Flexjet Systems Study Guide Flashcards
Dimensions
L 51’4
W 52’2
H 16’9
Wheel base 9’4
What equip is powered by static inverter?
AC Outlets
Power source for the static inverter
Shed bus 1
What normal pilot action turns off the the static inverter?
Selecting the SIGNS/OUTLET switch to the PED-BELTS/OFF
Which conditions cause static inverter to be depowered automatically
Generator failure
Oxygen mask deployment
How many latch pins installed on main door
8
Auto off period for baggage lights
5 min
Where is the beacon light
Top of vertical stabilizer
What activates the beacon
Either START/STOP knob in RUN
Where are the strobes located
Top/Bottom of fuselage
Nav lights location
Wing tips
Landing/Taxi lights location
4 elements on lower fuselage adjacent to the wing root
TAXI lights on means
4 elements turn on with moderate intensity
Landing light on means
Center 2 elements go max intensity, outer 2 stay moderate
When do emergency lights turn on when In ARM
Electrical emergency
Impact
Static wicks
Total 14/16
Winglet 2 each
Aileron 2-3 each
Elevator 2 each side
Rudder 2
What locks the gear in the down position
MLG: Locking ring internal to actuator
NLG: over centered spring loaded locking stay mechanism
What unlocks the gear during retraction
MLG: Hyd press applied to the retract side of actuator
NLG: Hyd press applied to downlock release actuator
What keeps the gear locked in up position
Hook attached to Uplock box
What unlocks gear during extension
Hyd press applied to Uplock box release actuator
What happened when you pull the Gear Emergency Extension handle
Mechanically release Uplock hooks
Hyd fluid released
Gear extends through gravity
What criteria must be met to trigger GEAR aural warning with flaps 0-2
At least one gear not down AND
Altitude less than 700 LFE or AGL
Airspeed less than 160kts
One thrust lever angle less than 26 degree with other less than 40 (both engines)
Thrust lever less than 40 degrees (one engine)
What will trigger GEAR aural warning flaps 3-4
A least one gear not down (can’t be silenced)
Types of Brake/Wheel protection provided by brake control unit
Antiskid
Locked wheel
Touchdown
Retraction braking
Integrated built in test
Is antiskid avail when using emergency brake handle
No
Can the EMER/Parking Brake accumulator be charged without system pressure
No
How many brake applications are available with full accumulator charge
6
Min cooling period required for RTO or landing above Quick Turn Around Weight
20 min
Reference source for brake cooling periods
POH 2
Engine make and model with rated thrust
PW535E 3360lbs of thrust up to 30 degrees
Components of the accessory gear box
HYD pump
Oil pump
Fuel Management
Starter/Generator
FADEC protections with auto abort
Hot
Hung
No Lightoff
When are Engine start protections inhibited
In-flight start
How is the FADEC powered normally
Permanent magnet ALTERNATOR in the FMU mounted to the engine accessory case
Alternate power for FADEC
On side DC bus
ATR is armed when…
ATR is selected on (avionics)
Thrust levers in TOGA
What causes the ATR to automatically activate
ATR armed with either
20% Differential N1
Loss of communication between FADECs
How does ATR provide max thrust
FADEC commands FCSOV (ECS) valves closed so no bleed air is wasted on environmental
Position of FCSOV and PRSOV valves during ATR activation
All closed except PRSOV valve on operating engine with wing/stab anti ice valves open
How many FADEC channels?
2, one active and one standby
Function of active FADEC channel
Actively Control all engine functions
Function of standby FADEC channel
Monitors all engine functions and assumes control with failure of active channel
What determines active FADEC channel
Alternates between engine cycles
When will both igniters be commanded to operate
Engine inflight start
Auto relight
Ground start with temps below 0deg
When is only one igniter commanded on
Ground start with temps above 0deg
Ignition switch in the OFF position allows you to
Dry motor
Where do we find approved oil types
POH vol 1
Recommended time for checking oil following shutdown
10 to 20 min
3 main sections of each wing tank
Main
Collector
Surge
Types of fuel approved
Jet A
Jet A-1
JP8
Total fuel pumps per wing
Main Ejector pump
Scavenge Ejector pump
Dc Aux pump
Function of Main Ejector Pump
Draw fuel from Collector tank into line that supplies Fuel Management Unit
Function of Scavenge Ejector pump
Maintain the fuel level in Collector tank
How are the Main and Ejector pumps powered
Motive flow from FMU
With switch in Auto when do the Dc Aux pumps operate
Low pressure in engine supply line with START/STOP knob in RUN
Crossfeed
What happens when Fuel Xfeed is moved to LO1/LO2
Xfeed valve opens
Supply side DC pump turns on
Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another
No
How can the DC pumps be operated manually
Select the pump switch on
Can a DC fuel pump operate with the pump switch off
No
What pilot action closes the fuel shutoff valves
Depressing the fire SHUTOFF 1/2 button
When does the yellow FUEL 1 (2) LO LEVEL (CAS) illuminate
Less than 310lbs fuel remaining in collector tank
What triggers yellow FUEL IMBALANCE
Imbalance equal or greater than 220lbs, will remain illuminated until imbalance below 88lbs
When will the FUEL EQUAL cas appear after an imbalance
Imbalance is less than 44lbs
How many fuel quantity sensors installed
8 total, 4 per side
Location of fuel temp sensor
Right collector tank
Location and number of Main Tank fuel vents
One per side, under the wing below the Surge tank
How is refueling and fuel sampling accomplished
Gravity through dump valve under each wing
Aircraft components that are hydraulically actuated
Gear
Brakes
Emer/Parking brake
Multi-function spoilers
Spring loaded rudder booster
Stick pusher
Function of main hydraulic accumulator
Stores pressure for periods of increased demand (simultaneous braking and ground spoiler application)
Function if the Priority Valve
Restricts flow to landing gear actuators during operation of multiple hydraulic loads since in worst case scenario the gear can free fall down
Number of hydraulic filters
2
Normal pressure of the hydraulic pumps
Left pump 3000psi
Right pump 2850psi
Indications of impending hydraulic filter bypass
Pop up indicators on the reservoir/manifold assembly
What will close the hydraulic shutoff valves
HYD pump switch CLOSED
Fire shutoff button pushed
Hydraulic fluid overtemp (auto closes both valves)
Pilot action required for accurate hydraulic fluid check
Emer/parking brake accumulator completely discharged
Above what value should the hydraulic system pressure fall rapidly
1200psi
How many batteries are installed and what type
2 lead acid
Amp hour rating for each battery
Batt 1/ 34
Batt 2/ 48
MIN temp for battery start
-18c
Min voltage for battery start
24v
On ground, batteries off, what busses are powered
Hot buses
On ground, batteries on, which busses are powered
All except SHED busses
Voltage range to accept GPU power
25-30v
Indication that the plane will accept GPU power
GPU AVAIL light
Function of the 1 OPEN or 2 OPEN position of BUS TIE switch
Forces respective bus tie open against system logic, other side operates normally
Buses and equipment powered by Batt 2 during start
Hot batt bus 2
Central bus
Engine starter
Buses powered by Batt 1 during start
Hot Batt bus 1
Emergency bus
Both DC buses
How does DC Bus 2 receive power during start
Quiet start contactor
Which buses are depowered during start
Shed buses
Bus tie contactors position during start and normal operation
Start: Both open
Normal op: 1 open, 2 closed
Which generators power which buses in flight
Gen 1: onside buses and Emergency bus
Gen 2: onside buses and Central bus
Battery duration in Electrical Emergency configuration
45 min
Purpose of ELEC EMER button
Manually forces the contactors into ELEC EMER configuration if system logic failed to do so
Xbleed switch in auto, when will the valve open
Loss of bleed from one engine
Cockpit indication that one or both Pressure Regulating SOVs is closed
CAS: BLEED 1 (2) OFF
ECS Synoptic
Ice protection synoptic
What occurs when the ECS switch is over to either 1 or 2
Opposite side Pressure regulating SOV and ECS valve closes
Xbleed closed if wing/stab anti ice valves are closed
What happens with the ECS switch in OFF VENT
Ram Air opens
ECS sovs close
Pressure reg sovs close if wing/stab off
How does temp control work in Auto?
Valves automatically adjust to mix air to achieve selected temps
How does temp control work in Man?
You manually adjust the valve to make it hotter or colder
What happened when the temp control mode switch is OFF?
Vapor cycle system is off but valves are in auto
How do you know if the vapor cycle system is working?
Environmental synoptic page
Where are all the pressure valves located?
Aft cabin pressure bulkhead
In what position does the outflow valve fail?
its last position
In what position does the pressure relief valve fail? the negative pressure relief valve?
closed
cockpit indication of outflow valve position?
Environmental synoptic page
Main difference between the the two pressurization ECMU channels (electronic control and monitoring units)
one regulates the outflow valve automatically while the other controls it manually through the MAN position on the PRESN MODE switch
do both pressurization ECMU channels provide cabin alt limit protections?
yes
what happens when you hit the PRESN DUMP button
outflow valve opens
recirc fans disabled
Max altitude allowed by the Press. ECMU when in AUTO?
12,000FT
Max altitude allowed by the Press. ECMU when in MAN
14,500FT
When will you get the red CAB ALTITUDE HI message BELOW 25,000?
LFE
< 8300 = 10,000
8300-9600 = 11,500
>9600 = 14,200
When will you get the red CAB ALTITUDE HI message ABOVE 25,000?
Cabin alt > 10,000
Can the active FD be removed with AP on?
no
What pilot action disconnects AP?
AP button
QD button
Man trim
TO/GA
What items are disabled when you hold down the QD
AP
YD
PUSHER
TRIM
Function of Ventral Rudder?
essentially a back up YD above 60kts with YD off
what happens when you press TO/GA
AP disengaged
Lat/Vert modes activated
nav legs sequenced past runway
nav source switch to GPS/FMS
Some stuff that can cause AP/YD Fail
GIA (integrated avionics unit) fail
AHRS fail
ADC fail
FCE (Flight control electronics) fail
Stall warning
How are climb/descent rates controlled in FLCH
Mainly by the throttles
Which vertical modes will the AFCS not capture a selected lower altitude?
GS
GP
Will GP capture if CDI I not centered?
No
criteria for EDM to be armed…activated?
airplane pressure alt >25,000
AP on
CAB ALTITUDE HI activates it
where does the IESI get its power, attitude info, heading info, air data, and nav info?
Power = emergency bus/DC BUS 1
Attitude = internal gyro
Heading = AHRS 1
Air data = Standby pitot static and its own internal ADC processor
Nav = ILS 1/2
In the event of a dual AHRS fail, how can you keep heading?
GPS page has track info which is pretty reliable and the standby compass
Mask Mic turned ON does what?
headset mic off
mask mic on
speaker on
automatic cutout for comm transmitter?
35sec
what types of operations are allowed by SBAS?
RNAV/GPS approaches down to LP/LPV mins
When do we have to check RAIM?
If SBAS or WAAS isn’t avail along entire route of flight
Can a SID/STAR be used if nav database is not current?
yes, as long as each point is checked against current charts
can an RNAV or GPS approach be shot if the nav base isn’t current?
no
when can we NOT use LNAV/VNAV (Baro-nav) mins?
approaches to airports above 5000ft elevation
What does ATC see through our transponder ADS-B out?
our GPS position
failed position of WING/STAB anti-ice valves?
closed
What caution must be exercised when turning WING/STAB on?
Gotta confirm that current airspeed is at or above published min airspeed for operating in icing
what do you have to check before reseting the ice speeds?
that there’s no ice on the airframe
when is WING/STAB inhibited on the ground?
wheel speed below 40kts
when is the N1 anti-icing bug visible?
Wing/stab on and gear down or single bleed source
failed position of engine anti-ice valves
open
when are the engine TTO probes heated
anti-ice switches on
on ground below 10 deg
in flight below 15 deg
how is the starter/generator air inlet protected from ice
exhaust air from engine anti-ice system is directed over it
when are ADS probes heated when in auto?
at least one engine running or weight off wheels
how do we know if the ELT is transmitting?
flashing red light
reference source for o2 quantity for dispatch
poh
reference source for action required during high altitude airport ops
AFM
When will the masks drop when the switch is in PAX AUTO
Cabin alt 14,700 =/- 300ft
what is the volume of the o2 cylinder?
50cubic ft
flap degrees in each postion?
8, 26, and 35 degrees
is AP avail when we are using the backup pitch trim?
no
which FCE controls normal trim
FCE 2
which FCE controls the back up trim
FCE 1
3 Functions of multifunction spoilers
roll spoiler
ground spoiler
speed brake
at what wheel speed will ground spoilers disarm
45 knots
what commands the spring loaded rudder booster
FADEC
Electrical power source for rudder lock
hot bus 2
power source for engine fire protection system
emergency bus
how many fire detection loops are installed in each engine compartment
1 single loop
NO TAKEOFF CONFIG triggered by what?
pitch trim out of green
flaps not in TO
spoiler not in TO
parking brake not released
How many fire bottles are installed and where are they located?
One in the rear fuselage
What type of chemical is in the fire bottle?
Halon 1301
What happens when one of the SHUTOFF buttons are pressed?
Bleed, fuel, and hydraulic SOVs close
Bottle is armed
SHUTOFF button white stripe is lit
Do we get an indication when the fire bottle is blown?
Yes, ENG FIREX DISCH
PRSOV positions during start
SAT >30c = both closed
SAT between 8c - 30c = PRSOV 2 Open
SAT < 8c = both open
What part of the avionics controls the Flight Directors?
The GIA’s
What navigation sensors are used in long range (magenta) source?
GPS only
