure relief valve fail? the negative pressure relief valve?

A

closed

105
Q

cockpit indication of outflow valve position?

A

Environmental synoptic page

106
Q

Main difference between the the two pressurization ECMU channels (electronic control and monitoring units)

A

one regulates the outflow valve automatically while the other controls it manually through the MAN position on the PRESN MODE switch

107
Q

do both pressurization ECMU channels provide cabin alt limit protections?

A

yes

108
Q

what happens when you hit the PRESN DUMP button

A

outflow valve opens
recirc fans disabled

109
Q

Max altitude allowed by the Press. ECMU when in AUTO?

A

12,000FT

110
Q

Max altitude allowed by the Press. ECMU when in MAN

A

14,500FT

111
Q

When will you get the red CAB ALTITUDE HI message BELOW 25,000?

A

LFE
< 8300 = 10,000
8300-9600 = 11,500
>9600 = 14,200

112
Q

When will you get the red CAB ALTITUDE HI message ABOVE 25,000?

A

Cabin alt > 10,000

113
Q

Can the active FD be removed with AP on?

A

no

114
Q

What pilot action disconnects AP?

A

AP button
QD button
Man trim
TO/GA

115
Q

What items are disabled when you hold down the QD

A

AP
YD
PUSHER
TRIM

116
Q

Function of Ventral Rudder?

A

essentially a back up YD above 60kts with YD off

117
Q

what happens when you press TO/GA

A

AP disengaged
Lat/Vert modes activated
nav legs sequenced past runway
nav source switch to GPS/FMS

118
Q

Some stuff that can cause AP/YD Fail

A

GIA (integrated avionics unit) fail
AHRS fail
ADC fail
FCE (Flight control electronics) fail
Stall warning

119
Q

How are climb/descent rates controlled in FLCH

A

Mainly by the throttles

120
Q

Which vertical modes will the AFCS not capture a selected lower altitude?

A

GS
GP

121
Q

Will GP capture if CDI I not centered?

A

No

122
Q

criteria for EDM to be armed…activated?

A

airplane pressure alt >25,000
AP on

CAB ALTITUDE HI activates it

123
Q

where does the IESI get its power, attitude info, heading info, air data, and nav info?

A

Power = emergency bus/DC BUS 1
Attitude = internal gyro
Heading = AHRS 1
Air data = Standby pitot static and its own internal ADC processor
Nav = ILS 1/2

124
Q

In the event of a dual AHRS fail, how can you keep heading?

A

GPS page has track info which is pretty reliable and the standby compass

125
Q

Mask Mic turned ON does what?

A

headset mic off
mask mic on
speaker on

126
Q

automatic cutout for comm transmitter?

A

35sec

127
Q

what types of operations are allowed by SBAS?

A

RNAV/GPS approaches down to LP/LPV mins

128
Q

When do we have to check RAIM?

A

If SBAS or WAAS isn’t avail along entire route of flight

129
Q

Can a SID/STAR be used if nav database is not current?

A

yes, as long as each point is checked against current charts

130
Q

can an RNAV or GPS approach be shot if the nav base isn’t current?

A

no

131
Q

when can we NOT use LNAV/VNAV (Baro-nav) mins?

A

approaches to airports above 5000ft elevation

132
Q

What does ATC see through our transponder ADS-B out?

A

our GPS position

133
Q

failed position of WING/STAB anti-ice valves?

A

closed

134
Q

What caution must be exercised when turning WING/STAB on?

A

Gotta confirm that current airspeed is at or above published min airspeed for operating in icing

135
Q

what do you have to check before reseting the ice speeds?

A

that there’s no ice on the airframe

136
Q

when is WING/STAB inhibited on the ground?

A

wheel speed below 40kts

137
Q

when is the N1 anti-icing bug visible?

A

Wing/stab on and gear down or single bleed source

138
Q

failed position of engine anti-ice valves

A

open

139
Q

when are the engine TTO probes heated

A

anti-ice switches on
on ground below 10 deg
in flight below 15 deg

140
Q

how is the starter/generator air inlet protected from ice

A

exhaust air from engine anti-ice system is directed over it

141
Q

when are ADS probes heated when in auto?

A

at least one engine running or weight off wheels

142
Q

how do we know if the ELT is transmitting?

A

flashing red light

143
Q

reference source for o2 quantity for dispatch

A

poh

144
Q

reference source for action required during high altitude airport ops

A

AFM

145
Q

When will the masks drop when the switch is in PAX AUTO

A

Cabin alt 14,700 =/- 300ft

146
Q

what is the volume of the o2 cylinder?

A

50cubic ft

147
Q

flap degrees in each postion?

A

8, 26, and 35 degrees

148
Q

is AP avail when we are using the backup pitch trim?

A

no

149
Q

which FCE controls normal trim

A

FCE 2

150
Q

which FCE controls the back up trim

A

FCE 1

151
Q

3 Functions of multifunction spoilers

A

roll spoiler
ground spoiler
speed brake

152
Q

at what wheel speed will ground spoilers disarm

A

45 knots

153
Q

what commands the spring loaded rudder booster

A

FADEC

154
Q

Electrical power source for rudder lock

A

hot bus 2

155
Q

power source for engine fire protection system

A

emergency bus

156
Q

how many fire detection loops are installed in each engine compartment

A

1 single loop

157
Q

NO TAKEOFF CONFIG triggered by what?

A

pitch trim out of green
flaps not in TO
spoiler not in TO
parking brake not released

158
Q

How many fire bottles are installed and where are they located?

A

One in the rear fuselage

159
Q

What type of chemical is in the fire bottle?

A

Halon 1301

160
Q

What happens when one of the SHUTOFF buttons are pressed?

A

Bleed, fuel, and hydraulic SOVs close
Bottle is armed
SHUTOFF button white stripe is lit

161
Q

Do we get an indication when the fire bottle is blown?

A

Yes, ENG FIREX DISCH

162
Q

PRSOV positions during start

A

SAT >30c = both closed
SAT between 8c - 30c = PRSOV 2 Open
SAT < 8c = both open

163
Q

What part of the avionics controls the Flight Directors?

A

The GIA’s

164
Q

What navigation sensors are used in long range (magenta) source?

A

GPS only

Flexjet Phenom 300 (4 decks)

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