Physiology I Material Flashcards
1
Q
name the 4 types of tissues
A
epithelial, connective, muscular and nervous
2
Q
What is parenchyma?
A
cells responsible for organs specialized functions
3
Q
What is stroma?
A
cells which have a supporting role in the organ
4
Q
Principle functions of epithelial tissues (3)
A
protection, absorption and secretion
5
Q
What is the lamina propria?
A
CT that underlies the epithelial lining of different body systems
6
Q
What are papillae?
A
small, irregular evaginations that increase contact area between epithelium and CT
7
Q
The ______ is a specialized, sheet-like extracellular material at the basal surface of epithelial cells
A
basement membrane
8
Q
the basement membrane attaches epithelia to _____
A
CT
9
Q
the 2 layers of the basement membrane:
A
basal lamina (top) and reticular lamina (bottom)
10
Q
the basal lamina is made up of (4):
A
laminin, type IV collagen, entactin/nidogen and perlecan
11
Q
the reticular lamina is made up of (2):
A
type III collagen and type VII collagen
12
Q
tight/occluding junctions (zonulae occludens) function:
A
to form a seal between adjacent cells
13
Q
Adherent/anchoring junctions function:
A
to serve as a site of string cell adhesion
14
Q
Gap junction function:
A
channels for communication between adjacent cells
15
Q
the major constituent of CT
A
ECM (extracellular matrix)
16
Q
the ECM is made up of (2):
A
protein fibers and ground substance
17
Q
Ground substance is made up of (3):
A
hydrophilic proteoglycans, glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) and multiadhesive glycoproteins
18
Q
Glycoproteins stabilize the ECM by binding to matrix components and _________
A
integrins in the cell membrane
19
Q
CT originates from ______ ______, which primarily comes from _______
A
embryonic mesenchyme ; mesoderm
20
Q
cells that are undifferentiated, have large nuclei and are spindle shaped:
A
mesenchymal cells
21
Q
the most common cell in CT:
A
fibroblast
22
Q
fibroblasts synthesize and secrete (5):
A
collagen, elastin, GAGs, proteoglycans and glycoproteins in the ECM
23
Q
fibroblasts are the target of:
A
growth factors
24
Q
macrophages specialize in:
A
phagocytosis
25
leukocytes are:
White Blood Cells
26
Leukocytes leave the blood and enter CT via a process called:
diapedesis
27
the 3 main types of fibers in CT:
collagen, reticular and elastic
28
collagen is extremely _____ and resistant to _______
strong ; normal shearing and tearing forces
29
the most abundant protein in the human body:
collagen
30
the number of collagen types present in vertebrates:
28
31
the three subunits of collagens:
fibrillar, sheet-forming and linking/anchoring
32
the types of fibrillar collagens (3):
collagen type I,II, and III
33
the type of sheet-forming collagen:
collagen type IV
34
the type of linking/anchoring collagen:
collagen type VII
35
the general structure of collagen:
procollagen alpha chains. three are stabilized into a triple helix by disulfide bonds
36
collagenases are members of the enzyme class called:
matrix metalloproteinases (MMPs)
37
reticular fibers consist mainly of:
collagen type III
38
reticular fibers occur where?
reticular lamina of the basement membrane
39
Elastic fibers are a composite of ____ ____ embedded in a larger mass of _____ _____
fibrillin microfibrils; cross-linked elastin
40
elastin resists digestion by most proteases, but is hydrolyzed by pancreatic ________
elastase
41
GAG structure:
repeating disaccharide units, usually a ironic acid and a hexosamine
42
the largest, most ubiquitous GAG:
Hyaluronic acid
43
the 4 major sulfated GAGs:
dermatan sulfate, chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate and heparan sulfate
44
a proteoglycan consists of:
a core protein covalently bonded to sulfated GAGs
45
embryonic mesenchyme is rich in (2):
hyaluronate and water
46
what is a molecule with oligosaccharide chains that have roles in adhesion?
glycoproteins
47
integrins are:
heterodimers of two transmembrane polypeptides- alpha and beta chains
48
what are clustered-microfilament complexes in fibroblasts?
focal adhesion
49
hydrostatic pressure of the blood is caused by _______, which forces _________.
the pumping action of the heart ; water out across the capillary wall
50
colloid osmotic pressure produced by _______, draws water _________.
plasma proteins ; back into the capillaries
51
This generally supports epithelial tissue. it is well vascularized. it has an equal number of components. can be called areolar tissue. it is flexible but not resistant to stress.
Loose CT
52
This is stress resistant and provides protection. its composition has fewer cells, and more collagen fibers than ground substance.
Dense CT
53
ligaments/tendons are made up of:
dense regular CT
54
Type of CT that is tough, resilient and supports some soft tissues. it is characterized by its ECM.
cartilage
55
the cells in cartilage:
chondrocytes
56
chondrocytes function to:
synthesize and maintain ECM components
57
chondrocytes are found in:
matrix cavities called lacunae
58
the major functional importance of cartilage:
shock absorber
59
hyaline cartilage is high in:
collagen type II
60
elastic cartilage is high in:
elastic fibers and collagen type II
61
fibrocartilage is high in:
collagen type I fibers
62
all cartilage is _____ and receives nutrients via _____.
avascular ; diffusion
63
cartilage lacks (2):
lymphatic vessels and nerves
64
perichondrium is made up of (3):
dense CT, collagen type I and fibroblasts
65
________ forms the interface between cartilage and tissue
perichondrium
66
_________ cartilage lacks perichondrium
articular
67
______ cartilage is the most common type of cartilage
hyaline
68
_______ is the most abundant proteoglycan of hyaline cartilage
aggrecan
69
the major regulator of hyaline cartilage growth:
somatotropin
70
IV discs and the pubic symphysis are made up of ________
fibrocartilage
71
there is no distinct perichondrium in
fibrocartilage
72
collagen forms from embryonic mesenchyme via a process called:
chondrogenesis
73
cartilage tissue enlarges via (2):
interstitial and appositional growth
74
3 major cell types in bone:
osteocytes, osteoblasts and osteoclasts
75
the CT on the internal surface of bone surrounding the marrow cavity:
endosteum
76
the CT on the external surface of bone:
periosteum
77
oseocytes have processes that occupy ______.
canaliculi
78
________ bind periosteum to bone
Sharpey's fibers
79
concentric lamellae surrounding the central canal of bone:
osteon
80
in between lamellae are:
lacunae
81
lacunae are interconnected via:
canaliculi
82
around the outer boundary of each osteon is a collagen rich layer called:
the cement line
83
central canals communicate with the marrow cavity and periosteum and one another via:
perforating/Volkmann canals
84
what are interstitial lamellae?
lamellae remaining from partially destroyed osteoclasts
85
Where are inner circumferential lamellae located?
around the marrow cavity
86
Where are external circumferential lamellae located?
immediately beneath periosteum
87
the 3 types of muscle tissue
skeletal, cardiac, smooth
88
a muscle cell membrane and its external lamina
sarcolemma
89
skeletal muscle is:
striated and multinucleated
90
cells that remain adjacent to differentiated skeletal muscle:
satellite cells
91
dense CT surrounding an entire muscle:
epimysium
92
thin CT that surrounds each bundle of muscle fibers (fascicle):
perimysium
93
a delicate layer of reticular fibers and scattered fibroblasts that surround external lamina of individual muscle fibers:
endomysium
94
A bands are _____ in color
dark
95
I bands are _____ in color
light
96
the Z disc bisects each ___ ____
I band
97
The A band is made up of (1):
myosin
98
a molecule with 3 subunits that binds to tropomyosin and Ca+:
troponin
99
A protein in I bands that is the largest protein in the body:
titin
100
The A band is bisected by the ___ _______ which is bisected by the ___ _____.
H zone; M line
101
contraction of muscle is induced when an action potential arrives at:
the neuromuscular junction (NMJ)
102
this covers myosin-binding sites on actin filaments:
tropomyosin
103
stretch detectors among muscle fascicles:
muscle spindles
104
____ ____ ____ are highly adapted for brief, episodic and intense contractions
skeletal muscle cells
105
skeletal muscle can have three subunits, which are partially controlled by the frequency of impulses and the type of work they do:
red, white and intemediate
106
cardiac muscle is (2):
striated and has intercalated discs
107
smooth muscle is (2):
not striated and is made up of closely packed fusiform cells
108
2 proteins that control sliding filaments in smooth muscle:
myosin light chain kinase (MLCK) and calmodulin
109
antigen presenting cells in the skin
Langerhans cells
110
tactile epithelial cells
Merkel cells
111
the epidermis consists mainly of:
stratified squamous keratinized epithelium (keratinocytes)
112
the layers of skin listed from the environment to dermis:
stratum corneum, stratum lucid, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum and stratum basale
113
the final steps in the process of ______ happen in the stratum granulosum
keratinization
114
_____ _____ is only found in thick skin
stratum lucidum
115
the dermis has two sublayers:
the papillary and reticular layers
116
the papillary layer of the dermis is made up of:
loose CT, collagen type I and III and fibroblasts
117
the reticular layer of the dermis is made up of:
thick, dense irregular CT
118
Subcutaneous tisse = _____ = superficial fascia
hypodermis
119
3 types of unencapsulated receptors in the skin:
Merkel cell, free nerve endings, and root hair plexuses
120
receptors that respond to light touch and textures:
Merkel cell
121
receptors that respond to high and low temperatures, pain, itchiness, and is a tactile receptor:
free nerve endings
122
receptors that detect the movement of hair:
root hair plexuses
123
there are 4 encapsulated receptors:
Meissner's corpuscles, Lamellaed (pacinian) corpuscles, Krause end bulbs and ruff ini corpuscles
124
receptors that are initiated when light touch or low frequency deforms their shape:
Meissner's corpuscles
125
receptors specialized in sensing coarse touch, pressure, and vibrations:
lamellated (pacinian) corpuscles
126
receptors that sense low frequency vibration in the genital region:
krause end bulbs
127
receptors stimulated by tension or torque:
ruffini corpusles
128
the epiphyseal plate (disc) separates the epiphysis and diaphysis of a bone and is made of:
hyaline cartilage
129
periosteum has how many layers?
2
130
the outer fibrous layer of periosteum contains (4):
collagen type I fibers, fibroblasts, blood vessels and nerves
131
the inner cellular layer of periosteum contains (1):
bone cells (osteoprogenitor cells and osteoblasts)
132
_____ give rise to osteoblasts
osteoprogenitor cells
133
what is Wolff's Law?
bone remodels its shape according to the way force is transmitted through it
134
what type of bone growth occurs between the diaphysis and physics of bones?
interstitial growth
135
inflammation of bone tissue caused b injury/infection
osteitis
136
overstretching or tearing of ligamentous tissue
sprains
137
damage to muscle tissue
strains
138
protein that connects thin filaments to the sarolemma of the cell, thus helping to transmit muscle tension to the muscle tendon
Dystrophin
139
stretch receptor located at the myotendinous junction
golgi tendon organ
